PreOperative Medications - Lecture 1/29/24 Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

If histamine is released what receptor/receptors do we target with antagonists?

A

Both the H1 and H2 receptors

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2
Q

What drugs induce histamine release?

A

Morphine
Mivacurium (not available in USA)
Pancuron - in high doses
Protamine (heparin)
Atracurium (Tracrium)

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3
Q

What happens when histamine activates H1?

A

Hyperalgesia & inflammatory pain.

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4
Q

What happens when histamine activates H2?

A

Elevates CAMP (B1-like stimulation)
Increases acid/volume production in stomach

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5
Q

What does H1 activate?

A

Muscarinic, cholinergic, 5-HT3, & Alpha adrenergic receptors

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6
Q

What does H2 activate?

A

5-HT3 and B1

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7
Q

What are the signs of H1 & H2 activation by histamine?

A

Hypotension d/t release of NO
Capillary permeability
Flushing
Prostacyclin release
Tachycardia

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8
Q

How does an anti-histamine work? Does it prevent histamine release?

A

No, works by preventing or limiting the responses to the histamine release. Prevents reactions/effects of histamine on the receptor - has to compete with the inverse agonists.

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9
Q

What is Benadryl mainly used for?

A

Antipruritic

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10
Q

What is the E 1/2 time of Benadryl?

A

7-12 hours

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11
Q

What is the Oculo-emetic reflex? What H1 receptor antagonist is used to prevent this reflex? How does the drug prevent the reflex?

A

The oculo-emetic reflex causes increased nausea and vomiting due to extensive manipulation of extraocular muscles
Prevent with Benadryl
Inhibits the afferent arc of the oculo-emetic reflex.

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12
Q

What are the black box warnings for Phenergan? What years did they come out?

A

2005 - Respiratory arrest in children under 2
2009- Infiltration causing serious necrosis

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13
Q

What diseases are H2 antagonists primarily used in?

A

Duodenal Ulcers
GERD

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14
Q

What is the major side effect of H2 antagonist?

A

Weakend gastric mucosa d/t bacteria b/c stomach not acidic enough to kill off bacteria leading to increased pulmonary infections and candida albicans overgrowth. Usually seen with chronic OTC use.

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15
Q

By how much can a H2 antagonist increase serum creatinine? Why does this happen?

A

Increases by 15% b/c there is competition for tubular secretion

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16
Q

Name examples of H2 antagonists

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet)
Ranitidine (Zantac)
Famotidine (Pecid)

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17
Q

Which H2 antagonist STRONGLY inhibits CYP450? What drugs last longer because of this?

A

Cimetidine
Warfarin, Phenytoin, Lidocaine, TCAs, Propranolol, Nifedipine, Meperidine, Diazepam

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18
Q

Name the 2 major adverse effects of Tagamet

A

Increased levels of prolactin (men develop boobs)
Inhibits dihydrotestosterone binding to androgen receptors causing impotence

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19
Q

Which H2 antagonist has a weaker binding to CYP enzymes & no significant interactions with other drugs?

A

Zantac

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20
Q

Which H2 antagonist has no interference with inhibition of other CYP450s, but is the most potent d/t longest E 1/2 time. What is this drug’s E 1/2 time?

A

Pepcid
E 1/2 time is 2.5-4 hrs; great for longer surgical cases.

21
Q

What is the downside of using Pecid?

A

Interferes with phosphate absorption

22
Q

What is the dose for Pepcid?

23
Q

How are H2 antagonists dosed for renal impairment?

A

1/2 of the normal dose

24
Q

How is Zantac dosed?

A

50mg diluted to 20mL given over 2 mins

25
What drug's metabolism do PPI's inhibit? How do they block activation of Plavix?
Warfarin Block the enzymes that activate Plavix
26
Which PPI is a prodrug?
Prilosec
27
Where does Prilosec protonate to become the active form?
In parietal cells
28
Can Prilosec cause confusion?
Yes; it crosses the BBB - don't give to patients with neuro issues
29
Which PPI has greater bioavaibility and a longer E 1/2 time than Prilosec?
Protonix
30
What drug do you give for NSAID ulcerations?
Prilosec
31
Name the PPIs mentioned in class
Protonix Prevacid Prilosec Dexilent (newer)
32
What can a Mg+ based antacid cause?
Neurologic and neuromuscular impairment
33
What does a dopamine blocker do?
Stimulates gastric motility (prokinetic). Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone (constricts), stimulates peristalsis, and relaxes pylorus & duodenum sphincter
34
Name the dopamine blockers mentioned in class
Reglan Domperidone (new FDA not approved; can get in Mexico/Canada/Switzerland) Droperidol
35
What is the #1 drug for diabetic gastroparesis?
Reglan
36
What syndrome can Reglan cause? What are the s/s of this syndrome?
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome High temp, muscle rigidity, tachycardia, confusion
37
What enzyme do dopamine antagonists decrease
Plasma Cholinesterase- leading to slow metabolism of succs, mivacurium, ester LAs This is a theoretical argument - not significant - still okay to give.
38
What drug is just as effective as 4mg of Zofran but is cheaper?
Droperidol
39
Side effects of Droperidol? What is the black box warning for this drug?
Extrapyramidal symptoms, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, FDA black box warning in 2001 for prolonged QT/torsades with higher doses.
40
What other drugs have the same black box warning as Droperidol?
Phenergan & Zofran
41
List the drug interactions Droperidol has
Amiodarone, diuretics, Sotalol, mineralcocorticoids, CCBs
42
How does Serotonin cause vomiting
It is released from the chromaffin cell of the small intestine and then stimulates the vagal afferent thru the 5HT3 receptors
43
Where are the 5HT3 receptors located?
Everywhere, ubiquitous (we are never getting away from this word). But highly concentrated in the GI tract and brain
44
Name the drugs mentioned in class that are %HT3 antagonists. Do they have an effect on motion sickness/vestibular stimulation?
Zofran Kytril Anzemet No they do not have an effect on motion sickness/vestibular stimulation
45
What drug only works on the 5HT receptors?
Zofran
46
How is Decadron dosed based on surgery length time?
2 hr surgery give with induction 4 hr surgery give halfway through surgery Can redose if needed
47
What is the big side effect of Decadron that you need to tell your patient's about?
Perineal burning/itching
48
What is SABA?
Short Acting Beta Agonist