Prerequisite Economics Flashcards

(1188 cards)

1
Q
A
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2
Q

What are the two broad areas of study in economics?

A

Macroeconomics and microeconomics

Macroeconomics deals with aggregate economic quantities, while microeconomics focuses on individual economic units.

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3
Q

Define the law of demand.

A

As the price of a good rises, buyers will choose to buy less of it, and as its price falls, they buy more.

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4
Q

What is the demand function?

A

A relationship that assigns a unique value to a dependent variable for any given set of values of a group of independent variables.

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5
Q

What variables influence the quantity demanded of a good?

A
  • The good’s own price
  • Consumers’ incomes
  • Tastes and preferences
  • Prices of other goods (substitutes or complements)
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6
Q

What does Q_x_d represent in the demand function?

A

The quantity demanded of some good X.

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7
Q

In the demand function, what does P_x stand for?

A

The price per unit of good X.

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8
Q

What is the significance of consumers’ income (I) in the demand function?

A

It affects the quantity demanded of good X.

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9
Q

What are normal goods?

A

Goods for which demand increases as consumer income rises.

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10
Q

What are inferior goods?

A

Goods for which demand decreases as consumer income rises.

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11
Q

What is price elasticity of demand?

A

A measure of how much the quantity demanded of a good responds to a change in its price.

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12
Q

What is income elasticity of demand?

A

A measure of how much the quantity demanded of a good responds to a change in consumer income.

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13
Q

What is cross-price elasticity of demand?

A

A measure of how much the quantity demanded of one good responds to a change in the price of another good.

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: The theory of the consumer deals with _______.

A

consumption (the demand for goods and services)

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15
Q

What is the primary focus of the theory of the firm?

A

The supply of goods and services by profit-maximizing firms.

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16
Q

What does diminishing marginal returns refer to?

A

The phenomenon where adding an additional factor of production results in smaller increases in output.

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17
Q

What are the breakeven and shutdown points of production?

A
  • Breakeven point: where total revenue equals total costs
  • Shutdown point: where price is less than average variable cost
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18
Q

True or False: The CFA Program exams measure mastery of core knowledge, skills, and abilities required to succeed as an investment professional.

A

True

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19
Q

What is the CFA Institute Learning Ecosystem (LES)?

A

A digital learning platform providing access to curriculum content and practice questions.

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20
Q

What is the average preparation time reported by successful candidates for each CFA exam?

A

More than 300 hours.

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21
Q

What are the components of the Candidate Body of Knowledge (CBOK)?

A
  • A broad outline of major CFA Program topic areas
  • Topic area weights indicating relative exam weightings
  • Learning outcome statements (LOS) detailing specific knowledge and skills
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22
Q

What is the purpose of the errata in the CFA curriculum?

A

To correct errors in the curriculum that may occur despite rigorous review.

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23
Q

What is the relationship between saving, investment, fiscal balance, and trade balance?

A

They are interconnected components that influence aggregate output and economic growth.

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24
Q

What does the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measure?

A

The total value of all goods and services produced in a country over a specific time period.

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25
What are the components of GDP?
* Consumption * Investment * Government Spending * Net Exports
26
Fill in the blank: Economic growth is measured by _______.
the increase in a country's output of goods and services.
27
What does I represent in the demand function?
Consumers' income (in •1,000s per household annually) ## Footnote 'I' is a variable used to denote the income level affecting demand.
28
What does Px represent in the demand function?
The price of a liter of gasoline ## Footnote 'Px' is a key variable that influences the quantity demanded of gasoline.
29
What does Py represent in the demand function?
The average price of an automobile (in •1,000s) ## Footnote 'Py' can be considered a related good that affects gasoline demand.
30
What is the equation for the demand function for gasoline?
Q x d = 84.5 - 6.39Px + 0.25I - 2Py ## Footnote This equation illustrates how quantity demanded varies with price, income, and the price of automobiles.
31
What does a negative coefficient on Px indicate?
As the price of gasoline rises, the quantity demanded decreases ## Footnote This reflects the law of demand, where higher prices typically lead to lower demand.
32
What does a positive coefficient on I indicate?
As consumers' income increases, the quantity of gasoline demanded increases ## Footnote This indicates that gasoline is a normal good.
33
What does a negative coefficient on Py indicate?
If automobile prices increase, the quantity of gasoline demanded decreases ## Footnote This suggests that gasoline and automobiles are complementary goods.
34
How is the per-household monthly demand for gasoline calculated with given values?
Using Q x d = 84.5 - 6.39(1.48) + 0.25(50) - 2(20) ## Footnote This calculation shows how specific values of Px, I, and Py affect the quantity demanded.
35
What does 'own price' refer to in economic terms?
The price of the good itself ## Footnote 'Own price' emphasizes that the focus is on the good in question, not another good.
36
What is the inverse demand function?
Px = f(Q x d) ## Footnote This function expresses price as a function of quantity demanded.
37
What is represented by the demand curve?
The highest quantity willingly purchased at each price ## Footnote It also indicates the highest price consumers are willing to pay for a given quantity.
38
What is the slope of the demand curve calculated as?
The change in price divided by the change in quantity (ΔP/ΔQ) ## Footnote The slope indicates how responsive the quantity demanded is to changes in price.
39
What is price elasticity of demand?
The sensitivity of quantity demanded to changes in the own price ## Footnote It measures how much the quantity demanded responds to price changes.
40
What factors can affect price elasticity of demand?
* Availability of substitutes* * Necessity vs luxury* * Proportion of income spent on the good* * Time period considered ## Footnote These factors determine how sensitive consumers are to price changes.
41
What happens to quantity demanded if the price of gasoline increases by 1 unit?
It decreases by 6.39 liters per month ## Footnote This is derived from the coefficient of Px in the demand equation.
42
What is a characteristic of real-world demand functions?
They may be non-linear in some or all parts of their domain ## Footnote Linear functions are often used for simplicity and approximation.
43
What is the significance of holding other variables constant in demand functions?
It allows for analysis of the relationship between the dependent variable and one independent variable ## Footnote This simplification helps isolate effects for clearer understanding.
44
What does the demand curve illustrate when price is on the vertical axis?
The highest price consumers are willing to pay for a given quantity ## Footnote It provides insight into consumer behavior at varying price points.
45
What is the coefficient on the price variable in the context of price elasticity of demand?
The coefficient measures sensitivity, indicating that whenever price changes by one unit, quantity changes by 6.39 units in the opposite direction. ## Footnote For example, if price rises by €1, quantity demanded falls by 6.39 liters per month.
46
What metric do economists prefer to use to measure sensitivity that does not depend on units of measure?
Elasticity ## Footnote Elasticity is expressed as the ratio of percentage changes in variables.
47
How is the own-price elasticity of demand defined mathematically?
E_p^d = %ΔQ^d / %ΔP ## Footnote This equation expresses the sensitivity of quantity demanded to a change in price.
48
When quantity demanded falls by 8% as a result of a 10% price rise, what is the elasticity of demand?
-0.8 ## Footnote The elasticity of demand is calculated as the ratio of the percentage changes.
49
What does it indicate if the magnitude of the own-price elasticity coefficient is less than one?
Demand is inelastic.
50
What does it indicate if the magnitude of the own-price elasticity coefficient is greater than one?
Demand is elastic.
51
What is the interpretation of an elasticity coefficient equal to negative one?
Demand is unit elastic.
52
What happens to the elasticity of demand when the price of gasoline is very high?
Demand becomes elastic.
53
What is a characteristic of all negatively sloped linear demand curves regarding elasticity?
Elasticity varies depending on the point on the demand curve.
54
What is the elasticity of demand above the midpoint of a linear demand curve?
Elastic.
55
What is the elasticity of demand below the midpoint of a linear demand curve?
Inelastic.
56
What is the elasticity of demand at the midpoint of a linear demand curve?
Unit elastic.
57
What is a perfectly inelastic demand curve?
A vertical demand curve with zero elasticity.
58
What is a perfectly elastic demand curve?
A horizontal demand curve with infinite elasticity.
59
What factors affect the elasticity of demand for a good?
* Availability of close substitutes * Portion of the budget spent on the good * Time allowed to respond to price changes * Necessity versus optional status of the good
60
How does the elasticity of demand generally change over time?
Long-run demand is more elastic than short-run demand.
61
How does the perception of a good as discretionary or non-discretionary affect its demand elasticity?
Non-discretionary goods tend to have less elastic demand.
62
What is the formula for income elasticity of demand?
E_I^d = %ΔQ^d / %ΔI
63
What does a positive income elasticity of demand indicate?
As income rises, quantity demanded also rises.
64
What does a negative income elasticity of demand indicate?
When income rises, quantity demanded decreases.
65
What is the significance of the elasticity coefficient being less than one, greater than one, or equal to zero?
* Less than one: inelastic * Greater than one: elastic * Equal to zero: no change in quantity demanded
66
What is the value of income elasticity of demand if it is 0.8?
Whenever income rises by 1%, the quantity demanded at each price would rise by 0.8%
67
What does a positive income elasticity indicate?
As income rises, quantity demanded also rises
68
What does a negative income elasticity indicate?
When income rises, quantity demanded decreases; when income falls, quantity demanded increases
69
Define normal goods in terms of income elasticity.
Normal goods have positive income elasticity
70
Define inferior goods in terms of income elasticity.
Inferior goods have negative income elasticity
71
What happens to the demand curve for normal goods when income rises?
The entire demand curve shifts upward and to the right
72
What happens to the demand curve for inferior goods when income rises?
The entire demand curve shifts downward and to the left
73
What is cross-price elasticity of demand?
It measures how sensitive the demand for good X is to changes in the price of another good Y
74
What does a positive cross-price elasticity indicate?
The goods are substitutes
75
What does a negative cross-price elasticity indicate?
The goods are complements
76
Give an example of substitute goods.
Two brands of beer
77
Give an example of complementary goods.
Gasoline and automobiles
78
What is the formula for own-price elasticity of demand?
E_p_x_d = (ΔQ_x_d / ΔP_x) * (P_x / Q_x_d)
79
What is the formula for income elasticity of demand?
E_I_d = (ΔQ_x_d / ΔI) * (I / Q_x_d)
80
What is the formula for cross-price elasticity of demand?
E_p_y_d = (ΔQ_x_d / ΔP_y) * (P_y / Q_x_d)
81
If the own-price elasticity of demand is -0.20, what does this indicate?
Demand is inelastic at that price
82
What is the interpretation of an income elasticity of 0.26?
A 1% increase in income would result in an increase of 0.26% in quantity demanded
83
What does a cross-price elasticity of -0.84 imply about gasoline and automobiles?
Gasoline and automobiles are complements
84
Fill in the blank: Normal goods have _______ income elasticity.
positive
85
Fill in the blank: Inferior goods have _______ income elasticity.
negative
86
What is the effect of a price increase on total expenditure for inelastic demand?
Total expenditure increases
87
What is the market demand function derived from individual demand functions?
It is the sum of all individual demand functions
88
If the price of e-books is €10.68, what is the own-price elasticity of demand for e-books?
Approximately -2.046, indicating elastic demand
89
Calculate the income elasticity of demand for e-books given the household income of €2,300.
0.551, indicating e-books are a normal good
90
What is the formula for cross-price elasticity of demand?
(ˇQeb/ˇPhb)(Phb/Qeb) ## Footnote Where ˇQeb/ˇPhb represents the change in quantity demanded of e-books with respect to the change in price of hardbound books
91
What does a positive cross-price elasticity of demand imply about two goods?
They are substitutes ## Footnote A positive cross-price elasticity indicates that as the price of one good increases, the quantity demanded of the other good also increases
92
What does the law of demand state?
A decrease in the price of a good will result in a greater quantity purchased ## Footnote This is represented by a negatively sloped demand curve
93
What are the two reasons consumers buy more of a good when its price falls?
* Substitution effect * Income effect
94
How does the substitution effect influence consumer behavior?
When the price of a good falls, consumers tend to purchase more of that good instead of its substitutes
95
What is the income effect?
The change in quantity demanded of a good resulting from a change in a consumer's real income due to a price change
96
What happens to the quantity demanded of normal goods when their price decreases?
Consumers buy more of the good ## Footnote Both substitution and income effects contribute to this increase
97
What characterizes inferior goods?
Consumers buy less of them when their income rises ## Footnote Conversely, they buy more when their income falls
98
What is the relationship between normal goods and consumer income?
An increase in income leads to an increase in the quantity demanded
99
What is the impact of a price decrease on inferior goods?
Consumers buy more of the good due to the substitution effect but may buy less overall due to the income effect
100
How do the substitution and income effects interact for normal goods?
They both reinforce each other to increase demand when the price falls
101
What is the phenomenon of diminishing marginal returns?
The decrease in the marginal product of labor as more workers are added to a fixed capital base
102
What is the significance of marginal cost in a firm's supply analysis?
It determines the firm's willingness to offer a given quantity for sale
103
What is the relationship between productivity and marginal returns?
Marginal returns are directly related to input productivity, which measures output per unit of input
104
What are the two primary inputs in production, according to economists?
* Labor * Capital
105
How is labor input measured?
In labor hours per time period
106
Fill in the blank: When the price of a good falls, the consumer will substitute more of this good in the consumption bundle and buy less of some other good due to the _______.
Substitution effect
107
True or False: An increase in income will always lead to an increase in the quantity demanded of inferior goods.
False ## Footnote Consumers buy less of inferior goods as their income rises
108
What happens to the demand for a good if both the substitution effect and income effect lead to the same direction?
Demand increases
109
What is the total labor hours per week if two laborers work 35 hours each?
70 labor hours per week
110
If a firm uses three machines for 12 hours each per week, what are the total machine hours?
36 machine hours per week
111
What do labor and capital inputs represent in production?
Flows of services: labor hours and machine hours
112
What is the formula for total cost of production (TC)?
TC = (w)(L) + (r)(K)
113
What does the cost function C = f(Q) relate to?
Production cost per time period to the number of units of output produced
114
What can cause the cost of producing a given level of output to fall?
Decrease in input prices or increase in input productivity
115
True or False: A firm incurs opportunity costs when using its own machines instead of renting them out.
True
116
What is the importance of productivity for a firm?
Maximizes output per unit of input and minimizes costs
117
What are the benefits of increased productivity?
* Lower business costs * Increased market value of equity * Increased worker rewards
118
What does a firm lagging in productivity face?
Competitive disadvantage and potential decreases in earnings
119
What input factor is typically used to measure a firm's operating efficiency?
Labor
120
Define total product.
Sum of the output from all inputs during a time period
121
How is average product calculated?
Total product divided by the quantity of a given input (Q/L)
122
What does marginal product measure?
Additional output from using one more unit of input
123
What is total product (Q) defined as?
Aggregate sum of production for a firm during a time period
124
What does average product of labor (APL) measure?
Productivity of labor on average
125
How is APL calculated?
Total product divided by total number of worker hours used
126
What was the APL for Company A that produced 100,000 widgets with 100 worker hours?
1,000
127
What was the APL for Company B that produced 180,000 widgets with 200 worker hours?
900
128
What was the APL for Company C that produced 200,000 widgets with 250 worker hours?
800
129
What does a higher APL indicate about a firm's efficiency?
More efficient in producing output
130
True or False: Company C has the highest APL among the three companies.
False
131
What does marginal product of labor (MPL) measure?
The productivity of each additional unit of input
132
How is MPL calculated?
By observing the difference in total product when adding another unit of input
133
What is the relationship between total product and labor hours until the seventh hour?
Total product increases with each additional hour of labor until the seventh hour, after which it declines
134
What is the average product (APL) when five labor hours produce 400 units?
80 units (400/5)
135
What is the marginal product (MPL) of the fifth labor hour when five hours produce 400 units and four hours produce 360 units?
40 units [(400 - 360)/(5 - 4)]
136
What does diminishing marginal returns refer to?
The decrease in marginal product as more units of labor are added to a fixed amount of capital
137
What is marginal revenue (MR)?
The additional revenue realized from increasing output by one unit
138
How is MR defined in a perfectly competitive market?
MR equals price per unit of output
139
What is marginal cost (MC)?
The increase to total cost from increasing output by one additional unit
140
What is the difference between short-run marginal cost (SMC) and long-run marginal cost (LMC)?
SMC is the additional cost of variable input, while LMC includes all inputs and allows for flexibility
141
What does the equation SMC = w/MPL represent?
The relationship between short-run marginal cost, wage rate, and marginal product of labor
142
What is the formula for average variable cost (AVC)?
AVC = TVC/Q
143
What happens to average fixed cost (AFC) as output quantity increases?
AFC declines as total fixed costs are spread over a larger number of units
144
What is the condition for profit maximization in terms of MR and MC?
Produce output where MR = MC
145
What is a second-order condition for profit maximization?
At the level of output where MR = MC, MC cannot be falling
146
What is total cost (TC)?
The summation of all costs, classified as fixed or variable
147
What does total fixed cost (TFC) represent?
All expenses that do not change as production levels vary
148
What is the relationship between total cost (TC) and total variable cost (TVC) at zero production?
TC equals TFC because TVC is zero at this output level
149
What pattern do average total cost (ATC) and average variable cost (AVC) curves typically follow?
They initially decline, reach a minimum, and then increase
150
When does the marginal cost (MC) curve intersect the AVC curve?
At the lowest point on the AVC curve
151
True or False: In a perfectly competitive market, a firm has pricing power.
False
152
Fill in the blank: The firm should increase output if _______.
MR > MC
153
What does increasing marginal returns refer to?
An increase in return when employee hours are added to the production process
154
What happens to AVC when MC is greater than AVC?
AVC will be increasing ## Footnote This indicates that as production increases, the average variable cost starts to rise.
155
At what point does MC equal AVC?
At point S, the lowest point on the AVC curve ## Footnote Beyond quantity QAVC, MC is greater than AVC, causing the AVC curve to rise.
156
Where does MC equal ATC?
At point T, the lowest point on the ATC curve ## Footnote Beyond quantity QATC, MC is greater than ATC, leading to an increase in the ATC curve.
157
What does A represent in the context of cost curves?
The difference between ATC and AVC at output quantity Q1 ## Footnote This amount represents the average fixed cost at that output level.
158
What does R indicate in the marginal cost curve?
The lowest point on the MC curve ## Footnote Beyond this point, fixed input constraints reduce the productivity of labor.
159
What is the relationship between average cost and marginal cost?
If MC is less than average cost, average cost must fall; if MC is greater than average cost, average cost must rise ## Footnote This relationship is fundamental in cost analysis.
160
What happens to ATC at the minimum point on the ATC curve?
ATC is minimized and corresponds to the profit-maximizing quantity ## Footnote However, profit-maximizing quantity may not align with the minimum ATC point.
161
How is Total Cost (TC) calculated?
TC is calculated by summing Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC) ## Footnote This provides insight into overall production costs.
162
What is the nature of fixed costs in relation to production?
Fixed costs typically remain constant regardless of production levels ## Footnote Examples include debt service and lease agreements.
163
What is the behavior of Total Variable Cost (TVC) when quantity changes?
TVC increases with quantity and is zero at zero production ## Footnote Variable costs include labor, raw materials, and supplies.
164
What occurs to the marginal cost curve as production approaches capacity limits?
The marginal cost curve begins to increase due to diminishing marginal returns ## Footnote Initially, the MC curve may decline due to increasing marginal returns.
165
What is the formula for calculating Average Total Cost (ATC)?
ATC is calculated by dividing Total Cost (TC) by quantity ## Footnote Alternatively, ATC can be calculated by summing Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and Average Variable Cost (AVC).
166
At what quantity is the least average cost point of production found?
At 3 units of production ## Footnote This corresponds to the minimum point on the ATC curve.
167
What is the relationship between TFC and TC at zero output?
TC equals TFC at zero output ## Footnote At this point, the firm incurs no variable costs but must cover fixed costs.
168
Fill in the blank: If MC is less than AVC, average variable cost must _______.
fall
169
True or False: Fixed costs can be arbitrarily cut when production declines.
False ## Footnote Fixed costs are often the last expenses to be cut during downsizing.
170
What indicates that the cost of production rises with greater output?
Both AVC and MC increase beyond 3 units ## Footnote This indicates the diminishing returns as production scales up.
171
What is elasticity of demand?
A measure of how sensitive quantity demanded is to changes in various variables
172
Define own-price elasticity of demand
The ratio of percentage change in quantity demanded to percentage change in a good or service’s own price
173
What happens if own-price elasticity of demand is greater than one in absolute terms?
Demand is elastic and a decline in price will result in higher total expenditure on that good
174
What does it indicate if own-price elasticity of demand is less than one in absolute terms?
Demand is inelastic and a decline in price will result in lower total expenditure on that good
175
What is the implication of own-price elasticity of demand being equal to negative one?
Demand is unit elastic and total expenditure on that good is independent of price
176
What is income elasticity of demand?
The ratio of the percentage change in quantity demanded to the percentage change in consumer income
177
What is the substitution effect?
The phenomenon where, as a good's price falls, more of this good is substituted for other, more expensive goods
178
What is the income effect?
The phenomenon where, as a good's price falls, real income rises, and if this good is normal, more of it will be purchased
179
What is the classification of a good if income elasticity of demand is positive?
Normal good
180
What is the classification of a good if income elasticity of demand is negative?
Inferior good
181
Define cross-price elasticity of demand
The ratio of the percentage change in quantity demanded of one good to the percentage change in the price of a related good
182
What does a positive cross-price elasticity between two goods indicate?
They are substitutes
183
What does a negative cross-price elasticity between two goods indicate?
They are complements
184
What is the law of demand?
A decrease in price will cause an increase in quantity demanded
185
What is total product of labor?
The total quantity that is able to be produced for each level of labor input, holding all other inputs constant
186
Define average product of labor (APL)
Total product of labor divided by number of labor hours
187
What is marginal product of labor (MPL)?
The change in total product divided by the change in labor hours
188
What does the law of diminishing returns state?
Additional output must fall as more and more labor is added to a fixed amount of capital
189
What is short-run total cost (STC)?
Total expenditure on fixed capital plus total expenditure on labor
190
How is short-run marginal cost (SMC) calculated?
The ratio of wage to marginal product of labor (MPL)
191
What is average variable cost (AVC)?
The ratio of wage to average product of labor (APL)
192
Define average total cost (ATC)
Total cost (TC) divided by the number of units produced
193
What is marginal revenue (MR)?
The ratio of change in revenue to change in output
194
What is the relationship between price and marginal revenue for firms under perfect competition?
Price is identical to marginal revenue (MR)
195
What is economic profit?
Total revenue (TR) minus total economic cost
196
What is opportunity cost?
The next best alternative forgone in making a decision
197
What is the breakeven point?
Occurs when total revenue (TR) equals total cost (TC)
198
What are economies of scale?
Decreasing long-run cost per unit as output increases
199
What are diseconomies of scale?
Increasing long-run cost per unit as output increases
200
What defines the minimum efficient scale for a firm?
The minimum point on the long-run average total cost curve
201
What is the price elasticity of demand likely to be for items seen as optional or discretionary?
Greater ## Footnote Price elasticity of demand measures how sensitive quantity demanded is to price changes.
202
What does income elasticity measure?
How sensitive quantity demanded is to a change in income ## Footnote If the income elasticity of demand for a product is -0.6, a 1% increase in income leads to a 0.6% decrease in quantity demanded.
203
What is cross-price elasticity of demand?
Measures the responsiveness of the demand for one good in response to a change in the price of another good ## Footnote Example: The demand for onions in response to a change in the price of tomatoes.
204
What does the demand curve show?
Quantity demanded as a function of own price only.
205
What situation describes excess demand?
When the company needs to raise prices to clear the market.
206
What happens to the amount purchased of normal goods after a drop in price?
Increases ## Footnote This is due to reinforcing income and substitution effects.
207
What is the law of diminishing returns?
Occurs when additional output falls as more labor is added to a fixed amount of capital.
208
What is diminishing marginal returns?
Occurs when the marginal product of a resource decreases as additional units of that input are employed.
209
What are the four types of market structures?
Perfect competition, monopolistic competition, oligopoly, monopoly.
210
What characterizes perfect competition?
Many firms, homogeneous product, very low barriers to entry.
211
What characterizes monopolistic competition?
Many firms, differentiated product, low barriers to entry, some pricing power.
212
What characterizes oligopoly?
Few firms, homogeneous or differentiated products, high barriers to entry, considerable pricing power.
213
What characterizes monopoly?
One firm, unique product, very high barriers to entry, significant pricing power.
214
What are the five factors that determine market structure?
* The number and relative size of firms supplying the product * The degree of product differentiation * The power of the seller over pricing decisions * The relative strength of the barriers to market entry and exit * The degree of non-price competition
215
In a highly competitive market, what happens to long-run profits?
They will be driven down by competition.
216
Can large profits be possible in less competitive markets?
Yes, even in the long run.
217
What is the role of market structure in analyzing a firm's profitability?
Determines the choices facing a firm's decision makers regarding pricing and profitability.
218
What is a unique characteristic of a pure monopoly?
No close substitute exists for the product or service.
219
What is the most desirable market structure from the perspective of firm owners?
The market structure with the most control over price, typically monopoly or oligopoly. ## Footnote This control can lead to large profits for firms.
220
What do consumers prefer in terms of market structure?
The greatest degree of competition, leading to generally lower prices. ## Footnote Consumers prefer competitive markets for a wider variety of goods and services.
221
What is the trade-off in market structures regarding innovation?
Perfect competition yields the lowest prices but may limit innovation; other market forms may encourage it due to higher potential profits. ## Footnote High costs of research and development can be better absorbed in oligopoly markets.
222
What are Porter's Five Forces?
* Threat of entry * Power of suppliers * Power of buyers (customers) * Threat of substitutes * Rivalry among existing competitors ## Footnote These forces help analyze market conditions and profitability.
223
List the five conditions that characterize perfect competition.
* Large number of potential buyers and sellers * Identical products offered by sellers * Few or easily surmountable barriers to entry and exit * No market-pricing power for sellers * Absence of non-price competition ## Footnote Few markets achieve perfect competition; agriculture is a common example.
224
Define income elasticity of demand.
The responsiveness of demand to changes in income, calculated as (% change in QD) ÷ (% change in Y). ## Footnote For normal goods, the value of income elasticity is positive.
225
What is the relationship between consumer income and demand for normal goods?
As consumer income increases, the demand for normal goods increases. ## Footnote Luxury items have an income elasticity greater than one.
226
What are inferior goods in terms of income elasticity?
Goods for which demand decreases as consumer income increases, resulting in negative income elasticity. ## Footnote An example is a shift from watching television to attending live events as income rises.
227
What does cross-price elasticity of demand measure?
The responsiveness of the demand for product A associated with the change in price of product B, expressed as (% change in QDA) ÷ (% change in PB). ## Footnote Positive cross-price elasticity indicates substitutes; negative indicates complements.
228
What is consumer surplus?
The difference between the value a consumer places on purchased units and the amount paid for them. ## Footnote It reflects the extra value gained by the buyer from a transaction.
229
How does the demand curve relate to consumer surplus?
The area under the demand curve and above the price paid represents consumer surplus. ## Footnote It indicates the value consumers place on the units consumed compared to what they paid.
230
What happens to total revenue when marginal revenue is zero?
Total revenue is maximized. ## Footnote Beyond this point, increasing output will decrease total revenue.
231
What is the relationship between price elasticity of demand and total revenue?
If demand is elastic, increasing price decreases total revenue; if inelastic, increasing price increases total revenue. ## Footnote Understanding this relationship helps firms strategize pricing.
232
How is consumer surplus graphically represented?
As the area beneath the demand curve and above the price paid. ## Footnote This area indicates the total extra value received by consumers from their purchases.
233
What is the formula for calculating consumer surplus at a given price?
Consumer surplus = Area under the demand curve - Total expenditure. ## Footnote Total expenditure is calculated as price multiplied by quantity.
234
What is the formula for the market demand function given in the example?
QD = 180 - 2P
235
How do you calculate consumer surplus when the price is equal to 65?
By finding the area of the triangle above the price and below the demand curve.
236
What is the quantity demanded at a price of 65 using the demand function?
50
237
What is the inverted demand function solved for P in terms of QD?
P = 90 - 0.5QD
238
What are the price and quantity intercepts of the demand function?
* Price intercept: 90 * Quantity intercept: 180
239
How is the area of the triangle for consumer surplus calculated?
Area = ½ (Base)(Height) = ½ (50)(25) = 625
240
What do economic costs include that accounting costs do not?
Opportunity costs
241
What is the opportunity cost of a resource?
The next best alternative use of that resource
242
How is economic profit defined?
Economic profit = Total Revenue (TR) - Total Cost (TC)
243
What differentiates economic profit from accounting profit?
Economic profit includes opportunity costs, while accounting profit does not.
244
What is the market supply function expressed as in this example?
QS = 10 + 5P
245
What does the equilibrium price and quantity represent in a perfectly competitive market?
The point where supply equals demand.
246
What is the equilibrium price calculated when Q* is 38.57?
5.71
247
Is it possible for the demand schedule faced by Firm A to be horizontal while the market demand is downward sloping?
No
248
Fill in the blank: The area of the triangle for consumer surplus is calculated using the formula _______.
Area = ½ (Base)(Height)
249
True or False: In perfect competition, individual firms can affect the market equilibrium price.
False
250
What happens to the supply of firms as prices increase in a competitive market?
Firms supply greater quantities of the product.
251
What is the relationship between supply and price in a perfectly competitive market?
Positive slope.
252
What is the total output in the market when there are many firms and the effective market price is 5.71?
Almost 39 units.
253
What is the relationship between average revenue and the firm's demand function?
Average revenue is equivalent to the firm's demand function.
254
What is marginal revenue (MR)?
Marginal revenue is the incremental increase in total revenue associated with each additional unit sold.
255
How is total revenue (TR) calculated?
Total revenue is calculated by multiplying average revenue (AR) by the quantity of products sold.
256
What happens to average cost (AC) as a corn farmer expands production by adding labor?
Average cost begins to decline as production expands.
257
What is the law of diminishing returns?
The law of diminishing returns states that each additional unit of input produces a progressively smaller increase in output.
258
How is average cost (AC) defined mathematically?
Average cost (AC) is total cost (TC) divided by output (Q).
259
What does marginal cost (MC) reflect?
Marginal cost reflects changes in variable costs.
260
What occurs when marginal cost (MC) exceeds average cost (AC)?
The overall average cost begins to increase.
261
In a perfectly competitive market, when does a firm maximize profit?
A firm maximizes profit at an output level where marginal revenue (MR) equals marginal cost (MC).
262
What is the long-run equilibrium condition for perfectly competitive firms?
In long-run equilibrium, price equals both marginal cost and minimum average cost.
263
What happens to economic profits in the long run in a perfectly competitive market?
Economic profits will attract other entrepreneurs, increasing supply and lowering equilibrium price.
264
What is a defining characteristic of a monopoly?
A monopoly has a single seller of a highly differentiated product.
265
What are significant barriers to entry in a monopoly market?
High costs and significant barriers to competition.
266
What role do patents and copyrights play in monopolies?
They prevent other firms from entering the market, creating barriers to entry.
267
What is an example of a natural monopoly?
Utilities like water and electricity services.
268
What is the relationship between demand and a monopolist's pricing power?
A monopolist faces the same demand function as the market demand.
269
How does brand loyalty contribute to monopoly power?
Strong brand loyalty can create barriers to entry for competitors.
270
What are network effects in the context of monopolies?
Network effects arise when increased market penetration enhances the value of a product or service to users.
271
How does a monopolist typically maximize profits?
By setting the price where marginal cost equals marginal revenue.
272
Fill in the blank: In long-run equilibrium, perfectly competitive firms operate at the point where marginal cost equals the _______.
minimum average cost.
273
True or False: A perfectly competitive firm can earn positive economic profits in the long run.
False.
274
What is a key advantage of using Microsoft Word for firms?
It is cheaper to adopt than other programs due to widespread proficiency among new hires. ## Footnote Most new hires will need no further training in Microsoft Word.
275
What is the demand schedule for a monopolist?
It is the aggregate demand for the product in the relevant market.
276
How is demand related to price in monopoly markets?
Demand is negatively related to price due to the income effect and substitution effect.
277
What is the general form of the demand relationship in monopoly markets?
QD = a - bP.
278
What is marginal revenue (MR)?
The change in revenue given a change in the quantity demanded.
279
How does the slope of the marginal revenue schedule compare to the demand schedule?
The marginal revenue schedule is steeper than the demand schedule.
280
If the demand schedule is linear, what is the relationship between the slopes of the demand and marginal revenue curves?
The marginal revenue curve is twice as steep as the demand schedule.
281
What happens when a network-based device reaches a 30 percent share?
The next 50 percentage points are cheaper to promote.
282
How can marginal revenue be calculated?
By taking the derivative of the total revenue function: MR = dTR/dQ.
283
What is the total revenue equation for a monopolist selling natural gas?
TR = P × Q = 800QD - 2QD².
284
What is the marginal revenue equation for the natural gas monopolist?
MR = 800 - 4QD.
285
What is average revenue (AR) in monopoly markets?
AR = TR/QD, which is the same as the demand function.
286
What determines the optimal output level for a monopolist?
It occurs where marginal revenue equals marginal cost (MR = MC).
287
What is the total cost equation for the natural gas company?
TC = 20,000 + 50Q + 3Q².
288
What is the marginal cost (MC) equation derived from total cost?
MC = dTC/dQ = 50 + 6Q.
289
How is the profit-maximizing level of output determined for a monopolist?
By finding the intersection of MR and MC.
290
What is the profit-maximizing quantity (QD) for the natural gas company?
QD = 75.
291
What price (P*) does the monopolist set at the profit-maximizing output?
P* = 650.
292
What is the total profit function for the monopolist?
Profit = TR - TC.
293
What must be true about the demand curve at the profit-maximizing output?
It must occur in the elastic portion of the demand curve.
294
Fill in the blank: The monopolist's marginal cost equation can be found by applying the technique used to find the __________ equation.
marginal revenue.
295
True or False: In monopoly markets, average revenue is different from the market demand schedule.
False.
296
What does it imply if quantity demanded responds more than proportionately to price changes?
Demand is elastic ## Footnote This occurs at the point where MC = MR.
297
What is the relationship between marginal revenue and price elasticity in monopoly?
MR = PEP ## Footnote In monopoly, MR = MC.
298
How can a monopolist determine the profit-maximizing price?
By knowing its cost structure and the price elasticity of demand, EP ## Footnote Example: If marginal cost is constant at 75 and price elasticity is estimated at 1.5, the optimal price can be calculated.
299
What characterizes a natural monopoly?
Significant economies of scale and declining cost structure ## Footnote Examples include electric power generation and water distribution.
300
In a regulated monopoly, what is the price set to maximize profits?
LRMC = MR ## Footnote The monopolist would maximize profits by raising the price to the level the demand curve will accept.
301
What happens in perfect competition regarding price and output equilibrium?
Price equals marginal cost ## Footnote The quantity produced would be higher and the price lower compared to monopoly.
302
What is the challenge with setting competitive prices in a regulated monopoly?
The price may not cover the average cost of production ## Footnote This may require subsidizing the difference.
303
What is first-degree price discrimination?
Charging each customer the highest price they are willing to pay ## Footnote This allows monopolists to capture the entire consumer surplus.
304
What is second-degree price discrimination?
Offering a menu of quantity-based pricing options ## Footnote Examples include volume discounts and product bundling.
305
What is third-degree price discrimination?
Segregating customers by demographic or other traits ## Footnote Examples include different pricing for student and professional software licenses.
306
How can price discrimination impact consumer surplus?
Sellers can extract consumer surplus through creative pricing schemes ## Footnote For example, two-part tariff pricing.
307
What is the long-run condition for a monopoly to maintain its position?
Substantial and ongoing barriers to entry ## Footnote This may include patents that need to be continuously added.
308
What is one solution for regulated monopolies to ensure they cover costs?
Set price equal to long-run average cost, PR = LRAC ## Footnote This assures a normal return for investors.
309
What is a common solution for the nationalization of monopolies?
National ownership ## Footnote This has been popular in Europe but avoided in the U.S.
310
What is one of the key characteristics of oligopoly?
Importance of strategic behavior ## Footnote Firms can change price, quantity, quality, and advertisement to gain an advantage.
311
What is the outcome for competitive firms in the long run?
They do not earn economic profit ## Footnote The lack of pricing power leads to no extra margins.
312
What typically happens to margins in highly competitive markets over time?
They shrink as new entrants push out the least efficient firms ## Footnote This occurs as extra profits fade.
313
How is market power measured?
Through econometric estimates of the elasticity of demand and supply ## Footnote Reliable data is often lacking, and elasticity changes over time.
314
What is oligopoly characterized by?
The importance of strategic behavior, where firms can change price, quantity, quality, and advertisement to gain an advantage over competitors.
315
What complicates measuring market power?
The lack of reliable data and the changing elasticity of demand and supply over time.
316
What are the two ideal econometric estimates to compute for measuring market power?
Elasticity of demand and elasticity of supply.
317
A market structure characterized by many sellers with each having some pricing power and product differentiation is best described as _____
monopolistic competition.
318
A market structure with relatively few sellers of a homogeneous or standardized product is best described as _____
oligopoly.
319
What is the demand schedule in a perfectly competitive market given by?
P = 93 - 1.5Q (for Q ≤ 62).
320
New companies will enter the market at any price greater than _____
66.
321
If companies earn economic profits in a perfectly competitive market, over the long run the supply curve will most likely _____
shift to the right.
322
Market competitors are least likely to use advertising as a tool of differentiation in an industry structure identified as _____
perfect competition.
323
Up silon Natural Gas, Inc. is a monopoly with a marginal cost of $40 and average cost of $70. The company will most likely set its price at _____
120.
324
A government entity that regulates an authorized monopoly will most likely base regulated prices on _____
marginal cost.
325
The economic profit will attract new entrants to the market and encourage existing companies to _____
expand capacity.
326
In a perfectly competitive market, the product produced cannot be differentiated by _____
advertising or any other means.
327
Profit is maximized when MR = MC. For a monopoly, MR = P[1 - 1/Ep]. Setting this equal to MC and solving for P gives _____
120.
328
What are the key learning outcomes regarding GDP?
* Calculate and explain gross domestic product (GDP) using expenditure and income approaches. * Compare the sum-of-value-added and value-of-final-output methods of calculating GDP. * Compare nominal and real GDP and calculate and interpret the GDP deflator. * Compare GDP, national income, personal income, and personal disposable income. * Explain the fundamental relationship among saving, investment, the fiscal balance, and the trade balance.
329
What does the aggregate demand curve explain?
How the aggregate demand curve is generated.
330
What are the types of macroeconomic equilibria to distinguish among?
* Long-run full employment. * Short-run recessionary gap. * Short-run inflationary gap. * Short-run stagnation.
331
True or False: A short-run macroeconomic equilibrium may occur at a level above or below full employment.
True.
332
What can cause short-run changes in the economy and the business cycle?
Fluctuations in aggregate demand and aggregate supply.
333
Fill in the blank: The aggregate supply curve in the ____ and ____ explains different economic conditions.
short run, long run.
334
What is the objective of macroeconomic analysis?
To address fundamental questions about aggregate output, income, demand, supply, price levels, unemployment, and household spending.
335
What are the four broad forms of payments (income) in an economy?
* Compensation of employees * Rent * Interest * Profits
336
What does aggregate output represent?
The value of all goods and services produced during a specified period.
337
What does aggregate income represent?
The value of all payments earned by the suppliers of factors used in production.
338
How are aggregate output and aggregate income related?
They must be equal, as the value of output produced accrues to the factors of production.
339
What is aggregate expenditure?
The total amount spent on the goods and services produced in the economy during a period.
340
How is Gross Domestic Product (GDP) defined?
* The market value of all final goods and services produced within the economy during a given period (output definition) * The aggregate income earned by all households, companies, and the government within the economy during a given period (income definition)
341
What are the two methods to calculate GDP based on expenditures?
* Value of final output * Sum of value added
342
What must all goods and services included in GDP be?
Produced during the measurement period.
343
What is excluded from GDP calculations?
* Transfer payments from the government * Capital gains from asset appreciation * Value of intermediate goods
344
What is the significance of final goods in GDP?
Only the market value of final goods and services is included to avoid double counting.
345
True or False: Intermediate goods are included in GDP calculations.
False
346
What is the role of the Organisation for Economic Co-Operation and Development (OECD) regarding GDP?
It provides a standardized methodology for measuring GDP and reports national accounts for many developed nations.
347
What is the National Income and Product Accounts (NIPA)?
The official US government accounting of all income and expenditure flows in the US economy.
348
Fill in the blank: The GDP deflator is used to compare _______ and real GDP.
[nominal GDP]
349
What happens if inputs used in production are imported?
The value added would be reduced by the amount paid for the imports.
350
What are two examples of services included in GDP that are not sold in the marketplace?
* Owner-occupied housing * Government services
351
What does the circular flow model illustrate?
The flow of inputs, output, income, and expenditures in an economy.
352
What is the relationship between total income and total expenditures in an economy?
Total income must equal total expenditures.
353
What is the primary method to avoid double counting in GDP?
Summing the value added at each stage of production.
354
What are the main components of the economy that will be added in later sections?
* Non-domestic goods * Savings * Taxes * International sales and investments
355
What are two examples of services that are included in the measurement of GDP but not sold in the marketplace?
Owner-occupied housing and government services ## Footnote These services are valued and included in GDP despite not having a market price.
356
How does a household's payment to a property owner for rent relate to GDP?
It is included in the calculation of GDP as it represents the purchase of housing services.
357
What must the government do to account for owner-occupied housing in GDP?
Estimate (impute) a value for the owner-occupied rent.
358
Why is valuing government services for GDP calculation difficult?
They are not sold in a market, making it hard to determine how much consumers are willing to pay.
359
How are government services included in GDP?
At their cost (e.g., wages paid) with no value added attributed to the production process.
360
What types of activities are generally excluded from GDP?
Activities performed for one's own benefit, underground economy activities, and barter transactions ## Footnote Examples include cooking, cleaning, home repair, and services exchanged without monetary transactions.
361
What is the range of the underground economy as a percentage of nominal GDP in the United States?
8% ## Footnote This indicates the portion of economic activity not captured in official GDP data.
362
What is the percentage of the underground economy in Peru?
60% ## Footnote This suggests a significant discrepancy in economic activity reporting.
363
What is the impact of the underground economy on national income accounts?
They fail to account for a significant portion of economic activity, often missing 12%-20% of the economy.
364
What is the difference between nominal GDP and real GDP?
Nominal GDP is measured at current prices, while real GDP is adjusted for changes in price levels.
365
What does real GDP indicate?
Total expenditures on output of goods and services if prices were unchanged.
366
How is per capita real GDP calculated?
Real GDP divided by the size of the population.
367
What is nominal GDP in 2019 for an economy producing 300,000 vehicles at an average price of €18,750?
€5,625,000,000.
368
If the average market price of a vehicle increases by 7% in 2020 while production remains at 300,000 vehicles, what is the new nominal GDP?
€6,018,750,000.
369
What does a rise in nominal GDP without an increase in production indicate?
Inflation rather than actual economic growth.
370
What is the formula for nominal GDP?
Nominal GDPt = Pt × Qt.
371
What is the formula for real GDP?
Real GDPt = PB × Qt.
372
What is the implicit price deflator for GDP?
Value of current year output at current year prices divided by value of current year output at base year prices, scaled by 100.
373
What does the GDP deflator broadly measure?
Aggregate changes in prices across the overall economy.
374
How is real GDP related to nominal GDP and the GDP deflator?
Real GDP = Nominal GDP / (GDP deflator / 100).
375
What represents 3% real growth over 2019 GDP?
Real GDP2020 = 5,793,750,000 ## Footnote This figure indicates that real GDP for 2020 is 3% higher than in 2019.
376
How much would nominal GDP increase for 2020 compared to 2019 with a 3% increase in automobile production and 7% inflation?
Nominal GDP would increase by 10.2% ## Footnote This is calculated as (1.07 × 1.03) - 1, approximately 10%.
377
Which growth rate is more informative about economic activity: 3% real growth or 10.2% nominal growth?
The real growth rate is more informative ## Footnote Real growth captures increases in output, while nominal growth blends price changes with output changes.
378
What is measured by the percentage change in real GDP?
Real economic growth ## Footnote Real GDP and real GDP growth reflect the quantity of output available for consumption and investment.
379
What is the implicit GDP price deflator?
A measure of the overall price level in the economy ## Footnote Changes in the deflator gauge inflation within the economy.
380
How is the implicit GDP price deflator calculated?
As the ratio of nominal to real GDP ## Footnote It is reported as an index number with the base year deflator equal to 100.
381
What was the implicit GDP price deflator for the economy in 2020?
113.9 ## Footnote This was calculated as (2,035,506 / 1,786,677) × 100.
382
What does a balance of trade deficit indicate?
The domestic economy is spending more on international goods than it produces ## Footnote It also implies that domestic saving is insufficient to finance domestic investment plus the government’s fiscal balance.
383
What is the formula for GDP based on the expenditure approach?
GDP = C + I + G + (XM) ## Footnote Where C = Consumption, I = Investment, G = Government Spending, XM = Net Exports.
384
What does the equation S = I + (G - T) + (X - M) represent?
The relationship among domestic saving, investment, fiscal balance, and trade balance ## Footnote It shows how domestic private saving is absorbed in investment, financing government deficits, or building financial claims against overseas economies.
385
What is the marginal propensity to consume (MPC)?
The proportion of an additional unit of disposable income that is consumed ## Footnote It complements the marginal propensity to save (MPS), where MPS = 1 - MPC.
386
What is the average propensity to consume (APC)?
The ratio C/Y ## Footnote It reflects household consumption expenditures as a percentage of GDP.
387
Which sectors interact to form the major components of GDP?
Household sector, business sector, government sector, external sector ## Footnote These sectors participate in the flows of expenditures, income, and financing.
388
What happens if government expenditure exceeds net taxes?
The government has a fiscal deficit and must borrow in financial markets ## Footnote This can lead to competition for funds generated by household saving.
389
True or False: Transfer payments are included in government expenditures on goods and services.
False ## Footnote Transfer payments represent a monetary transfer with no corresponding receipt of goods or services.
390
What is the annual inflation rate for 2020 calculated from the implicit GDP price deflator?
0.62 percent ## Footnote This was calculated as [(113.9 / 113.2) - 1].
391
What is the role of household saving in the economy?
Household saving flows into financial markets, providing funding for businesses ## Footnote It supports businesses that need to borrow or raise equity capital.
392
What is the significance of investment spending in an economy?
It is an important determinant of long-term growth rate ## Footnote Investment spending is also the most volatile component of the economy.
393
Fill in the blank: The total expenditure on domestically produced output comes from four sources: household consumption (C), investments (I), government spending (G), and _______.
net exports (X - M) ## Footnote This highlights the importance of international trade in the economy.
394
What was the average propensity to consume (APC) in the United States in 2018?
68.0% ## Footnote APC is the ratio of consumption (C) to income (Y), reflecting consumer spending behavior.
395
Which country had the highest APC in 2018?
United States ## Footnote The APC of the United States was 68.0%, indicating a higher sensitivity to disposable income changes.
396
What is the implication of Mexico's 67.8% APC compared to Germany's 55.0% APC?
The Mexican economy is more sensitive to changes in disposable household income than the German economy ## Footnote Higher APC suggests greater responsiveness to income changes.
397
What are the two main types of investment in the context of GDP?
* Gross investment * Net investment ## Footnote Gross investment includes total spending, while net investment reflects only new capacity additions.
398
What factors primarily determine investment decisions?
* Level of interest rates * Aggregate output/income ## Footnote These factors influence the cost of financing and expected profitability of investments.
399
How is the investment spending function modeled?
I = I(r, Y) ## Footnote Where I is investment spending, r is the real interest rate, and Y is aggregate income.
400
What is considered an exogenous policy variable in government spending?
The level of government spending on goods and services (G) ## Footnote Government spending is treated as determined outside the macroeconomic model.
401
What is the relationship between net taxes (T) and aggregate income (Y)?
Net taxes rise and fall with aggregate income ## Footnote Income taxes and transfer payments are typically tied to economic activity.
402
What effect does increasing aggregate income have on the fiscal balance?
It decreases the fiscal balance (smaller deficit or larger surplus) ## Footnote This is due to net taxes being an increasing function of income.
403
What are automatic stabilizers in the context of fiscal policy?
Factors that mitigate changes in aggregate output ## Footnote These include net taxes that adjust with income changes.
404
What primarily influences net exports (X - M)?
* Domestic income * Income in the rest of the world * Relative prices of goods and services ## Footnote Changes in these factors affect demand for imports and exports.
405
What happens to net exports when domestic income rises?
They decline ## Footnote Increased domestic demand often leads to higher imports.
406
What is the effect of a decrease in the relative price of domestically produced goods?
It increases net exports ## Footnote This shift in demand may result from a depreciation of the domestic currency.
407
How is the aggregate demand curve generated?
By the total demand for goods and services in the economy at various price levels ## Footnote It reflects consumer spending, investment, government spending, and net exports.
408
What distinguishes the short-run aggregate supply curve from the long-run aggregate supply curve?
Short-run aggregate supply can be influenced by price levels, while long-run aggregate supply is vertical at full employment output ## Footnote The long run reflects all resources being fully employed.
409
What causes movements along and shifts in aggregate demand and supply curves?
* Changes in price levels * Changes in economic factors (like income and expectations) ## Footnote Shifts can result from external economic events or policy changes.
410
What types of macroeconomic equilibria are distinguished?
* Long-run full employment * Short-run recessionary gap * Short-run inflationary gap * Short-run stagflation ## Footnote Each type indicates different economic conditions and levels of output.
411
What does a short-run macroeconomic equilibrium above full employment indicate?
It may occur when demand exceeds the economy's capacity ## Footnote This can lead to inflationary pressures.
412
What is the effect of combined changes in aggregate supply and demand on the economy?
They can lead to complex outcomes affecting price levels and output ## Footnote The interaction between supply and demand shifts can influence inflation and recession dynamics.
413
What do short-term fluctuations in an economy's output arise from?
Multiple reasons affecting output and price levels.
414
What does Aggregate Demand (AD) represent?
The quantity of goods and services that households, businesses, government, and international customers want to buy at any given price level.
415
What does Aggregate Supply (AS) represent?
The quantity of goods and services that producers are willing to supply at any given price level.
416
What is the relationship between price level and quantity demanded according to the aggregate demand curve?
Quantity demanded increases as the price level declines.
417
What is the formula for GDP?
GDP = C + I + G + (X - M) where C = consumption, I = investment, G = government spending, X = exports, M = imports.
418
What are the two conditions that must be satisfied for the aggregate demand curve?
* Aggregate expenditure equals aggregate income. * The available real money supply is willingly held.
419
What is the Wealth Effect?
The change in real wealth due to fluctuations in the price level affecting purchasing power.
420
How does an increase in the price level affect real wealth?
It decreases real wealth, leading consumers to demand fewer goods and services.
421
What is the Interest Rate Effect?
Changes in the price level affect the demand for money, which in turn affects interest rates and thereby influences investment and consumption.
422
True or False: Higher interest rates lead to increased business investment.
False.
423
What happens to the demand for money when the price level decreases?
The demand for money decreases.
424
What is the Real Exchange Rate Effect?
Changes in the domestic price level affect the real exchange rate, impacting exports and imports.
425
What happens to exports when the domestic price level increases?
Exports decrease.
426
What does a higher price level do to the real exchange rate?
It causes appreciation of the real exchange rate.
427
What characterizes the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve?
It is upward sloping due to inflexible wages and input prices.
428
What is the definition of the long run in terms of aggregate supply?
A period long enough for wages, prices, and expectations to adjust, but physical capital remains fixed.
429
What happens in the very short run regarding output and prices?
Companies adjust output without changing prices.
430
In the long run, how do wages and input prices respond to changes in output prices?
They catch up with changes in the price level.
431
Fill in the blank: Aggregate Demand can be expressed as AD = _____ + _____ + _____ + (X - M).
C, I, G
432
What effect does a decrease in the price level have on the quantity of goods and services demanded?
It increases the quantity demanded.
433
How does the interest rate affect consumer purchases?
Higher interest rates lead to lower consumption, especially for large purchases.
434
What is the relationship between the price level and the quantity of aggregate output supplied in the short run?
An increase in the price level increases the quantity of aggregate output supplied.
435
What is the impact of a higher price level on the interest rate?
It leads to a higher interest rate.
436
True or False: In the long run, capital is a variable input.
True.
437
What is the primary role of the aggregate supply curve?
To represent the level of domestic output that companies will produce at each price level.
438
What happens to the quantity of aggregate output supplied when prices move from P1 to P2?
The quantity of aggregate output supplied increases from Y1 to Y2.
439
What occurs when there is a reduction in the price level?
Profit margins are squeezed, causing companies to reduce production.
440
How do wages and other input prices respond to changes in the price level over the long run?
They tend to catch up with the prices of final goods and services.
441
What does the vertical long-run aggregate supply (LRAS) curve indicate?
In the long run, when the aggregate price level changes, the quantity of output supplied remains constant.
442
What determines the position of the LRAS curve?
The potential output of the economy, which depends on fixed capital, labor, and available technology.
443
In the classical model of aggregate supply, how is output expressed?
Y = F(K, L) = Y, where K is fixed capital and L is labor supply.
444
What is the long-run equilibrium level of output referred to?
The full employment or natural level of output.
445
What is assumed about the macroeconomy at the natural rate of unemployment?
It operates at an efficient and unconstrained level of production.
446
What are the three critical macroeconomic questions addressed by the AD and AS models?
* What causes an economy to expand or contract? * What causes inflation and changes in the level of unemployment? * What determines an economy's rate of sustainable growth, and how can it be measured?
447
What is the business cycle?
It consists of periods of economic expansion and contraction.
448
What occurs during an economic expansion?
Real GDP is increasing, the unemployment rate is declining, and capacity utilization is rising.
449
What is indicated by a shift to the right in the Aggregate Demand (AD) curve?
An increase in aggregate demand at any price level.
450
What causes the AD curve to shift?
* Changes in household wealth * Consumer and business expectations * Capacity utilization * Monetary policy * The exchange rate * Growth in the global economy * Fiscal policy (government spending and taxes)
451
What does household wealth include?
* Financial assets (cash, savings accounts, investment securities, pensions) * Real assets (real estate)
452
What is the primary reason households save a portion of their current income?
To accumulate wealth for future consumption.
453
What happens to consumer spending when household wealth increases?
Consumer spending increases, shifting the aggregate demand curve to the right.
454
What is the wealth effect?
Changes in equity prices affect economic activity by altering consumer spending based on wealth changes.
455
How much does an increase or decrease in wealth affect annual consumer spending in developed countries?
By 3%-7% of the change in wealth.
456
What is the Wealth Effect in relation to consumption?
The Wealth Effect refers to the impact of changes in housing prices on consumer spending, where a decline in housing prices leads to reduced spending and increased saving.
457
How did housing prices in the UK change from 2000 to 2007?
Housing prices rose by nearly 111% during this period.
458
What happened to the saving rate in the UK from 2008 to 2010?
The saving rate rose dramatically from 7.2% in 2008 to 12.4% in 2010.
459
What is capacity utilization?
Capacity utilization is a measure of how fully an economy's production capacity is being used.
460
What happens when companies operate at or near full capacity?
They need to increase investment spending to expand production.
461
What is fiscal policy?
Fiscal policy is the use of taxes and government spending to affect the level of aggregate expenditures.
462
How does an increase in government spending affect the AD curve?
It shifts the AD curve to the right.
463
What is monetary policy?
Monetary policy refers to actions taken by a nation's central bank to affect aggregate output and prices.
464
How can a central bank increase the money supply?
By buying securities from banks, lowering the required reserve ratio, or reducing its target interest rate.
465
What is the effect of an increase in the money supply on the AD curve?
It shifts the AD curve to the right.
466
What is the relationship between interest rates and the AD curve shifts?
A rightward shift in the AD curve typically increases interest rates at each price level.
467
What happens to the AD curve when the exchange rate decreases?
It shifts to the right due to increased exports and decreased imports.
468
What role does international trade play in the global economy?
It links countries together and creates a global economy, increasing exports when foreign markets grow.
469
What happens to the AD curve if there is a decline in the growth rates of foreign economies?
The AD curve shifts to the left due to lower exports.
470
What is the impact of stock prices on aggregate demand?
An increase in stock prices shifts the AD curve to the right due to higher consumption.
471
What is the effect of lower taxes on aggregate demand?
Lower taxes shift the AD curve to the right by increasing consumption and investment.
472
What happens to the AD curve when consumer confidence increases?
It shifts to the right due to higher consumption.
473
How does an increase in corporate profits affect aggregate demand?
It raises investment spending and shifts the AD curve to the right.
474
Fill in the blank: An increase in government spending shifts the AD curve to the _______.
right
475
True or False: A stronger currency typically increases exports.
False
476
What is one reason the AD curve may shift to the left?
Higher taxes leading to lower consumption and investment.
477
What happens to interest rates when the money supply decreases?
Interest rates generally rise.
478
What is the relationship between capacity utilization and investment spending?
Higher capacity utilization leads to increased investment spending.
479
What is the effect of an increase in unexpected profits on investment spending?
It raises the level of investment spending and increases aggregate demand, shifting the AD curve to the right.
480
How does an increase in corporate profits affect equities?
It should have a positive effect on equities.
481
What happens to interest rates and fixed-income securities as output increases?
Interest rates face upward pressure and prices of fixed-income securities face downward pressure.
482
How does government spending influence aggregate demand?
Higher government spending increases AD and shifts the AD curve to the right.
483
What is the impact of a sharp slowdown in the European economy on Brazilian exports?
It decreases demand for Brazilian exports and shifts the AD curve to the left.
484
What factors cause the SRAS curve to shift?
Changes in nominal wages, input prices, expectations about future output prices, business taxes and subsidies, and the exchange rate.
485
What is the relationship between changes in nominal wages and the SRAS curve?
An increase in nominal wages shifts the SRAS curve to the left; a decrease shifts it to the right.
486
What is the definition of unit labor cost?
Unit labor cost is defined as the total labor cost divided by the number of units produced.
487
How do input prices affect the SRAS curve?
Lower input prices shift the SRAS curve to the right; higher input prices shift it to the left.
488
What happens to the SRAS curve if companies expect future output prices to rise?
The SRAS curve shifts to the right.
489
What is the effect of higher business taxes on the SRAS curve?
Higher business taxes shift the SRAS curve to the left.
490
How do subsidies affect production costs and the SRAS curve?
Subsidies lower production costs and shift the SRAS curve to the right.
491
What is the potential GDP?
Potential GDP measures the productive capacity of the economy at full employment.
492
What factors can shift the LRAS curve?
* Supply of labor and quality of labor forces (human capital) * Supply of natural resources * Supply of physical capital * Productivity and technology
493
How does an increase in the labor supply affect the LRAS curve?
It shifts the LRAS curve to the right.
494
What determines the supply of labor?
Growth in population, labor force participation rate, and net immigration.
495
What are natural resources in the context of production?
Natural resources are essential inputs, including land, oil, and water.
496
How does increased availability of natural resources affect the LRAS curve?
It shifts the LRAS curve to the right.
497
What is the role of physical capital in economic growth?
Investment in new property, plant, equipment, and software increases the capacity to produce goods and services.
498
How does an increase in physical capital affect the LRAS curve?
It shifts the LRAS curve to the right.
499
What is human capital?
The quality of the labor force, enhanced through training, skills development, and education.
500
What effect does an improvement in human capital have on the LRAS curve?
It shifts the LRAS curve to the right.
501
What does labor productivity measure?
The efficiency of labor, specifically output produced per worker during a given period.
502
What are the main drivers of labor productivity?
* Physical capital per worker * Quality of the workforce * Technology
503
How does an increase in productivity affect labor costs and output?
It decreases labor costs, improves profitability, and results in higher output.
504
What is the relationship between technological advances and the LRAS curve?
Advances in technology shift the LRAS curve to the right.
505
What happens to labor cost per unit if productivity increases?
Labor cost per unit declines.
506
What is the effect of a rightward shift in the SRAS or LRAS curves?
It is defined as an increase in supply.
507
What are the four possible types of macroeconomic equilibrium?
* Long-run full employment * Short-run recessionary gap * Short-run inflationary gap * Short-run stagflation
508
What occurs at equilibrium in the AD and AS model?
The quantity of aggregate output demanded equals the quantity of aggregate output supplied.
509
What is a recession defined as in economic terms?
A period during which real GDP decreases for at least two consecutive quarters.
510
What is a recessionary gap?
The difference between potential GDP and equilibrium output when the economy is below potential GDP.
511
What effect does a decline in AD have on GDP and prices?
It results in lower GDP and lower prices.
512
What is the long-run equilibrium in an economy?
Equilibrium occurs where the AD curve intersects the SRAS curve at a point on the LRAS curve.
513
What does potential GDP represent?
The maximum output an economy can produce when both labor and capital are fully employed.
514
What is the significance of the intersection of the AD and AS curves?
It determines the real level of GDP and the price level.
515
Fill in the blank: An increase in the supply of _______ shifts both the SRAS and LRAS curves to the right.
labor
516
True or False: A leftward shift in the SRAS curve indicates an increase in supply.
False
517
What is the impact of an increase in nominal wages on the LRAS?
No effect on LRAS.
518
What can cause a shift in the SRAS curve to the left?
Increased input prices, such as energy.
519
What does an increase in business investment indicate about the capital stock?
It indicates that the capital stock is growing at a fast rate.
520
How does an appreciation of the yuan affect the cost of imported raw materials?
It lowers the cost of imported raw materials.
521
What is the likely effect on Chinese equity prices due to higher output and profits?
A positive effect.
522
What is a recessionary gap?
A recessionary gap occurs when the AD curve intersects the short-run AS curve at a short-run equilibrium level of GDP below potential GDP.
523
What happens to equilibrium GDP during a recession?
Equilibrium GDP is below potential GDP.
524
What factors can cause a shift in the AD curve?
* Tightening of monetary policy * Higher taxes * More pessimistic consumers and businesses * Lower equity and housing prices
525
How do some economists believe the economy returns to full employment?
Through an automatic, self-correcting mechanism that adjusts wages and prices.
526
What role do lower nominal wages play in economic recovery?
Lower nominal wages increase purchasing power, shifting the SRAS curve to the right and pushing the economy back to full employment.
527
What are the fiscal policy tools available to shift the AD curve?
* Reducing taxes * Increasing government spending
528
What monetary policy tools can be used to shift the AD curve?
* Lowering interest rates * Increasing the money supply
529
What are the implications of variable lags in policy effectiveness?
Policy adjustments may reinforce rather than counteract underlying shifts in the economy.
530
What statistics indicate the direction of aggregate demand and supply?
* Consumer sentiment * Factory orders for durable and nondurable goods * Value of unfilled orders * Number of new housing starts * Number of hours worked * Changes in inventories
531
What happens to corporate profits during a decline in AD?
Corporate profits will decline.
532
What is the investment strategy during a decline in AD?
* Reduce investments in cyclical companies * Reduce investments in commodities * Increase investments in defensive companies * Increase investments in investment-grade or government-issued fixed-income securities * Increase investments in long-maturity fixed-income securities * Reduce investments in speculative equity securities
533
True or False: Defensive companies are sensitive to the business cycle.
False
534
What was the annualized GDP decline in Japan during the first quarter of 2009?
16%
535
What contributed to the recession in Asian economies during the global recession of 2007-2009?
The decline in US consumption spending lowered their AD and shifted the AD curve to the left.
536
Fill in the blank: A collapse in housing prices caused a decline in _______ spending in the United States.
housing construction
537
What percentage of GDP did exports represent in Hong Kong SAR in 2007?
186%
538
What impact does a decline in commodity prices have on revenue growth?
It slows revenue growth and reduces profit margins.
539
What should investors do regarding fixed-income securities as interest rates decline?
Increase investments in long-maturity fixed-income securities.
540
What was the oil price increase from 2004 to 2008?
From around US$30 a barrel to nearly US$150 a barrel
541
How did rising oil prices affect short-run aggregate supply (AS)?
Increased input cost and shifted the short-run AS curve to the left
542
Which economies were more adversely affected by rising oil prices?
Eastern Asian economies
543
What major financial event occurred in 2008?
Dramatic reduction in credit availability following the collapse of major financial institutions
544
What caused financial institutions in the United States to suffer large losses?
Decline in housing prices
545
What was the impact of the financial crisis on credit availability for households and businesses?
It became difficult to obtain credit
546
What happened to aggregate demand (AD) as a result of the financial crisis?
AD fell, increasing the severity of the recession
547
What does the term 'inflationary gap' refer to?
When an economy's short-run equilibrium GDP is above potential GDP
548
What are the factors that can stimulate aggregate demand?
*Higher government spending *Lower taxes *Optimistic consumer outlook *Weaker domestic currency *Rising equity and housing prices *Increase in the money supply
549
What happens to the equilibrium level of GDP when aggregate demand increases?
Shifts from Point A to Point B, increasing real output and aggregate price level
550
What is the self-correcting mechanism in an economy facing an inflationary gap?
Higher wages and input prices shift the SRAS curve to the left
551
What fiscal policy measures can be used to control inflation?
*Raise taxes *Cut government spending
552
What monetary policy measures can help control inflation?
Reduce bank reserves, resulting in a decrease in the growth of the money supply and higher interest rates
553
What are the likely investment implications of an increase in aggregate demand?
*Corporate profits will rise *Commodity prices will increase *Interest rates will rise *Inflationary pressures will build
554
What investment strategy should be adopted during a demand-driven expansion?
*Increase investment in cyclical companies *Reduce investments in defensive companies *Increase investments in commodities *Reduce investments in fixed-income securities
555
What is stagflation?
High inflation and high unemployment
556
What causes stagflation?
Declines in aggregate supply
557
What were the economic conditions during the global stagflation in the mid-1970s?
High unemployment and inflation due to a sharp decline in aggregate supply
558
What happens when aggregate supply decreases?
Lower economic growth and higher prices
559
What happens when aggregate supply increases?
Higher economic growth and lower aggregate price level
560
How do supply-driven expansions affect inflation and interest rates?
Associated with lower inflation and interest rates
561
What is the effect of a leftward shift of the SRAS curve on investments?
*Reduce investment in fixed income *Reduce investment in most equity securities *Increase investment in commodities
562
What is the relationship between aggregate demand and real GDP?
An increase in AD raises real GDP; a decrease lowers it
563
What are the implications of an increase in aggregate supply?
Raises real GDP, lowers unemployment, and lowers aggregate price level
564
What is a key characteristic of demand-driven contractions?
Associated with lower inflation and interest rates
565
What is the production function approach to economic growth?
Describes sources, measurement, and sustainability of economic growth
566
What is the primary measure of economic growth?
Annual percentage change in real GDP or annual change in real per capita GDP ## Footnote Real GDP measures how rapidly the total economy is expanding, while per capita GDP measures the standard of living.
567
Define per capita GDP.
Real GDP divided by population ## Footnote It measures the standard of living in each country and the ability of the average person to buy goods and services.
568
What is the effect of rapid growth in per capita real GDP?
It can transform a poor nation into a wealthy one ## Footnote Small differences in growth rates, if sustained, can significantly affect an economy's standard of living.
569
What are the costs associated with excess economic growth?
* Higher inflation * Potential environmental damage * Lower consumption and higher savings needed to finance growth
570
What is potential GDP?
The level of real GDP that an economy could produce if capital and labor are fully employed ## Footnote It measures the economy's productive capacity.
571
How is sustainable economic growth measured?
By the rate of increase in the economy's productive capacity or potential GDP
572
What is the neoclassical or Solow growth model?
A framework used to understand and analyze the underlying sources of economic growth
573
What are the two reasons for an increase in potential GDP according to the neoclassical model?
* Accumulation of inputs (capital, labor, raw materials) * Discovery and application of new technologies
574
What does the production function express?
The quantitative link between levels of output and the inputs used in the production process, given the state of technology
575
What is the mathematical expression for a two-factor production function?
Y = AF(L,K) ## Footnote Where Y is aggregate output, L is labor, K is capital stock, and A is total factor productivity.
576
What is total factor productivity (TFP)?
A scale factor that captures the exogenous effect of technological change and other factors that raise output beyond the measured contribution of capital and labor inputs
577
List the three assumptions of the neoclassical model regarding the production function.
* Constant returns to scale * Diminishing marginal productivity with respect to any individual input * No positive or negative externalities associated with the use of inputs
578
What does the assumption of constant returns to scale imply?
If all inputs are increased by the same percentage, output will rise by that percentage
579
What is meant by diminishing marginal productivity?
The extra output produced from a one-unit increase in an input decreases as more of that input is used
580
True or False: Economists can directly measure potential output.
False ## Footnote Potential output is estimated using various techniques.
581
Why is estimating the sustainable rate of economic growth important for global investors?
It helps in valuing a variety of assets and forecasting demand for commodities
582
What does diminishing marginal productivity refer to?
The decline in additional output obtained from each additional unit of input.
583
What are the two major implications of diminishing marginal productivity of capital for potential GDP and long-term growth?
* Long-term sustainable growth cannot rely solely on capital deepening investment. * Developing countries should have higher growth rates than developed countries.
584
What is the formula that reflects the production function related to economic growth?
Y = AF(L, K)
585
What does TFP stand for and what does it indicate?
Total Factor Productivity; it indicates improvements in the production process.
586
What is the growth accounting equation?
The rate of growth of potential output equals growth in TFP plus the weighted average growth rate of labor and capital.
587
In the growth accounting equation, what do WL and WC represent?
* WL: Relative share of labor in national income. * WC: Relative share of capital in national income.
588
How does an increase in the growth rate of labor compare to an equivalent increase in the growth rate of capital in terms of its effect on potential GDP growth?
An increase in the growth rate of labor has a significantly larger effect on potential GDP growth.
589
Fill in the blank: The capital-to-labor ratio measures the amount of capital available per worker and is weighted by the share of _____ in national income.
capital
590
What are the main determinants of economic growth?
* Capital * Labor * Total Factor Productivity (TFP)
591
What is the most important factor affecting economic growth in developed countries?
Technology
592
What is human capital?
The accumulated knowledge and skill that workers acquire from education, training, and life experience.
593
How does public infrastructure contribute to economic growth?
It creates externalities that boost the productivity of private capital.
594
What are renewable resources?
Resources that can be replenished, such as forests.
595
What are non-renewable resources?
Finite resources that are depleted once consumed, such as oil and coal.
596
What is the relationship between investment as a percentage of GDP and economic growth?
Higher investment as a percentage of GDP correlates with higher economic growth.
597
What is one major driver of growth in developed countries?
The information technology (IT) sector.
598
True or False: Countries with abundant natural resources always achieve higher levels of income.
False
599
What is a spillover effect in the context of research and development?
Increased spending on R&D benefits not just the individual firm but raises potential GDP growth for all firms.
600
How does climate change relate to economic growth?
Carbon dioxide emissions rise with economic growth, imposing costs on the global economy.
601
What is the impact of pollution on economic growth?
There is a strong negative correlation between per capita GDP and pollution.
602
What is the role of government action in addressing negative externalities like pollution?
Without government action, individuals and firms may lack incentives to reduce emissions.
603
How are carbon dioxide emissions linked to economic growth?
Carbon dioxide emissions rise with economic growth and impose costs on the global economy in terms of economic activity, food production, health, and habitability.
604
What is the incentive issue related to reducing negative externalities?
Without government action, individuals and firms may have no incentive to reduce negative externalities.
605
What is the trade-off nations face regarding emissions?
Reducing emissions today may lead to lower short-term growth, while not reducing emissions can negatively affect long-term sustainable GDP growth.
606
What type of policy measures can help reduce carbon intensity?
Policy measures that create incentives to reduce the carbon intensity of output.
607
What role does a country's economic environment play in economic growth?
A poor legal and political environment and lack of appropriate institutions can restrain growth, especially in developing countries.
608
List factors that can influence innovative activity and economic growth.
* Internal competitive structure * Poorly developed financial markets * Openness to trade * Political stability * Property rights * Rule of law
609
What is the economic status of Westerland?
Westerland is an advanced economy with a high capital-to-labor ratio and near-zero working-age population growth.
610
What notable change has Westerland made regarding its electricity production?
More than 70% of Westerland's electricity is produced by renewable energy resources.
611
By what percentage has Westerland reduced carbon dioxide emissions over the last decade?
Westerland has reduced carbon dioxide emissions by 25%.
612
Why are tax reductions on business investment and R&D considered a potential source of growth for Westerland?
Tax reductions could incentivize increased R&D expenditures, raising the growth rate of TFP and technological change.
613
What demographic challenge is Westerland facing?
Westerland is facing slow population growth, which limits its potential growth rate.
614
How can Westerland offset its demographic challenge?
By encouraging immigration and increasing its workforce participation rate.
615
What is the objective of creating flexible work schedules and developing parental leave policies?
To raise the labor force participation rate.
616
What formula gives the amount of labor (L) in a country?
Working age population × Participation rate × Average hours worked.
617
True or False: Labor market incentives will have a lasting effect on labor supply growth.
False.
618
What is the relationship between labor input and sustainable growth?
Long-term economic growth will not increase sustainable growth if labor input remains unchanged. ## Footnote This highlights the importance of labor productivity in achieving sustainable growth.
619
What are the expected global trends in carbon dioxide emissions?
Global carbon dioxide emissions are expected to rise significantly as global GDP growth accelerates. ## Footnote Despite efforts by countries like Westerland to reduce emissions, the overall trend indicates an increase.
620
What is potential GDP?
Potential GDP is an unobserved concept approximated using various methods to forecast sustainable growth. ## Footnote Understanding potential GDP is crucial for financial analysts as it affects long-term forecasts for cash flows.
621
How is labor productivity defined?
Labor productivity is the quantity of goods and services (real GDP) that a worker can produce in one hour of work. ## Footnote It is calculated as real GDP divided by total hours worked in a year.
622
What factors determine labor productivity?
* Education and skill of workers (human capital) * Investments in physical and public capital * Natural resources * Improvements in technology * Other factors ## Footnote An increase in any of these factors will enhance labor productivity.
623
What is the formula for output per worker?
YL = AF(1,KL) ## Footnote This formula indicates that labor productivity depends on physical capital per worker and total factor productivity.
624
What is total factor productivity (TFP)?
TFP is a scale factor that measures technological change and does not depend on the mix of inputs. ## Footnote Changes in TFP capture growth that cannot be attributed to labor supply and physical capital.
625
Why is labor productivity a key concept for measuring economic health?
It helps explain differences in living standards and is critical for estimating long-term sustainable growth rates. ## Footnote Analysts focus on labor productivity data to assess growth prospects.
626
What is the distinction between the level and growth rate of productivity?
The level of productivity refers to the amount produced per worker, while the growth rate indicates the percentage increase in productivity over time. ## Footnote High growth rates are typically observed in developing countries where capital is scarce.
627
What does a rapid growth rate of productivity imply for companies?
It allows companies to afford higher future wages while still making a profit. ## Footnote This can lead to rising profits and potentially higher stock prices.
628
What are the implications of persistently low productivity growth?
Businesses may have to cut wages or increase prices to maintain profit margins. ## Footnote Low productivity growth is associated with slow profit growth and flat or declining stock prices.
629
How is potential GDP growth estimated?
It is the sum of the growth rates of aggregate hours worked and labor productivity. ## Footnote If aggregate hours worked grow at 1% and productivity at 2%, potential GDP grows at 3%.
630
What factors influence the growth in labor input?
* Population growth rate * Changes in labor force participation rate * Changes in hours worked per person ## Footnote These factors are essential for estimating potential GDP.
631
What does it indicate if actual GDP is growing faster than potential GDP?
It signals growing inflationary pressures and a likelihood of interest rate increases by the central bank. ## Footnote This situation often leads to a tightening of monetary policy.
632
What does it indicate if actual GDP is growing slower than potential GDP?
It signals growing resource slack and less inflationary pressure, increasing the likelihood of unchanged or reduced interest rates. ## Footnote This environment is typically more favorable for fixed-income investments.
633
What is the environment for bond investing in the United States and Canada?
Not favorable, as bond prices are likely to decline.
634
What is the expected impact of Germany's GDP growth on inflation?
Inflation should neither rise nor fall.
635
Who sets monetary policy in Germany?
European Central Bank (ECB).
636
What should bond investors focus on in Germany?
Interest (coupon) income received from the bond.
637
What will growing resource slack in Japan likely do to inflation?
Put downward pressure on inflation.
638
What is GDP?
The market value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a given period.
639
What does GDP count?
Only final purchases of newly produced goods and services during the current period.
640
What is excluded from GDP to avoid double counting?
Intermediate goods.
641
How can GDP be measured?
From the value of final output or by summing the value added at each stage of production.
642
What is nominal GDP?
The value of production using the prices of the current year.
643
What does real GDP measure?
Production using the constant prices of a base year.
644
What is the GDP deflator?
The ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP.
645
What do households earn income from?
Providing factors of production (labor, capital, natural resources).
646
What do businesses do in the economy?
Produce output/income and invest to maintain and expand productive capacity.
647
What does the government sector do?
Collects taxes and purchases goods and services from the private sector.
648
What is net exports?
The difference between exports and imports.
649
What do capital markets link?
Saving and investment in the economy.
650
What are the components of GDP from the expenditure side?
* Personal consumption (C) * Gross private domestic investment (I) * Government spending (G) * Net exports (X - M)
651
What does gross private domestic investment include?
* Investment in fixed assets (plant and equipment) * Change in inventories
652
What is national income?
Income received by all factors of production used in generating final output.
653
What does personal income reflect?
Pre-tax income received by households.
654
What is personal disposable income?
Personal income minus personal taxes.
655
What does private saving equal?
Investment plus the fiscal and trade deficits.
656
What is consumption spending a function of?
Disposable income.
657
What does the marginal propensity to consume represent?
The fraction of an additional unit of disposable income that is spent.
658
What do government purchases and tax policy represent in the macroeconomic model?
Exogenous variables.
659
What determines actual taxes collected?
Income, making them endogenous.
660
What determines the level of real GDP and the price level?
Aggregate demand and aggregate supply.
661
What causes the downward slope of the aggregate demand curve?
* Wealth effect * Interest rate effect * Real exchange rate effect
662
What happens to the aggregate demand curve when there is a change in factors other than price?
It shifts.
663
What is the relationship described by the aggregate supply curve?
The quantity of real GDP supplied and the price level.
664
Why is the short-run aggregate supply curve upward sloping?
Higher prices result in higher profits, inducing more production.
665
What is assumed about prices in the long run?
All prices are flexible.
666
What is the long-run aggregate supply curve's position determined by?
The economy's level of potential GDP.
667
What does potential output represent?
An efficient and unconstrained level of production.
668
What can cause the long-run aggregate supply curve to shift?
* Changes in labor supply * Supply of physical and human capital * Productivity/technology
669
What causes short-term fluctuations in GDP?
Shifts in aggregate demand and aggregate supply.
670
What happens when GDP is below potential GDP?
Exerts downward pressure on the aggregate price level.
671
What happens when the level of GDP is above potential GDP?
It puts upward pressure on the aggregate price level.
672
What is stagflation?
A combination of high inflation and weak economic growth caused by a decline in short-run aggregate supply.
673
How is growth in real GDP defined?
It measures how rapidly the total economy is expanding.
674
What does per capita GDP reflect?
A country's standard of living.
675
What are the sources of economic growth?
* Supply of labor * Supply of physical and human capital * Raw materials * Technological knowledge
676
What does the production function Y = AF(L,K) represent?
Y is output, A is total factor productivity, L is labor, and K is capital stock.
677
What is total factor productivity (TFP)?
A scale factor reflecting the portion of output growth not accounted for by changes in capital and labor inputs.
678
How is potential GDP growth calculated?
Potential GDP growth = Growth in TFP + WL (Growth in labor) + WC (Growth in capital).
679
What does diminishing marginal productivity imply?
Increasing the supply of some inputs relative to others will lead to diminishing returns.
680
What is the sustainable rate of economic growth?
Measured by the rate of increase in the economy's productive capacity or potential GDP.
681
What determines the labor supply?
Both population growth (including immigration) and the labor force participation rate.
682
How does the capital stock in a country increase?
Through investment.
683
What are important determinants of output and growth?
* Human capital * Natural resources * State of public infrastructure * Institutional, legal and political environment
684
What are technological advances?
Discoveries that allow production of more and/or higher-quality goods and services with the same resources.
685
What role do externalities and spillover effects play in growth?
Positive externalities are associated with research and development and public education; negative externalities like pollution have a negative effect on growth.
686
How is climate change linked to economic growth?
Carbon dioxide emissions rise with economic growth, imposing costs on the global economy.
687
What is the relationship between economic growth and the labor supply growth rate?
The sustainable rate of growth is determined by the growth rate of the labor supply plus the growth rate of labor productivity.
688
What is the most appropriate description of gross domestic product (GDP)?
The total amount spent on all final goods and services produced within the economy during a given period.
689
Which component is least likely to be included in GDP?
Environmental damage caused by production.
690
Which market value would be included in Canadian GDP?
Wine grown in Canada by US citizens.
691
According to the sum-of-value-added method, the value added by the final step of creating a painting sold for £5,000 with expenses of £2,000 is:
£3,000.
692
Which condition is least likely to increase a country’s GDP?
Increased government transfer payments.
693
What is the most accurate description of nominal GDP?
A measure of total expenditures at current prices.
694
What does the numerator of the GDP price deflator reflect?
The value of current year output at current prices.
695
What is the sustainable growth rate best estimated as?
Growth in the labor force plus growth of labor productivity.
696
Which of the following is most likely to cause the long-run aggregate supply curve to shift to the left?
A decline in productivity.
697
In the neo-classical or Solow growth model, an increase in total factor productivity reflects an increase in:
Output for given inputs.
698
What is the full employment, or natural, level of output best described as?
The level at which all available workers have jobs consistent with their skills.
699
What does the short-run aggregate supply curve look like?
Upward sloping because input prices do not fully adjust to the price level in the short run.
700
What is true about a GDP deflator less than 1?
It indicates that an economy has experienced deflation.
701
What does a decrease in the government deficit imply?
Household sector has increased the fraction of disposable income that it saves.
702
What is the least likely cause of a decrease in aggregate demand?
A weak domestic currency.
703
What is the most likely outcome when both aggregate supply and aggregate demand increase?
An increase in nominal GDP.
704
Which of the following is least likely to be caused by a shift in aggregate demand?
A recessionary gap.
705
What is the most likely effect of a sharp increase in the price of energy in the short run?
The overall price level will rise.
706
Among developed economies, which source of economic growth is most likely to explain superior growth performance?
Technology.
707
Which of the following can be measured directly?
Labor productivity.
708
What is convergence of incomes over time between emerging market countries and developed countries most likely the result of?
Diminishing marginal productivity of capital.
709
What is excluded from GDP?
Government transfer payments, such as unemployment compensation or welfare benefits. ## Footnote These payments do not reflect the production of goods and services.
710
Define nominal GDP.
The value of goods and services measured at current prices. ## Footnote It is synonymous with expenditure as aggregate expenditures must equal aggregate output.
711
How is real GDP calculated?
Real GDP is calculated by adjusting nominal GDP for inflation using a price index. ## Footnote For example, in the first year: £100 billion/1.11 = £90 billion.
712
What is the formula for GDP?
GDP = Consumption + Gross private domestic investment + Government spending + (Exports - Imports) ## Footnote Example: GDP = 15 + 4 + 3.8 + (1.5 - 1.7) = 22.6.
713
What is proprietor's income?
Unincorporated business net income included in personal income. ## Footnote It reflects earnings from self-employment.
714
What is the relationship among saving, investment, fiscal balance, and trade balance?
S = I + (G - T) + (X - M) ## Footnote This shows how private saving funds investment expenditures, the government fiscal balance, and net exports.
715
What does a decrease in productivity imply?
Decreased efficiency, increased labor costs, decreased profitability, and lower output at each price level. ## Footnote This results in a leftward shift in both short-run and long-run aggregate supply curves.
716
What is stagflation?
A situation where output is declining and prices are rising. ## Footnote This typically results from a decline in aggregate supply.
717
What effect does a weak domestic currency have on aggregate demand?
It results in an increase in aggregate demand at each price level. ## Footnote A weaker currency makes exports cheaper and imports more expensive.
718
What does the GDP deflator measure?
The ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP. ## Footnote A ratio less than 1 indicates deflation.
719
How does an increase in energy prices affect the short-run aggregate supply curve?
It shifts the SRAS to the left, reducing output and increasing prices.
720
What is labor productivity?
The amount of output produced by workers during a given period, measured as output per hour. ## Footnote A decline in productivity indicates decreased efficiency.
721
What is total factor productivity?
A scale factor primarily reflecting technology. ## Footnote An increase in TFP means that output increases for any level of factor inputs.
722
What are diminishing marginal returns to capital?
As a country accumulates more capital per worker, the incremental boost to output declines. ## Footnote This leads to slower growth in capital-intensive economies.
723
Fill in the blank: The wealth effect explains the impact of increases or decreases in household wealth on _______.
economic activity.
724
True or False: Higher aggregate demand and higher aggregate supply raise real GDP and lower unemployment.
True.
725
What does an increase in saving lead to in terms of government fiscal balance?
It must be offset by an increase in the fiscal deficit or an increase in net exports.
726
What happens at the full employment level of output?
The economy operates at an efficient and unconstrained level of production with a stable pool of unemployed workers.
727
What happens to the short-run aggregate supply curve if wages adjust automatically?
The SRAS curve would be steeper, as firms would not adjust output as much in response to changing output prices.
728
What are business cycles?
Expansions and contractions in economic activity that affect broad segments of the economy
729
What factors influence short-term changes in the economy?
Changes in population, technology, and capital
730
What is consumer confidence?
A measure reflecting expectations of future incomes and employment prospects
731
What are the two primary measures of household consumption?
* Retail sales (physical and online) * Broad-based indicators of consumer spending
732
Which category of consumer spending is the most cyclical?
Durable goods
733
What is the term for income after taxes?
Disposable income
734
What does permanent income exclude?
Temporary income and unsustainable losses and gains
735
Fill in the blank: Consumer spending patterns frequently diverge from trends in income, which can be analyzed through _______.
Saving rates
736
What happens to consumer spending on durable goods during economic downturns?
Households usually postpone such purchases
737
How does housing sector activity impact the economy?
It experiences dramatic swings that count more in overall economic movements
738
What is the relationship between housing prices and consumer wealth?
Changing property values are closely related to consumer wealth and confidence
739
What are some statistics related to housing activity?
* Inventory of unsold homes * Average or median price of homes
740
How do interest rates affect the housing sector?
Housing activity expands with lower loan interest rates and contracts with higher rates
741
What demographic factors influence housing demand?
Family and household formation rates
742
What impact does urbanization have on housing demand?
It can quickly reverse cyclical weakness in the economy
743
What is the typical relationship between domestic GDP growth and imports?
Imports rise with the pace of domestic GDP growth due to increased demand
744
How do exports relate to external economic cycles?
Exports depend on cycles in the rest of the world, not just domestic growth
745
True or False: The net effect of trade can offset cyclical weakness.
True
746
What influences the cyclical behavior of the housing market?
Interest rates and demographics
747
What is a characteristic of durable goods purchases during economic downturns?
They are usually delayed
748
What are the three parts of consumer spending?
* Durable goods * Non-durable goods * Services
749
Fill in the blank: A rise in the saving rate may indicate consumers' ability to spend despite possible _______.
Lower income in the future
750
What external factor can cause exports to grow even if the domestic economy declines?
Strong external cycles ## Footnote The strength of major trading partners influences export growth.
751
How can the net effect of trade influence domestic economic cycles?
It may offset cyclical weakness or erase it altogether ## Footnote This depends on the importance of exports to the economy.
752
What are the phases of the domestic economy in relation to external trade?
* Recovery * Expansion * Slowdown * Contraction ## Footnote These phases affect the behavior of exports and imports.
753
What happens to imports during the contraction phase of the domestic economy?
Imports decline to below-average levels ## Footnote This indicates a decrease in domestic demand for foreign goods.
754
What effect does currency appreciation have on imports?
It prompts a relative rise in imports ## Footnote Foreign goods become cheaper compared to domestic goods.
755
What is the effect of currency depreciation on exports?
It makes exports cheaper in global markets ## Footnote This can lead to an increase in exports.
756
What is necessary for currency movements to significantly impact trade?
They must cumulate in a single direction for some time ## Footnote Short-term fluctuations have minimal effects until they persist.
757
What must financial analysts consider to assess GDP growth rates?
* Domestic economy variables * Foreign economy variables * Currency considerations ## Footnote These factors help determine if GDP growth is reinforced or counteracted.
758
What is the most immediate effect of global economic growth rate differentials?
They raise or reduce imports and exports ## Footnote Domestic activity affects imports, while foreign activity affects exports.
759
Fill in the blank: Imports most clearly respond to the _______.
[domestic GDP growth rate]
760
What do exports generally respond to?
Global GDP growth rates ## Footnote Exports reflect foreign demand on domestic output.
761
Which company is likely to have financial performance that fluctuates the most with the domestic business cycle?
The company focused on consumer goods sold in the local market ## Footnote This is because its performance is directly tied to domestic economic conditions.
762
What is the definition of unemployment?
The condition of being without a job while actively seeking employment. ## Footnote Includes various subcategories such as long-term, frictional, and voluntary unemployment.
763
What are the main types of unemployment?
* Long-term unemployed * Frictionally unemployed * Discouraged workers * Voluntarily unemployed ## Footnote These categories help in understanding different reasons for joblessness.
764
What is the unemployment rate?
The ratio of unemployed individuals to the labor force, expressed as a percentage. ## Footnote It is a key indicator of economic health.
765
What does 'labor force' refer to?
The number of people who have a job or are actively looking for a job. ## Footnote Excludes retirees, children, and others not seeking employment.
766
What is the 'participation rate'?
The ratio of labor force to the total population of working age. ## Footnote Typically includes individuals between 16 and 64 years of age.
767
What is the definition of 'underemployment'?
A situation where a person has a job but is either overqualified for it or desires a full-time position while only working part-time. ## Footnote For example, a lawyer working in a bookstore.
768
What is a 'discouraged worker'?
A person who has stopped looking for a job due to a weak economy. ## Footnote Discouraged workers are not counted in the official unemployment rate.
769
True or False: The unemployment rate is a leading economic indicator.
False ## Footnote The unemployment rate is considered a lagging indicator of the business cycle.
770
What are some measures used to assess labor market conditions?
* Payroll growth * Hours worked * Use of temporary workers ## Footnote These measures provide insights into economic strength or weakness.
771
What does 'frictionally unemployed' mean?
Individuals who are temporarily without work while seeking a job that better matches their skills or interests. ## Footnote This type of unemployment is usually short-term.
772
What is inflation?
The rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services rises, eroding purchasing power. ## Footnote Measured through various indexes, including the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
773
Contrast cost-push inflation and demand-pull inflation.
* Cost-push inflation: Occurs when production costs increase, leading to higher prices. * Demand-pull inflation: Occurs when demand for goods exceeds supply, pushing prices up. ## Footnote Both types of inflation have different causes and implications for the economy.
774
What is hyperinflation?
An extremely high and typically accelerating inflation rate, often exceeding 50% per month. ## Footnote This scenario can lead to a collapse of the currency.
775
What is disinflation?
A reduction in the rate of inflation, indicating that prices are still rising but at a slower rate. ## Footnote It is different from deflation, where prices actually fall.
776
What is deflation?
A decrease in the general price level of goods and services, leading to an increase in the real value of money. ## Footnote Can lead to reduced consumer spending and economic stagnation.
777
What is the role of central banks in managing inflation?
Central banks act to slow down the economy and reset inflationary expectations by adjusting interest rates. ## Footnote These actions can sometimes trigger a recession.
778
Fill in the blank: The unemployment rate is often seen as a _______ economic indicator.
lagging
779
What is the impact of an overheated economy on inflation?
Leads to inflation as workers demand higher wages due to expectations of rising prices. ## Footnote This creates a price-wage inflationary spiral.
780
What is inflation?
A sustained rise in the overall level of prices in an economy ## Footnote Inflation indicates that the same amount of money can purchase less goods or services over time.
781
What is the inflation rate?
The percentage change in a price index ## Footnote It reflects the speed of overall price level movements.
782
What is the relationship between inflation and the business cycle?
Inflation is pro-cyclical, going up and down with the cycle, but with a lag of a year or more.
783
What are the types of inflation?
* Hyperinflation * Deflation * Disinflation ## Footnote These terms describe different levels and changes of the inflation rate.
784
Define hyperinflation.
An extremely fast increase in aggregate price level, corresponding to an extremely high inflation rate (e.g., 500% to 1,000% per year).
785
Define deflation.
A sustained decrease in aggregate price level, corresponding to a negative inflation rate (less than 0%).
786
Define disinflation.
A decline in the inflation rate, such as from around 15% or 20% to 5% or 6%.
787
What is stagflation?
A combination of high inflation and high unemployment with a slowdown of the economy.
788
What is the consensus on the preferred inflation rate for developed economies?
Around 2% per year.
789
What can high inflation rates in developing countries lead to?
Social unrest or shifts of political power, which constitutes political risk for investments.
790
What is the effect of deflation on the value of money?
The value of money increases.
791
How does hyperinflation typically occur?
When large-scale government spending is not backed by real tax revenue and the money supply is increased.
792
What is a price index?
Represents the average prices of a basket of goods and services.
793
What is the key to ending hyperinflation?
Regaining control of the money supply.
794
Fill in the blank: The inflation rate is measured as the percentage change of a _______.
price index.
795
True or False: Disinflation means the inflation rate becomes negative.
False.
796
What economic conditions typically indicate an overheating economy?
A high inflation rate combined with fast economic growth and low unemployment.
797
What happens to a company's revenue during deflation?
Revenue typically falls during a recession.
798
What is the impact of rising real debt during deflation?
The liability of a borrower rises in real terms.
799
What can trigger monetary policy movements?
Unexpected changes in the inflation rate.
800
What is the frequency of money changing hands during hyperinflation?
Extremely high frequency.
801
How do central banks react to high inflation rates?
They monitor domestic inflation rates closely when conducting monetary policy.
802
What is the total value of the consumption basket in January 2019?
¥458 ## Footnote Calculated as (50 kg × ¥3/kg) + (70 liters × ¥4.4/liter)
803
What is the price index for February 2019 if January's price index is set to 100?
112.45 ## Footnote Calculated as (¥515 / ¥458) × 100
804
What type of price index is created by holding the composition of the consumption basket constant?
Laspeyres index
805
What are the three serious biases associated with using a fixed basket of goods and services?
* Substitution bias * Quality bias * New product bias
806
What is the practice called that adjusts for the quality of products in a basket?
Hedonic pricing
807
What does the Consumer Price Index (CPI) measure?
Inflation specific to the domestic economy
808
Which CPI covers only urban areas in the United States?
CPI-U
809
What is the Producer Price Index (PPI) an indicator of?
Price changes experienced by domestic producers
810
What is the difference between the CPI and the PPI in terms of scope?
CPI covers consumer prices, while PPI covers producer prices
811
What is another name for the Producer Price Index (PPI) in some countries?
Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
812
What does headline inflation refer to?
Inflation rate based on the price index including all goods and services
813
What does core inflation typically exclude from its calculation?
Food and energy prices
814
What is the GDP deflator used for?
To eliminate the price effect in nominal GDP data
815
True or False: Deflation occurs when the inflation rate turns negative.
True
816
Which inflation indicator does the Federal Reserve Board currently focus on?
Personal Consumption Expenditures (PCE) index
817
What is the effect of substitution bias on the measured inflation rate?
It results in an upward bias
818
Fill in the blank: The __________ index aggregates country-level HICPs with country weights.
Harmonised Index of Consumer Prices (HICP)
819
What economic phenomenon cannot be determined by observing the inflation rate alone?
Stagflation
820
What happens to firms' debt burden in a deflationary environment?
It rises in real terms
821
Compared to core inflation, headline inflation is more subject to what?
Short-term market conditions
822
What does quality bias in a fixed basket of goods lead to?
Upward bias in the measured inflation rate
823
What is a key limitation of using a fixed basket of goods for inflation measurement?
It does not include new products
824
What is the key difference in the measurement of CPI between developed and developing countries?
Weights on various categories of goods and services vary significantly
825
What factors need to be accounted for when selecting a price series?
Industry needs and markups ## Footnote The WPI may not consider the markups set by the industry.
826
How does headline inflation compare to core inflation?
Headline inflation has an upward bias and is more subject to short-term market conditions ## Footnote Headline inflation is heavily influenced by food and energy price fluctuations.
827
What is the primary cause of inflation according to economists?
Excessive demands for raw materials, finished goods, or labor ## Footnote This leads to price increases in the economy.
828
What are the two types of inflation described by economists?
Cost-push inflation and demand-pull inflation
829
What is cost-push inflation?
Rising costs, usually wages, compel businesses to raise prices generally
830
What is demand-pull inflation?
Increasing demand raises prices generally, which are reflected in business costs
831
What key indicator do practitioners look at to gauge demand for labor?
Unemployment rate
832
What is the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU)?
The effective unemployment rate below which pressure emerges in labor markets
833
What is the natural rate of unemployment (NARU)?
The unemployment rate that determines when an economy will experience bottlenecks
834
What does a high unemployment rate indicate regarding labor shortages?
Lower likelihood of labor shortages
835
What does a low unemployment rate indicate regarding labor shortages?
Greater likelihood of labor shortages
836
What is the role of productivity in wage-push inflation?
Output per hour determines how businesses can spread labor costs
837
What happens to prices when labor productivity fails to keep up with worker compensation?
Unit costs to a business rise, leading to upward pressure on prices
838
What are some indicators used to identify cost- or wage-push inflationary pressure?
Hourly wage gauges, weekly earnings, overall labor costs
839
What is the equation for unit labor cost (ULC)?
ULC = W/O ## Footnote Where W is the total wage and O is the output.
840
What factors can affect labor productivity?
* Cyclical swings * Technology * Training * Development pace
841
What is the significance of capacity utilization in demand-pull inflation?
Higher capacity utilization indicates potential shortages and price increases
842
What relationship do practitioners look for when assessing demand-pull inflation?
The relationship between actual and potential real GDP
843
True or False: The NAIRU and NARU are tied to a particular school of macroeconomic models.
False
844
Fill in the blank: _______ is the inflation caused by rising costs, usually wages.
Cost-push inflation
845
Fill in the blank: _______ inflation occurs when demand exceeds supply.
Demand-pull
846
What do commodity prices reflect according to the text?
Global economic conditions more than those in an individual economy ## Footnote This suggests that local observations may not provide an accurate picture of economic health.
847
According to Monetarists, what is a fundamental cause of inflation?
A surplus of money ## Footnote This means that when there is too much money in circulation, its value declines, leading to inflation.
848
What is the old saying that summarizes the Monetarist argument on inflation?
Inflation results when too much money chases too few goods ## Footnote This phrase encapsulates the relationship between money supply and inflation.
849
How do practitioners detect inflationary or deflationary pressure?
By examining monetary growth based on past trends ## Footnote They look for acceleration or deceleration in money supply growth.
850
What does an acceleration in monetary growth indicate?
The potential for inflationary pressure ## Footnote This is especially relevant if it has accelerated from its trend.
851
What does the velocity of money refer to?
The ratio of nominal GDP to money supply ## Footnote A stable velocity suggests price stability, while a falling velocity may indicate inflationary potential.
852
What happens when the velocity of money falls due to a cyclical correction?
Prospects are more likely to lead to a cyclical upswing ## Footnote This indicates recovery rather than inflationary pressure.
853
What creates a self-sustaining character of inflation?
Inflation expectations embedded in the economy ## Footnote This leads to persistent inflation even after its initial cause has disappeared.
854
How do practitioners gauge inflation expectations?
By using past inflation trends and surveys of inflation expectations ## Footnote They also analyze inflation-linked securities.
855
What can Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS) indicate?
The general level of inflation expectations among market participants ## Footnote Comparing yields on these bonds helps analysts forecast inflation.
856
What is cost-push inflation caused by?
Rising costs ## Footnote Analysts examine data like unemployment rates and productivity growth to evaluate this.
857
What does unit labor cost measure?
A combination of hourly wages and output ## Footnote It reflects the labor cost in each unit of output.
858
What is demand-pull inflation dependent on?
The state of economic activity relative to potential ## Footnote It occurs when the economy operates above its potential capacity.
859
What do Monetarists believe about inflation?
It reflects the growth of money ## Footnote This means that money supply growth is a key determinant of inflation.
860
The inflationary potential of a particular inflation rate depends on what?
The economy's NAI RU or NARU ## Footnote This reflects the labor force's skill set relative to the economy's industrial mix.
861
Which of the following is not a problem with the NAIRU and NARU?
They work only in monetarist models ## Footnote This statement is incorrect; they reflect potential economic conditions and change over time.
862
What are business cycles?
Recurrent expansions and contractions in economic activity ## Footnote They affect broad segments of the economy.
863
How many phases do the investment industry typically refer to in business cycles?
Four phases: recovery, expansion, slowdown, and contraction ## Footnote The peak occurs during the slowdown phase.
864
What do credit cycles describe?
The changing availability and pricing of credit ## Footnote They are important due to the financing of construction and property purchases.
865
What is the inventory-sales ratio used to measure?
The inventories available for sale to the level of sales ## Footnote Analysts monitor this to gauge the economy's position in the cycle.
866
What do Neoclassical and Real Business Cycle theories focus on?
Fluctuations of aggregate supply (AS) ## Footnote They suggest that government intervention may worsen fluctuations.
867
What do Keynesian theories advocate when aggregate demand (AD) shifts left?
Government intervention to restore full employment ## Footnote This is to avoid a deflationary spiral.
868
What are leading indicators?
Statistics that suggest where the economy is likely to be in the near future ## Footnote They are crucial for understanding the business cycle stage.
869
What do Keynesians advocate to restore full employment?
Government intervention to avoid a deflationary spiral ## Footnote Keynesian economics emphasizes active government policy to manage economic cycles.
870
What do Monetarists argue regarding government policies?
The timing of the impact is uncertain; better to let the economy find equilibrium unassisted while maintaining money supply growth ## Footnote Monetarism focuses on the role of governments in controlling the amount of money in circulation.
871
What are economic indicators?
Statistics on macroeconomic variables that help understand the business cycle stage ## Footnote Economic indicators are critical for assessing economic performance and trends.
872
What are leading economic indicators?
Indicators suggesting where the economy is likely to be in the near future ## Footnote Examples include ISM, new orders, and consumer expectations.
873
What do coincident economic indicators indicate?
They have turning points close to those of the overall economy ## Footnote They reflect the current state of the economy.
874
What are lagging economic indicators?
Indicators that change after a trend has been established ## Footnote Examples include average duration of unemployment and inventory-sales ratio.
875
What is nowcasting?
An estimate of the present state of the economy based on real-time monitoring ## Footnote Useful because actual data on GDP is published with delay.
876
Who are considered unemployed?
People actively seeking employment but currently without a job ## Footnote This definition excludes those not seeking work.
877
What defines long-term unemployed individuals?
Those out of work for more than three to four months but still looking for a job ## Footnote This group faces significant challenges in re-entering the job market.
878
What characterizes frictional unemployment?
Individuals not currently working while searching for a better job match or transitioning between jobs ## Footnote This type of unemployment is often temporary.
879
What is hyperinflation?
A high and increasing rate of inflation, e.g., 100% annual ## Footnote Hyperinflation can lead to severe economic instability.
880
Define deflation.
A negative inflation rate where prices decrease ## Footnote Deflation can lead to reduced consumer spending and economic stagnation.
881
What is imported inflation?
Inflation associated with increasing costs of imported inputs ## Footnote This can occur due to exchange rate fluctuations or supply chain disruptions.
882
What causes demand inflation?
Constraints in production that prevent companies from meeting market demand ## Footnote Often observed during wartime when goods are rationed.
883
How is inflation measured?
Using indexes like Consumer Price Index, Producer Price Index, and GDP deflators ## Footnote Each index reflects different aspects of price changes in the economy.
884
What do core indexes exclude?
Volatile items such as agricultural products and energy ## Footnote This helps provide a clearer view of underlying inflation trends.
885
What are the real factors affecting price levels?
* Aggregate supply * Aggregate demand ## Footnote An increase in supply generally leads to lower prices, while increased demand raises them.
886
What are monetary factors affecting price levels?
* Supply of money * Velocity of money ## Footnote More money circulating can lead to higher prices if the economy is in equilibrium.
887
What are the two types of inflation described by economists?
* Cost-push inflation * Demand-pull inflation ## Footnote Cost-push inflation is driven by rising costs, while demand-pull inflation is driven by increased demand.
888
What is disinflation?
A decline in inflation rates while remaining at a positive level ## Footnote Disinflation indicates a slowing rate of price increase.
889
What is the least likely consequence of hyperinflation?
Reduced velocity of money ## Footnote Hyperinflation typically leads to increased money supply and potential social unrest.
890
In the context of policy, when will a central bank likely allow the economy to self-correct?
In periods of low inflation, slow economic growth, and high unemployment ## Footnote This reflects a cautious approach to economic intervention.
891
What is the negative inflation rate?
A decrease in the inflation rate ## Footnote Negative inflation indicates a situation where prices are falling.
892
What is the characteristic of national consumer price indexes likely shared across major economies?
The weights they place on covered goods and services ## Footnote This refers to the relative importance assigned to different items in the index.
893
Which statement regarding the Producer Price Index (PPI) is least likely true?
It is used more frequently than CPI as a benchmark for adjusting labor contract payments ## Footnote Typically, CPI is more commonly used for this purpose.
894
Which type of price index will result in the highest calculated inflation rate over a two-month period?
One that uses a current consumption basket ## Footnote Current consumption baskets reflect recent price changes more accurately.
895
The inflation rate most likely relied on to determine public economic policy is:
Core inflation ## Footnote Core inflation excludes volatile items like food and energy.
896
What is the most important effect of labor productivity in a cost-push inflation scenario?
As productivity growth proportionately exceeds wage increases, product price increases are less likely ## Footnote Rising productivity can mitigate inflationary pressures.
897
If a product's quality improves while its price stays constant, the measured inflation rate is most likely:
Biased upward ## Footnote Quality improvements can lead to higher perceived value, influencing inflation measures.
898
A price index of goods and services that excludes food and energy is most likely used to calculate:
Core inflation ## Footnote Core inflation provides a clearer view of long-term inflation trends.
899
Which type of inflation corresponds to the expectation that a tighter labor market will compel home retailers to raise prices?
Cost-push inflation ## Footnote Cost-push inflation occurs when rising costs compel businesses to increase prices.
900
What are the two types of government policy that can affect the macroeconomy?
* Monetary policy * Fiscal policy ## Footnote Monetary policy involves the central bank's actions, while fiscal policy relates to government spending and taxation.
901
What does monetary policy refer to?
Central bank activities that are directed toward influencing the quantity of money and credit in an economy ## Footnote Monetary policy aims to manage inflation and stabilize currency.
902
What is fiscal policy?
Government decisions about taxation and spending ## Footnote Fiscal policy is used to influence economic conditions and redistribute income.
903
The overarching goal of both monetary and fiscal policy is to create an economic environment that is:
* Stable and positive growth * Stable and low inflation ## Footnote Achieving these goals helps ensure economic security for households and businesses.
904
What is disinflation?
A reduction of inflation from a higher to a lower, but still above zero, level ## Footnote Disinflation indicates a slowing inflation rate.
905
What is deflation connected to?
A vicious cycle of reduced spending and higher unemployment ## Footnote Deflation can lead to decreased economic activity and further economic challenges.
906
What is hyperinflation characterized by?
Consumers accelerate their spending to be at price increases ## Footnote Hyperinflation leads to rapid price increases and diminished currency value.
907
What is the LaSpeyres index?
Calculated using a fixed consumption bundle ## Footnote It measures inflation based on a consistent set of goods over time.
908
What is the primary use of the Consumer Price Index (CPI)?
To monitor inflation and evaluate monetary policies ## Footnote CPI is a key indicator of price changes in a basket of consumer goods and services.
909
What is the effect of discouraged workers on the labor force participation ratio?
Decreases the labor force participation ratio ## Footnote Discouraged workers are not counted in the official unemployment rate.
910
What is frictional unemployment?
People who are temporarily unemployed while transitioning between jobs ## Footnote Frictional unemployment is a normal part of the labor market dynamics.
911
What happens to purchasing power during inflation?
A fixed amount of money buys fewer goods and services ## Footnote Inflation erodes the value of money over time.
912
What does the Fisher effect describe?
The relationship between inflation and interest rates ## Footnote The Fisher effect suggests that real interest rates are equal to nominal interest rates minus the expected inflation rate.
913
What is the main goal of monetary policy?
To influence the macro economy by influencing the quantity of money and credit in the economy ## Footnote Monetary policy can be implemented independently of government influence or as an agent of the government.
914
What is fiscal policy primarily used for?
To influence economic activity through government spending and taxation ## Footnote Fiscal policy can also redistribute wealth and balance budgets.
915
What is a barter economy?
An economy where goods and services are exchanged directly for other goods and services ## Footnote This type of economy lacks a common measure of value.
916
What is the most generic definition of money?
Any generally accepted medium of exchange ## Footnote A medium of exchange is an asset used to purchase goods and services or repay debts.
917
List the qualities money must possess to act as a medium of exchange.
* Readily acceptable * Have a known value * Easily divisible * High value relative to its weight * Difficult to counterfeit
918
What role did precious metals like gold and silver play in early economies?
They served as a medium of exchange and a store of wealth ## Footnote Their value depended on demand for them in ornaments and jewelry.
919
What are the three important functions of money?
* Acts as a medium of exchange * Provides a way of storing wealth * Provides a convenient measure of value
920
What was a crucial development in the history of money?
The promissory note ## Footnote This development began with goldsmiths issuing receipts for deposited gold.
921
How did early banks evolve in relation to gold deposits?
They took in excess wealth and issued promissory notes that could be used in commerce ## Footnote Not all gold would be withdrawn at once, allowing for the issuance of more notes than the physical gold held.
922
Fill in the blank: Money must be _______ to act effectively as a medium of exchange.
[readily acceptable]
923
True or False: Money can only serve as a medium of exchange.
False ## Footnote Money also serves as a store of wealth and a unit of account.
924
What is the process of money creation in banking known as?
Fractional reserve banking ## Footnote This process involves banks lending out a portion of deposits while keeping a fraction in reserve to meet withdrawals.
925
What is the reserve requirement?
The percentage of deposits that banks are required to keep in reserve ## Footnote In the example, the reserve requirement is 10 percent.
926
What happens when a customer deposits £100 in a bank with a 10% reserve requirement?
The bank retains £10 and loans out £90 ## Footnote This process continues through multiple banks, creating further money in the economy.
927
What is the money multiplier?
The amount of money that the banking system creates, calculated as 1 divided by the reserve requirement ## Footnote In the example, with a 10% reserve requirement, the money multiplier is 10.
928
How can central banks influence money growth?
By setting reserve requirements and purchasing government securities ## Footnote This can increase the money supply by affecting the reserves banks hold.
929
What are the three basic motives for holding money?
* Transactions-related * Precautionary * Speculative ## Footnote Each motive reflects different reasons why individuals or businesses prefer to hold money rather than invest in other assets.
930
What is the definition of narrow money?
The total of notes and coins in circulation plus very highly liquid deposits ## Footnote Narrow money is used to measure liquidity in an economy.
931
What does broad money encompass?
Narrow money plus all liquid assets that can be used to make purchases ## Footnote Broad money includes various forms of money, providing a comprehensive view of the money supply.
932
What does the quantity theory of money state?
Total spending is proportional to the quantity of money ## Footnote This relationship is expressed by the equation M × V = P × Y.
933
What is the Fisher effect?
The relationship between inflation and the nominal interest rate ## Footnote It suggests that real interest rates remain stable over time.
934
What is transactions demand for money?
The demand to hold money for the purpose of purchasing goods and services ## Footnote This is a key aspect of how individuals manage their liquidity.
935
What is precautionary money demand?
Money held as a buffer against unforeseen events ## Footnote This type of demand increases with the volume of transactions in the economy.
936
What is speculative demand for money?
The demand to hold money based on potential risks and returns of other financial instruments ## Footnote This demand tends to rise when perceived risks in other assets increase.
937
True or False: Money can only be defined as gold and silver coins in circulation.
False ## Footnote Money is more broadly defined to include all forms of currency and bank deposits.
938
What is the effect of a lower reserve requirement on the money multiplier?
It increases the money multiplier ## Footnote A smaller reserve requirement allows banks to lend out more money, thus expanding the money supply.
939
Fill in the blank: The total amount of money created from a deposit can be calculated as ______.
1 divided by the reserve requirement ## Footnote This calculation shows how much money can be generated in the banking system from a single deposit.
940
What is the definition of broad money?
Broad money encompasses narrow money and refers to the stock of the entire range of liquid assets that can be used to make purchases. ## Footnote Broad money can be used to purchase a wider range of goods and services than narrow money.
941
What is the price of money in the market?
The nominal interest rate that could be earned by lending it to others.
942
What does the supply curve for money (MS) represent?
A fixed nominal amount of money circulating at any one time.
943
What does the demand curve for money (MD) indicate?
It is downward sloping because as interest rates rise, the speculative demand for money falls.
944
What is the equilibrium interest rate where no excess money balances exist?
I0.
945
If the interest rate on bonds is I1 instead of I0, what will happen?
There would be excess supply of money (M0 - M1), leading economic agents to buy bonds, forcing the price of bonds up and the interest rate down to I0.
946
What occurs if bonds offer an interest rate of I2?
There would be excess demand for money (M2 - M0), prompting individuals to sell bonds, causing the price of bonds to fall and interest rates to rise until reaching I0.
947
What happens to the interest rate when the supply of money increases?
The interest rate falls as the price level rises.
948
What does an increase in the money supply create initially?
Excess supply of cash.
949
What is the Fisher effect?
The Fisher effect states that the real rate of interest in an economy is stable over time, and changes in nominal interest rates are due to changes in expected inflation.
950
According to the Fisher effect, how is the nominal interest rate (Rnom) calculated?
Rnom = Rreal + e.
951
What does money neutrality imply about the long-term effects of money supply changes?
The money supply and/or growth rate should not affect the real rate of interest (Rreal) but will affect inflation and inflation expectations.
952
Fill in the blank: An increase in the money supply can lead to an increase in the aggregate price level, as long as the velocity of circulation of money does not _____ sufficiently.
fall.
953
The nominal interest rate comprises a real rate of interest plus compensation for _____ and _____ risk.
expected inflation; risk.
954
True or False: An increase in the money supply will always lead to an increase in the aggregate price level.
False.
955
What is the effect of an expansion in the money supply on nominal interest rates?
It leads to a decline in nominal interest rates. ## Footnote This occurs because increasing the supply of money reduces its price, which is reflected in lower interest rates.
956
What are the two types of inflation discussed in the text?
Expected inflation and unexpected inflation. ## Footnote Expected inflation is what economic agents anticipate, while unexpected inflation is the difference between actual inflation and what was anticipated.
957
In a world where all prices are perfectly indexed to inflation, how would economic agents feel about inflation?
They would likely be indifferent to inflation. ## Footnote If wages and prices rise equally, the purchasing power remains unchanged.
958
What is the primary concern of economic agents in a high and unpredictable inflation environment?
They need to think carefully about inflation. ## Footnote Unpredictable inflation can affect their financial planning and decision-making.
959
What happens to borrowers and lenders when inflation is higher than anticipated?
Borrowers benefit at the expense of lenders. ## Footnote This is because the real value of the borrowed amount declines due to unexpected inflation.
960
What is inflation uncertainty?
The degree to which economic agents find future inflation rates hard to forecast. ## Footnote High inflation uncertainty can lead to higher borrowing costs and reduced economic activity.
961
What are the three basic motives for holding money?
* Transactions-related * Precautionary * Speculative
962
How does an increase in the reserve requirement affect the money multiplier?
It decreases the money multiplier. ## Footnote The money multiplier is inversely related to the reserve requirement.
963
What is the nominal rate of interest composed of?
* Real required rate of return * Compensation for future inflation * Risk premium
964
What is the main objective of most central banks?
Price stability. ## Footnote Central banks aim to control inflation and maintain stable prices.
965
What are the two types of economic policies that governments can use to influence their economies?
* Monetary policy * Fiscal policy
966
What does monetary policy refer to?
Central bank activities aimed at influencing the quantity of money and credit in an economy. ## Footnote It includes actions like setting interest rates and controlling inflation.
967
What is fiscal policy?
Government decisions about taxation and spending. ## Footnote Fiscal policy affects aggregate demand and economic activity.
968
What is the demand for money?
The amount of wealth citizens choose to hold in the form of money. ## Footnote This contrasts with holding assets like bonds or equities.
969
What is the impact of expansionary fiscal policy during a recession?
It can increase economic activity. ## Footnote This can involve raising government expenditure without offsetting tax increases.
970
What can higher borrowing costs due to inflation uncertainty lead to?
Reduced economic activity. ## Footnote Higher costs can discourage investment and spending.
971
True or False: According to the theory of money neutrality, money supply growth affects real output and employment in the long run.
False. ## Footnote Money neutrality suggests that real variables are unaffected in the long run.
972
What is the Fisher effect?
A theory that states the nominal interest rate reflects changes in expected inflation. ## Footnote It is expressed as: Nominal interest rate = Real interest rate + Expected rate of inflation.
973
What happens during contractionary fiscal policy?
Government reduces expenditure while maintaining tax revenues. ## Footnote This can decrease economic activity.
974
Which type of inflation is argued to be the most costly?
Unexpected inflation. ## Footnote It disrupts financial planning and can lead to economic instability.
975
What does GDP measure?
The market value of all final goods and services produced by factors of production located within a country during a given period of time ## Footnote Generally measured over a year or a quarter.
976
What does GNP measure?
The market value of all final goods and services produced by factors of production supplied by citizens of a country, regardless of location ## Footnote Includes production by citizens outside the country.
977
What is the main difference between GDP and GNP?
GDP includes production by foreigners within the country, whereas GNP includes production by citizens outside the country.
978
What are imports?
Goods and services that a domestic economy purchases from other countries.
979
What are exports?
Goods and services that a domestic economy sells to other countries.
980
What are the terms of trade?
The ratio of the price of exports to the price of imports, represented by export and import price indexes.
981
What does comparative advantage refer to?
A country's ability to produce a good at a relatively lower cost than other goods it produces, compared with another country.
982
What are the expected outcomes for global investors when analyzing international markets?
Factors such as expected GDP growth rates, monetary and fiscal policies, trade policies, and competitiveness.
983
What can international trade facilitate?
Economic growth by increasing efficiency of resource allocation, providing access to larger capital and product markets, and facilitating specialization.
984
What is the balance of payments?
A summary of a country's economic transactions with the rest of the world.
985
What is the role of financial capital flows between countries?
To increase liquidity, raise output, and lower the cost of capital.
986
True or False: Low levels of inflation have higher economic costs than moderate levels, all else equal.
True.
987
Fill in the blank: The flow of financial capital between countries with excess savings and those where financial capital is _______ can increase liquidity.
scarce
988
What are the components of the balance of payments?
Current account, capital account, and financial account.
989
What is the significance of analyzing cross-country differences for investors?
To identify markets expected to provide attractive investment opportunities.
990
What does the Ricardian model of trade focus on?
Comparative advantage based on opportunity costs.
991
What does the Heckscher-Ohlin model emphasize?
Comparative advantage based on factor endowments.
992
What is the definition of net exports?
Net exports is the difference between the value of a country's exports and the value of its imports ## Footnote It is calculated as value of exports minus value of imports.
993
What does a trade surplus indicate?
A trade surplus indicates that the value of exports is greater than the value of imports.
994
What is an autarky?
An autarky is a state in which a country does not trade with other countries.
995
What is the price of a good in an autarkic economy called?
The autarkic price.
996
What is the opposite of an autarky?
An open economy.
997
What characterizes a free trade environment?
Free trade occurs when there are no government restrictions on a country's ability to trade.
998
What determines the equilibrium quantity and price of imports and exports under free trade?
Global aggregate demand and supply.
999
How did trade as a percentage of regional GDP change from 1970 to 2006 in developing countries in Asia?
It increased from less than 20 percent of GDP in 1970 to more than 70 percent of GDP in 2006.
1000
What does the terms of trade reflect?
The relative price of imports and exports in real terms: units of imports per unit of exports.
1001
What is Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?
FDI refers to direct investment by a firm in one country in productive assets in a foreign country.
1002
What distinguishes FDI from Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)?
FDI involves long-term investment in productive assets, while FPI refers to shorter-term investments in foreign financial instruments.
1003
What trend did the World Development Report 2009 affirm regarding trade?
It affirmed the link between trade and growth, indicating that all rich and emerging economies are oriented to being open to trade.
1004
What is the opportunity cost of producing a good?
The opportunity cost is the amount of another good that must be forgone to produce an additional unit of the first good.
1005
What is absolute advantage?
A country has an absolute advantage if it can produce a good at a lower cost or use fewer resources than its trading partner.
1006
How is comparative advantage defined?
A country has a comparative advantage if its opportunity cost of producing a good is less than that of its trading partner.
1007
What is the effect of globalization on manufacturing firms?
Globalization of production has increased the productive efficiency of manufacturing firms by allowing them to outsource production.
1008
What does intra-firm trade refer to?
Intra-firm trade refers to trade between multinational firms and their subsidiaries.
1009
True or False: An open economy can provide domestic households with a larger variety of goods and services.
True.
1010
Fill in the blank: A country has a comparative advantage in producing a good if its _______ cost of producing that good is less than that of its trading partner.
opportunity
1011
What has been the trend in trade as a percentage of GDP from 1990 to 2010 for the world as a whole?
It increased from 39 percent in 1990 to 57 percent in 2010.
1012
What is the significance of economies of scale in capital-intensive industries?
Manufacturers can take advantage of economies of scale because they have access to a much larger market.
1013
What is the opportunity cost of 1 pencil in Vietnam?
1/6th of a pen ## Footnote This indicates Vietnam's lower opportunity cost in pencil production compared to Brazil.
1014
What is the opportunity cost of 1 pencil in Brazil?
1/2 of a pen ## Footnote This higher opportunity cost in Brazil signifies its comparative disadvantage in pencil production.
1015
Which country has an absolute advantage in the production of machinery?
United Kingdom ## Footnote The UK produces more machinery per worker per day than India.
1016
Which country has an absolute advantage in the production of cloth?
India ## Footnote India produces more cloth per worker per day than the United Kingdom.
1017
What is the opportunity cost of a machine in the United Kingdom?
2 yards of cloth ## Footnote This is calculated as 8 ÷ 4, indicating the trade-off for producing machinery.
1018
What is the opportunity cost of a machine in India?
8 yards of cloth ## Footnote This indicates a higher trade-off for producing machinery in India compared to the UK.
1019
What is the opportunity cost of a yard of cloth in the United Kingdom?
1/2 of a machine ## Footnote This shows the trade-off for producing cloth in the UK.
1020
What is the opportunity cost of a yard of cloth in India?
1/8 of a machine ## Footnote This lower cost highlights India's comparative advantage in cloth production.
1021
True or False: A country can gain from trade even if it does not have an absolute advantage.
True ## Footnote Countries can still benefit by exporting goods in which they have a comparative advantage.
1022
What range of yards of cloth for a machine would allow both the UK and India to gain from trade?
Between 2 and 8 yards ## Footnote This range is based on the respective autarkic prices of both countries.
1023
What factor can cause a country's comparative advantage to change over time?
Structural shifts in the economy ## Footnote Other factors include accumulation of capital, new technology, and discovery of resources.
1024
In what decade did South Korea adopt an export-oriented development strategy?
1960s ## Footnote This strategy significantly impacted South Korea's comparative advantage over time.
1025
What percentage of South Korea's exports were agricultural products in 1980?
6.8% ## Footnote This figure decreased to 2.0% by 2015, reflecting a shift in export focus.
1026
What percentage of South Korea's exports were machinery and transport equipment in 2015?
Almost 60% ## Footnote This represents a substantial increase from approximately 16% in 1980.
1027
How did increased foreign competition impact South Korea's economy?
Created a self-reinforcing virtuous circle ## Footnote Success in export markets led to increased productivity and technological adoption.
1028
Fill in the blank: In 1980, textiles accounted for _____ of South Korea's exports.
9.8% ## Footnote This percentage decreased significantly by 2015, indicating changing export dynamics.
1029
Fill in the blank: By 2015, pharmaceuticals accounted for _____ of South Korea's exports.
0.4% ## Footnote This shows limited growth in this sector compared to machinery and chemicals.
1030
What factors helped to change South Korea's comparative advantage?
Factors include: * Government policy * An increasingly skilled and productive workforce * Proactive firms that learned and adapted new technology ## Footnote These factors contributed to South Korea's evolving economic landscape and competitiveness in international trade.
1031
What is the importance of analyzing a country's comparative and absolute advantages?
It is critical for analysts to examine changes in: * Government policy and regulations * Demographics * Human capital * Demand conditions * Other influencing factors ## Footnote This analysis helps identify sectors and industries that may benefit from changing economic conditions.
1032
What are the key differences between the Ricardian and Heckscher-Ohlin models of trade?
Ricardian model focuses on: * Cross-country differences in technology * Labor as the only variable factor of production Heckscher-Ohlin model focuses on: * Cross-country differences in factor endowments * Both labor and capital as variable factors ## Footnote These models provide insights into the determinants and patterns of trade.
1033
What does the Ricardian model suggest about comparative advantage?
A country has a comparative advantage if it has a lower opportunity cost in the production of a good. ## Footnote This model emphasizes the role of labor productivity differences driven by technology.
1034
How does the Heckscher-Ohlin model define comparative advantage?
A country has a comparative advantage in goods whose production is intensive in the factor it has in relative abundance. ## Footnote This model assumes uniform technology across countries but varying technology between industries.
1035
What is derived demand in the context of trade?
Derived demand refers to the demand for an input that arises from the demand for the product it produces. ## Footnote Changes in trade can positively impact the abundant factor and negatively impact the scarce factor.
1036
What are the three main components of the balance of payments (BOP)?
The BOP consists of: * Current account * Capital account * Financial account ## Footnote Each component reflects different types of economic transactions with the rest of the world.
1037
What transactions are recorded in the current account?
The current account includes: * Merchandise trade * Services * Income receipts * Unilateral transfers ## Footnote These transactions capture the flow of goods, services, and income between a country and the rest of the world.
1038
What does the capital account measure?
The capital account measures: * Capital transfers * Sales and purchases of non-produced, non-financial assets ## Footnote This includes debt forgiveness and intangible asset transactions.
1039
What is included in the financial account of the BOP?
The financial account includes: * Financial assets abroad * Foreign-owned financial assets within the reporting country ## Footnote This section captures investment flows and ownership of financial assets.
1040
True or False: The sum of all debit entries in the BOP should equal the sum of all credit entries.
True ## Footnote This principle reflects the double-entry bookkeeping nature of the BOP, though discrepancies may arise in practice.
1041
Fill in the blank: The BOP is a ______ bookkeeping system summarizing a country's economic transactions.
[double-entry] ## Footnote This system tracks all economic flows and changes in ownership of goods and services.
1042
What is the role of trade in influencing factor incomes according to the Heckscher-Ohlin model?
Trade impacts factor incomes by: * Favoring the abundant factor * Negatively impacting the scarce factor ## Footnote This occurs due to changes in output prices resulting from trade.
1043
How did Japan's comparative advantage change from 1967 to 1980?
Japan shifted from a comparative advantage in unskilled-labor-intensive goods to skill-intensive products. ## Footnote This change was driven by an increase in skilled labor availability.
1044
What are unilateral transfers in the current account?
Unilateral transfers include: * Worker remittances * Foreign direct aid or gifts ## Footnote These are one-way transfers of assets without reciprocal exchange.
1045
What are the two categories of foreign-owned assets in the reporting country?
Official assets and other foreign assets ## Footnote Official assets include securities issued by the government, while other foreign assets cover private sector securities.
1046
What types of goods do immigrants bring with them that affect the balance of payments?
Goods and financial assets ## Footnote These goods are imported on grounds other than commercial transactions.
1047
What does the current account balance reflect?
The difference between exports and imports ## Footnote It indicates whether a country has a current account surplus or deficit.
1048
How is the national income identity for a closed economy represented?
Y = C + I + G ## Footnote Where Y is GDP, C is private consumption, I is investment, and G is government purchases.
1049
What is the national income identity for an open economy?
Y = C + I + G + X - M ## Footnote X denotes exports and M denotes imports.
1050
What happens when a country's imports exceed its exports?
The current account is in deficit.
1051
What does a current account surplus indicate?
Exports exceed imports.
1052
How does a current account deficit affect GDP?
It can decrease GDP and employment.
1053
What must offset a deficit or surplus in the current account?
An opposite balance in the capital and financial accounts.
1054
What has the United States done for many years regarding the current account?
Run current account deficits while accumulating net foreign liabilities.
1055
What do countries with current account surpluses do for their trading partners?
They finance the current account deficit of their trading partners by lending.
1056
Fill in the blank: The balance of payments must balance, meaning a deficit in the current account must be offset by a ______ in the capital and financial accounts.
surplus
1057
Which countries are traditionally known for having a current account surplus?
Japan, Germany, and China.
1058
What is the relationship between net exports and the current account balance?
Net exports are equivalent to the current account balance from a BOP perspective.
1059
True or False: A current account deficit means that a country is spending more on imports than it earns from exports.
True.
1060
What financial instruments are included in the official assets category?
Securities issued by the government and private sectors.
1061
What role do foreign liabilities play in the balance of payments?
They are reported by the banking sector and affect the financial account.
1062
What does an increasing current account deficit in the US indicate?
Strong import growth.
1063
What does the financial account reflect in relation to the current account?
Net capital inflows or outflows.
1064
What is the impact of a current account surplus on a country's economy?
It earns more from exports than it spends on imports.
1065
What does the current account balance (CA) represent?
CA = X - M = Y - (C + I + G) ## Footnote This equation defines the current account balance from the perspective of national income accounts.
1066
How can a country have a current account deficit?
By borrowing money from foreigners to consume more output than it produces.
1067
What does a current account surplus indicate?
A country consumes less output than it produces and lends the surplus to foreigners.
1068
What is disposable income (Yd) composed of?
Yd = Y + R - T ## Footnote Where Y is income, R is net transfers, and T is taxes.
1069
What is the relationship between disposable income, consumption, and saving?
Yd = C + Sp ## Footnote Where C is consumption and Sp is private sector saving.
1070
How can we express consumption (C) in terms of private sector saving?
C = Yd - Sp = Y + R - T - Sp
1071
What does the equation Sp + Sg = I + CA indicate?
It highlights the relationship between private savings (Sp), government savings (Sg), investment (I), and the current account (CA).
1072
What is the key difference between open and closed economies regarding savings?
An open economy can use savings for domestic or foreign investment, while a closed economy can use it only for domestic investment.
1073
What happens when a country like India imports materials and borrows funds for investment?
It increases domestic investment and results in a current account deficit by an amount equal to the increase in investment.
1074
How can private savings (Sp) be utilized according to Equation 9?
Sp can be used for: * Investment in domestic capital (I) * Purchases of assets from foreigners (CA) * Net purchases or redemptions of government debt (−Sg)
1075
What does a current account deficit generally reflect?
Low private savings, high private investment, a government deficit, or a combination of these factors.
1076
What are the implications of trade deficits primarily reflecting high consumption?
The deficit country’s capacity to repay its liabilities from future production remains unchanged.
1077
What can a current account deficit indicate about the domestic economy?
It often reflects a strong domestic economy with elevated consumer, government, and investment spending.
1078
How does persistent current account deficit affect the claims held by other countries?
It leads to a permanent increase in claims against the deficit country, possibly requiring rising risk premiums.
1079
What are the economic consequences of the UK’s planned fiscal policy moves mentioned in the example?
They will likely lead to an improvement in the UK current account position.
1080
What are the components of the balance of payments?
* Current account balance * Capital account balance * Financial account
1081
What factors influence the balance of payments?
Decisions by consumers, firms, and governments.
1082
What is the effect of a government deficit on the current account?
It produces a current account deficit.
1083
What does a sustained current account deficit contribute to?
A rise in the risk premium for financial assets of the deficit country.
1084
What is the definition of absolute advantage in trade?
The ability to produce a good at a lower absolute cost than a trading partner.
1085
What is comparative advantage in trade?
The opportunity cost of producing a good is less than that of a trading partner.
1086
What role do trade barriers play in international trade?
They prevent the free flow of goods and services among countries.
1087
What is a customs union?
It allows free movement of goods and services among members and creates a common trade policy against non-members.
1088
What is the significance of an economic union?
It requires common economic institutions and coordination of policies among members.
1089
How can trade barriers generate a net welfare gain in a large country?
If the gain from better terms of trade offsets the loss from distorted resource allocations.
1090
What is comparative advantage?
A country has a comparative advantage in producing a good if its opportunity cost of producing the good is less than that of its trading partner. ## Footnote This concept helps explain trade patterns between countries.
1091
If Mexico exports vegetables to Brazil and imports flashlights, which country has a comparative advantage in the production of vegetables?
Mexico ## Footnote The opportunity cost of vegetables in Mexico is lower than in Brazil.
1092
What is the opportunity cost of producing vegetables in Mexico compared to flashlights?
1/3 flashlight per vegetable ## Footnote This indicates how many flashlights must be foregone to produce one vegetable.
1093
Which country has the greatest comparative advantage in the production of bananas given the output per worker per day?
Mexico ## Footnote The opportunity cost of bananas is lower in Mexico compared to Brazil and Canada.
1094
In the Ricardian trade model, a country captures more of the gains from trade if:
the terms of trade are closer to its autarkic prices than to its partner's autarkic prices. ## Footnote This means favorable terms of trade increase a country's benefits from trade.
1095
According to the Heckscher-Ohlin model, when trade opens, which factor gains relative to the other within each country?
The abundant factor gains relative to the scarce factor in each country. ## Footnote This reflects the changes in factor demand due to trade.
1096
The sale of mineral rights is captured in which component of the balance of payments?
Capital account ## Footnote The capital account records capital transfers and sales of non-produced, non-financial assets.
1097
Where are patent fees and legal services recorded in the balance of payments?
Current account ## Footnote The current account measures flows of goods and services, including income from foreign investments.
1098
Which factor most likely contributes to a current account deficit?
Low private savings ## Footnote Other factors may include high private investment or government deficits.
1099
Which chronic deficit condition is least alarming to the deficit country's creditors?
High private investment ## Footnote High private investment can indicate growth potential, making it less concerning for creditors.
1100
Fill in the blank: A country has a comparative advantage in goods whose production is intensive in the factor with which it is relatively _______.
abundantly endowed.
1101
True or False: Germany should export wine and Portugal should export machine tools according to the Heckscher-Ohlin model.
False ## Footnote Germany has a comparative advantage in machine tools due to its capital abundance.
1102
In the context of trade, what happens to the export product's output when trade opens?
Increased demand for the factor used intensively in its production. ## Footnote This leads to a gain for the abundant factor in the exporting country.
1103
What is an exchange rate?
The price at which one currency can be exchanged for another currency.
1104
What is the difference between nominal and real exchange rates?
Nominal exchange rates are the rates quoted in the market, while real exchange rates adjust nominal rates for inflation differences between countries.
1105
What are spot and forward exchange rates?
Spot exchange rates are for immediate currency delivery, while forward exchange rates are agreed upon today for future delivery.
1106
What is the daily turnover of the foreign exchange market as of 2016?
Approximately USD 5.1 trillion.
1107
True or False: The FX market operates 24 hours a day.
True.
1108
What is the primary function of the FX market?
To facilitate international trade and capital flows by allowing currency exchange.
1109
What percentage of S&P 500 Index earnings comes from outside the United States?
About 30 percent.
1110
What is a spot transaction in the FX market?
The exchange of currencies for immediate delivery, typically settled two business days after the trade.
1111
What are outright forward contracts?
Agreements to exchange currencies at a future date at an exchange rate agreed upon today.
1112
Fill in the blank: The exchange rate used for spot transactions is referred to as the _______.
spot exchange rate.
1113
What is the typical settlement time for spot transactions?
T + 2 days.
1114
What is an FX swap?
A combination of a spot transaction and a forward contract to roll over an existing position.
1115
What is the main difference between futures and forward contracts?
Futures contracts are traded on exchanges and have fixed amounts and dates, while forwards are OTC and flexible.
1116
What does it mean to roll forward a forward contract?
To extend an existing forward position to a new future date by closing the expiring contract and entering a new one.
1117
True or False: Forward contracts can be customized in size and settlement date.
True.
1118
What is a forward exchange rate?
The exchange rate agreed upon today for a currency transaction to occur at a future date.
1119
What happens if the forward settlement date falls on a weekend or holiday?
The settlement date is adjusted to the closest good business day.
1120
How is the cash flow calculated in an FX swap when rolling a forward contract?
It is calculated based on the difference in exchange rates between the forward contract and the spot rate at the time of settlement.
1121
What is the significance of the foreign exchange market in a globalized economy?
It connects financial markets globally and influences investment performance through currency valuations.
1122
What is the main motivation for capital market transactions in the FX market?
To convert currencies for the purpose of moving funds into or out of foreign assets.
1123
Fill in the blank: The FX market is considered the world's largest market by measured daily turnover, accounting for _______.
USD 5.1 trillion.
1124
What is the settlement period for spot FX transactions mentioned in the text?
T + 2
1125
What is the purpose of engaging in simultaneous spot and forward transactions?
To eliminate FX risk from foreign borrowing
1126
What is the typical relationship between the all-in financing rate using an FX swap and domestic borrowing?
Typically close, usually within a few basis points
1127
What are FX options?
Contracts that give the purchaser the right to make an FX transaction at a future date at an agreed exchange rate
1128
What does the holder of an FX option do?
Exercises the option if the agreed exchange rate is better than the market rate at expiry
1129
Are spot, forward, swap, and option products typically used in isolation?
No, they are often used concurrently
1130
What do the instruments of the FX market provide to market participants?
An extremely flexible way to manage FX risk exposures
1131
What is the primary concern of the investment adviser regarding the client's foreign investments?
Foreign exchange risk
1132
Fill in the blank: The exchange rate risk of the client's investment in HKD-denominated bonds is determined by uncertainty over the _______.
AUD/HKD spot rate one year from now
1133
To reduce the exchange rate risk of the Hong Kong SAR investment, what should the client do?
Sell HKD forward
1134
What type of bond is suggested for the client's investment strategy?
One-year HKD-denominated zero coupon bond
1135
What is the risk profile of the proposed investment by the investment adviser?
Risk free
1136
What is the spot exchange rate (AUD/HKD) given in the text?
0.1714
1137
What is the one-year forward exchange rate (AUD/HKD) mentioned?
0.1724
1138
What does the investment adviser recommend to the client for managing FX risk?
Exchange AUD for HKD in the spot market and use a one-year forward contract
1139
True or False: The forward rate is established at the time the forward contract is entered into.
True
1140
What type of risk does the proposed investment in HKD-denominated bonds not expose the client to?
Interest rate risk
1141
What is the effect of devaluation or depreciation of currency on the trade balance?
It can improve the trade balance if demand for imports and exports is sufficiently price-sensitive ## Footnote The effectiveness of devaluation or depreciation depends on the well-behaved demand and supply curves for goods and services.
1142
What condition guarantees that devaluations improve the trade balance?
The Marshall-Lerner condition ## Footnote This condition assumes that trade is initially balanced and can be generalized to allow for initial trade imbalances.
1143
What is the price elasticity of demand?
It is the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price ## Footnote A demand elasticity of 0.6 means quantity demanded increases by 6% if price declines by 10%.
1144
What does the Marshall-Lerner condition state?
X * e_x + M * e_m > 1, where X and M are the shares of exports and imports, and e_x and e_m are the price elasticities of demand ## Footnote This condition implies that a devaluation will improve the trade balance if it holds true.
1145
What happens if demand for imports is elastic?
The trade balance will definitely improve ## Footnote This occurs if the elasticity of demand for imports (M) is greater than 1.
1146
What is the J-curve effect?
It's the phenomenon where the trade balance worsens initially after a devaluation before improving ## Footnote This happens due to order delivery lags in import and export transactions.
1147
What is the absorption approach in relation to exchange rates?
It is a macroeconomic view that focuses on the relationship between income and domestic expenditure ## Footnote It emphasizes that devaluation must increase income relative to expenditure to improve the trade balance.
1148
How can currency depreciation reduce domestic expenditure relative to income?
Through a wealth effect, where purchasing power decreases, leading households to reduce expenditure ## Footnote This can result in a temporary improvement in the trade balance.
1149
What must happen for currency depreciation to improve the trade balance?
It must induce a corresponding change in the capital account ## Footnote Domestic saving must increase and be channeled into buying financial assets from foreigners.
1150
What was the elasticities of demand for Australian exports and imports?
Exports: 0.3; Imports: 0.6 ## Footnote This indicates how responsive the demand for these goods is to changes in price.
1151
What is the impact of a 10% depreciation of the euro on imports and exports?
Imports become 10% more expensive; exports increase in quantity demanded due to lower foreign currency price ## Footnote For example, with an import elasticity of 0.65, imports would reduce by 6.5%.
1152
What is the percentage change in export revenue corresponding to a 1% depreciation of the currency?
It is equal to the elasticity of export demand ## Footnote If elasticity is x, then the revenue change is simply x.
1153
What factors can make exchange rate changes more effective for trade balance adjustment?
* Goods with good substitutes * Goods that trade in competitive markets * Luxury goods * Goods that account for a large portion of consumer expenditures ## Footnote These factors are associated with higher demand elasticities.
1154
What happens when the economy is at full employment concerning currency depreciation?
The trade balance cannot improve unless domestic expenditure declines ## Footnote If expenditure does not decline, higher prices will negate any stimulative effects of depreciation.
1155
What is the effect of an appreciation of the AUD on Australia's trade balance?
It is likely to decrease the trade balance ## Footnote As the AUD appreciates, export prices increase, leading to decreased demand for exports, thus lowering export revenue.
1156
What is the relationship between luxury goods and Australian exports?
The proportion of Australian exports accounted for by fine wines is increasing ## Footnote Fine wines are considered luxury goods and must compete with exports from regions like Chile and New Zealand.
1157
What does the Marshall-Lerner condition state?
For exchange rate movements to rebalance trade, the demands for imports and exports must be sufficiently price-sensitive ## Footnote This means they must have sufficiently high elasticities.
1158
Fill in the blank: An increase in both X and M will make the expression &X0X&MM Œ 1) _______.
increase
1159
True or False: An appreciation of the AUD will increase import expenditure.
False ## Footnote Although import prices decline with AUD appreciation, Australians do not increase their import purchases enough to lead to higher expenditures.
1160
What happens to Australian expenditure for imports when the AUD appreciates?
It declines ## Footnote The price of imports decreases, but demand does not increase sufficiently.
1161
What is the formula for the change in import expenditure?
%RM = (1 Œ M)%PM ## Footnote Where %PM is negative due to declining import prices and import demand is inelastic.
1162
If X = 0.53 and M = 0.47, what does this indicate about Australia's exports and imports?
Exports are 53% and imports are 47% of total trade ## Footnote This ratio is used in the Marshall-Lerner equation.
1163
What must happen for the trade balance to decline according to the relationship X Œ M = (S Œ I) + (T Œ G) > 0?
Australia must save less, invest more, or decrease its fiscal balance ## Footnote This means combinations of lower savings, higher investments, or decreased government surpluses.
1164
What is the implication of increasing private sector investment on Australia's trade balance?
It is likely to decrease the trade balance ## Footnote Higher private investment means less saving relative to investment.
1165
What is likely to happen to the elasticity of export demand as Australia’s exports become more dominated by luxury goods?
It is likely to increase ## Footnote This increase makes the trade surplus more responsive to an AUD appreciation.
1166
What happens if both X and M decrease?
It tends to make the expression smaller ## Footnote This implies a decrease in the trade balance.
1167
If the import elasticity decreases while the import share in total trade increases, what is the expected outcome?
The trade balance will be less responsive to exchange rate movements ## Footnote This means changes in the exchange rate will have a smaller impact on the trade balance.
1168
What happens to import elasticity (M) if Australian imports become dominated by luxury goods?
Import elasticity will most likely increase. ## Footnote This increase is due to luxury goods becoming a larger proportion of household expenditure.
1169
What would be the impact of capital controls on the Australian trade balance?
The trade balance would go to zero. ## Footnote A trade deficit must be matched by a corresponding capital account surplus.
1170
If capital flows are prohibited, what must happen to both the capital account and the trade balance?
Both must be zero.
1171
What is the effect of a decrease in private saving on the trade surplus?
It will decrease the trade surplus. ## Footnote A decrease in saving reflects a decline in national income.
1172
Which financial market is the largest in the world by average daily turnover?
The foreign exchange market.
1173
What are currency codes used for in foreign exchange markets?
They define exchange rates (the price of one currency in terms of another).
1174
What does an increase in the nominal exchange rate quoted in indirect terms signify?
The domestic currency is appreciating.
1175
What does the real exchange rate measure?
The relative purchasing power of the currencies.
1176
What is the relationship between spot exchange rates and forward exchange rates?
Spot rates are for immediate settlement, while forward rates are for future settlement.
1177
What must the spot exchange rate, forward exchange rate, and interest rates satisfy?
An arbitrage relationship that equates the investment return on two equivalent investments.
1178
What indicates that a base currency is trading at a forward premium?
The forward rate is above the spot rate.
1179
What does a trade surplus reflect?
An excess of domestic saving over investment spending.
1180
What are the two perspectives to analyze the impact of exchange rates on trade and capital flows?
The elasticities approach and the absorption approach.
1181
What does the Marshall-Lerner condition describe?
Combinations of export and import demand elasticities affecting the trade balance.
1182
If the economy is at full employment, what must happen for currency depreciation to improve the trade balance?
Domestic expenditure must reduce.
1183
What is the main mechanism through which currency depreciation affects the trade balance at full employment?
The wealth effect.
1184
What type of contract would a British company initiate to minimize foreign exchange exposure on a euro-denominated receivable due in 100 days?
Forward contract.
1185
Which domestic industry is most likely to benefit from a currency devaluation?
Luxury cars.
1186
What adjustment must occur for currency appreciation to effectively reduce a trade surplus?
Domestic investment must decline relative to saving.
1187
Fill in the blank: A trade deficit must be matched by a corresponding _______ in the capital account.
surplus.
1188
True or False: Forward exchange rates can be used to manage foreign exchange risk exposures.
True.