PreSolo Written Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying for compensation or hire?

A

According to 61.89 (a) 1,2,3

I cannot carry passengers as a student pilot. Or be paid to fly or be hired to fly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have before you fly solo?

A

According to 61.3
1.I must cary my logbook, FAA Student Pilots Certificate, At least a 3rd class medical certificate, A government photo I.D.

Additionally: TSA endorsement, Presolo aeronautical test, solo flight endorsement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the student pilot limitation’s concerning visibility in flight above clouds.

A

According to 61.89

I’ll ask the pilot must have a flight or surface visibility of at least three stand your miles during the day +5 statue miles at night. The flight must be made with visual reference to the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who has final Authority and responsibility over the operation of the aircraft when you are flying solo?

A

According to 91.3. Far: pg10

I do. I am acting as pilot in command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Discuss what preflight action concerning the airport and aircraft performance is specified in the regulations for a local flight.

A

According to 91.103

Use NWKRAFT
N: Notems
W: Weather
K: Known ATC Delays
R: Runways of intended use.
A: Alternates Available.
F: Fuel Requirements.
T: Take off and Landing Distances.

Dual:
1. 1300 Ft. Ceilings, 3 SM visibility in uncontrolled Airspace.
2. 1000 Ft. Ceilings, 3SM visibility in controlled airspace.
3. Max winds + Gusts = 25kts, Crosswind component= 15kts

Solo:
1. 1500 ft. Ceilings, 3 SM visibility in all Airspaces. Controlled and Uncontrolled.
2. Max Wind 15kts + gusts, 10 Kts Crosswind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

During engine run-up, you caused rocks, debris, and propeller blast to be directed towards another aircraft or person. Could this be considered reckless or reckless operation of an aircraft?________?

A

According to 91.13

Yes. As the pilot in command of that aircraft. You are in control of all things related to that aircraft on the preflight run-up, flight, landing, and post-flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

You may not fly as a pilot of a civil aircraft within____ hours after consumption of any alcohol beverage, or while you have a ____% by weight or more alcohol in your blood.

A

According to 91.17

You may not fly a civilian aircraft within eight hours of consuming alcohol. You must also have below a .04% blood alcohol level. This is where the phrase 8 hours bottle to throttle comes in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses?

A

According to 91.107

The PIC is responsible for ensuring the proper use of seatbelts/shoulder harnesses and that they are properly fastened before taxi takeoff and landing. Seatbelts must be one during critical phases of flight and cruise. Shoulder harnesses only have to be worn during the critical phase of flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve for Day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the fuel reserve based?

A

According to 91.151

The pilot should have enough fuel to fly to the first point of the intended landing and assuming normal cruise speed. As well as fly after that for at least 30 minutes. CTI requirements are one hour at Cruise speed. Which is usually about 6.5 gallons per hour. Plus 1 gallon for taxi and takeoff, 1 gallon for pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A transponder with mode see is required at all times in all air spaces at an above _____ Feet MSL, excluding that air space at and below _____ feet AGL.

A

According to 91.215 (I)

A transponder with mode C/ADS-B is required at all times in all air spaces at an above 10,000 feet MSL. Excluding that air space ad and below 2500 feet AGL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you’re flying solo?

A

According to 91.9 + 91.203

A - Airworthiness Certificate

R - Registration Certificate

R - Radio Station Licence ( If international)

O - Operating Limitations (Chapter 2 in Aim)

W - Weight and Balance Data ( Chapter 6 in POH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create in?

A

According to 91.111

Collision hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who has the right away when to aircraft are on final approach to land at the same time?

A

According to 91.113
The aircraft with the lower altitude has the right of way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another aircraft that is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which has the right of way? What should you do if you are flying a head on collision course with another aircraft? If another single engine aircraft is converging from the right who has the right of way?

A

According to 91.113

A) each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way and each pilot of an overtaken aircraft shall alter the course to the right to pass well clear.

B) the aircraft to others right has the right of way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitude when flying over congested and other than congested areas?

A

According to 91.119

1000 feet over congested areas, 500 feet over non congested areas.

A. congested area or over any open air assembly of two persons, an altitude of 1000 feet above the height obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft.

B. other than congested areas – an altitude of 500 feet above the surface except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If and altimeter setting is not available at the airport, which setting should you use before departing on a local flight?

A

According to 91.121

You set the altimeter to the departure airport elevation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What altitude should you use when operating under VFR in level cruising flight at more than 3000 feet AGL? And below 18,000 feet MSL?

A

According to 91.159

On a magnetic course of 0° – 179°, any odd thousand-foot MSL altitude +500 feet. (example 5,500 feet)

On a magnetic course of 180° – 159°, any even thousand-foot MSL altitude +500 feet. (example: 4,500ft.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When practicing steep turns, stalls, and maneuvering during slow flight, the entry altitude must allow recovery to be completed no lower than____feet AGL?

A

According to 91.303

1,500 Ft. AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is it go around appropriate?

A

According to PFAK 12-18

Something has entered the runway on final, aircraft not stabilized, airspeed concern, not on the centerline, a bounced landing.

Or anytime the pilot in command is unsure or does not think the Landing will go safely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the general steps you should follow after an engine failure in flight?

A

A) airspeed two best glide of 73KTS

B) look for the best place to land, and pick out a landing site.

C) follow checklist items, and perform items in an attempt to restart, if not, secure the engine/fuel and prepare for landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Aircraft Questions

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List all the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for Day VFR flight?

A

According to 91.205 (b)

Use A TOMATO FFLAMES

A – airspeed indicator
T – tachometer (for each engine)
O – oil pressure gauge (for each
engine using a pressure system)
M – manifold pressure gauge (for each altitude engine)
A – altimeter
T – temperature gauge (for each liquid-cooled engine)
O – oil temperature gauge (for each engine)
F – fuel gauge
L – landing gear position indicator
A – anti-collision lights
M – magnetic compass
E – ELT
S – safety belts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fill out the V-speed definitions and corresponding speeds for your training airplane.

A

AFM;

Vr
Vg

Vso = 34kts - Power off stall speed in the landing configuration.

Vs1 = 42kts - Power off stall speed in the standard configuration.

Vx = Best angle Climb. (T/O flaps 58kts. (cruise flaps 50kts.

Vy = Best rate of climb. T/O flaps 68. cruise 75kts.

Vfe = Max Flap exstention speed. - T/O 100kts. LDG flaps 78kts

Va = Manuvering Speed. 106kts

Vno = maximum structural cruise speed. 118kts.

Vne = Never Exceed speed. 164kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the best glide speed for your training airplane?___KIAS?

A

73KIAS

24
Q

What is the maximum allowable flap setting for take off in your aircraft?

A

15° T/O flaps

25
Q

The total usable fuel capacity for your aircraft is ____ gallons. On a standard day (seaLevel temperature, 59°F, altimeter 29.92 in. HG.) The fuel consumption rate during normal (Approximately 75% power) Cruise is ____ gallons per hour.

A

The total fuel for aircraft is 24 gallons. Fuel consumption rate is 6 gallons per hour at 75% power.

26
Q

What grade or grades of fuel can safely be used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the recommended fuels? What happens to the color of the fuel if two grades are mixed?

A

A. 100 LL – blue, never use a rating lower. Detonation + high cylnder head + high oil temps

B. AV gas 80 – read, AV gas 100 – Green, AV gas 100 LL – blue, jet-A = colorless or straw

C. Turns Clear

27
Q

The maximum oil capacity of your aircraft is ___ quarts, and the minimum oil capacity to begin a flight is ___ quarts.

A

6 quarts total. 4 quarts to fly.

28
Q

The maximum crosswind component specified by your instructed for solo takeoff and landings in the training aircraft is?

A

10 kts

29
Q

When do you use carburetor heat? What are the indications of carb icing?

A

According to PHAK 7-10

A) If carb icing conditions are suspected.

B) ???

30
Q

What is the takeoff and landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for your aircraft at your airport? Assume maximum and certified takeoff weight, 80°F, winds calm, and altimeter setting of 29.52

A

take off 2100 feet. Landing is 2064 feet.

31
Q

Port and local airspace questions

A
32
Q

What are the traffic patterns for each runway at your airport? What is the MSL altitude for traffic pattern?

A
  1. Runway 22 is a right traffic pattern.
  2. Runway 4 is a left traffic pattern.
  3. Traffic pattern altitude is 1300 MSL
33
Q

How do you enter and exit the traffic pattern at your airport? What, if any radio communications are required?

A

Because Millington is a class D airspace you need to establish two way radio communication with Millington tower on 120.250 first. Then comply with a ATC Instruction.

34
Q

What radio calls are recommended in traffic pattern at an uncontrolled airport? What radio calls are required at your airport?

A

A) Radio Calls on CTAF each leg of traffic pattern.

B) whatever ATC requests, usually to report midfield for a right downwind runway 22 or left downwind for runway 4.

35
Q

What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern? Give an example of a visual display indicating a non-standard traffic pattern.

A

A: Standard direction of turns in a traffic pattern or left turns.

B: a segmented circle indicates that the traffic pattern or non-standard.

36
Q

What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your Training airport.

A

A) CTF or the common traffic advisory frequency dash is used to carry out airport advisory Practices wall to and from an airport without a operating control tower.

B) announce position at 10 nautical miles, then five nautical miles, three nautical miles, then enter the pattern and each leg of the pattern.

37
Q

How do you determine if a runway is closed?

A

You can determine if a runway is closed by looking at the Notems, flying over the airport and checking to see if there is a large ax on the runway.

38
Q

What are the typical dimensions of class D airspace and what are the requirements must be met prior to entry?

A

According to the Aim 3-2-5 pg681. PHAK 15-2

A: airspace extends upward from the surface to 2500 feet above the airport elevation (charted an MSL). Surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower.

B: you must establish two way radio communication with a TC facility providing air traffic services or contact the control tower for that air space.

39
Q

A: What is the maximum speed permitted for an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
B: What is the maximum speed allowed in class B airspace?
C: What is the maximum speed allowed in VF our corridor through class B airspace?

A

According to 91.117

A: 250 KTS

B: 250 KTS

C: 200KTS

40
Q

If you receive a TC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate a FAR, what should you do?

A

According to the FAR91.123
You should query them. Reply to ATC that you were an able to comply and ask for an amended clearance.

41
Q

What do the following ATC light signals mean?

A

According to 91.125/AIM 736

42
Q

In flight

In-flight

Steady green light

A

According to 91.125/AIM 736
Cleared to land

43
Q

In-flight
flashing green

A

According to 91.125/AIM 736
Return for landing.
followed by a steady Green Cleared to land

44
Q

In-flight
flashing red light

A

According to 91.125/AIM 736
Airport unsafe, do not land.

45
Q

In-flight
steady red light

A

According to 91.125/AIM 736
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

46
Q

On the ground
flashing red

A

According to 91.125/AIM 736
Taxi clear of runway, in use

47
Q

On the ground
a steady green or flashing green

A

According to 91.125/AIM 736
Clear to taxi

48
Q

In addition to Equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what are the requirements, if any, must be met before a student pilot is authorized to fly solo within a class B airspace?

A

According to 61.95
The student pilot receives both ground and flight training from an authorized Instructor on that class B airspace area, + the flight training was received in the specific class B airspace. The students logbook is endorsed by the instructor who gave the training and the endorsement is dated within the 90 day period preceding the date of the flight in that class B area.

49
Q

Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirements when operating within or near a class B airspace.

A

According to 91.215
In a class B airspace. Within 30 nautical miles of a class B airspace from the surface up to 10,000 MSL.

In class B airspace (surface to 10,000 feet MSL)

50
Q

Describe class B airspace boundaries and how they apply to an airport within that airspace. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the class B boundaries. Draw a diagram if necessary.

A

According to PHAK 15-2, AIM 676
A: class B airspace is from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. And usually looks like an upside down wedding cake. Consists of Two or more layers (shelves). Ex. Memphis is five nm, surface to 10,000 feet. First shelf, 1,800ft to 10,000 ft. MSL 12 nm/16 nm. Second is 3,000ft. to 10,000’ 20 nm, third is 4,000 ft. - 10,000’ 20 nm, fourth is 5,000 feet to 10,000’ 20 NM.

You can use electronic flight book or the MFD in the aircraft and range button to see Memphis class B airport in shelves with altitude you can also use a VF our sectional. Then use pilotage and dead reckoning/points around the airspace.

51
Q

You have just called a TC just prior entering class B airspace, and the controller tells you to “squawk 2466 and Ident”. Are you now allowed to enter class B airspace without further instructions? Explain.

A

According to 91.131
No you have to receive a clearance from a TC stating that you are now cleared enter the bravo or class B airspace.

52
Q

On the sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate?

A

Class B surface air space.( Chart use Guide pg. 17.

53
Q

Explain the minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for VF our flight in class D airspace.

A

According to 91.115

3SM flight visability, Distance from clouds: 500 ft. below, 1,000ft. above, 2000ft. horizontal. 1,000ft. ceilings.

54
Q

Can a student request a special VFR clearance into Class D airspace space when the visibility is less than 3 miles? Explain your answer.

A

According to 91.157

No, the person granted the ATC clearance needs the requirements for instrument flight under part 61

55
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering class C airspace, and the controller responds with your callsign and tells you to standby, are you now allowed to enter this air space with out any further instructions? Explain

A

According to 91.130
For a class C airspace you only need to establish two way radio communication. So yes, because they said your callsign they are acknowledging you. That has established two way radio communication.

56
Q

Describe the typical dimensions of class C airspace. Is participation in radar services mandatory within the outer area of classy airspace?

A

According to AIM 678 3-2-4

A: air space from the surface to 4000 feet AGL charted in MSL consists of five nautical mile radius up to 4000 feet AGL, and a 10 nautical mile radius shelf at 1200 AGL to 4000 AGL.

B: not in outer 20 nautical mile radius area, but is recommended for a class C airspace.

57
Q

Describe the classy boundaries that affects your airport or nearby airport. Explain how you can use navigational equipment and or ground reference points to identifier class C airspace inner con surface area and shelf area as well as outer area.

A

A: KLIT: 5nm Surface to 4300msl, 10nm 1800-4300 msl, 2100-4300 msl.

B: Use Ipad or airplace MFD, Sectional Map+pilotage for ground points.