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PREVMED 1 > Prevmed 1 > Flashcards

Prevmed 1 Flashcards

1
Q

who appoints the PIC and how?

A
  • The food establishment manager

- in writing

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2
Q

what knowledge must the PIC demonstrate?

A
  • Food borne disease prevention
  • application of HACCP
  • requirements of the Tri-service food code
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3
Q

who ensures that food operations are not being conducted in a private room or in a room used as sleeping quarters?

A

PIC

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4
Q

who ensures that employees are properly cooking TCS foods?

A

PIC

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5
Q

what are symptoms that employees are required to report?

A
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • Jaundice
  • sore throat with fever
  • lesions containing pus
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6
Q

what does it mean to Exclude someone?

A

not allowed to work in the food establishment at all

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7
Q

What does it mean to Restrict someone?

A

they may not work with food or any clean utensils at all

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8
Q

what DIAGNOSED illness do you restrict if they do not serve a highly susceptible population?

A
  • Norovirus
  • Shigella
  • EHEC
  • STEC
  • Sore throat with Fever
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9
Q

you must exclude employees who have what symptoms?

A
  • Vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • jaundice
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10
Q

when to reinstate and employee who had Norovirus

A
  • written clearance from medical

- 48 hours symptom free

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11
Q

when to reinstate an employee who had Jaundice with other symptoms:

A
  • written documentation from medical that they do not have Hep A
  • 14 days
  • regulatory authority approval
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12
Q

when to reinstate and employee who had only jaundice as a symptom

A
  • written clearance from medical
  • 7 days
  • regulatory authority approval
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13
Q

when to reinstate and employee who had Salmonella Typhi

A
  • cleared by medical with 3 negative stool cultures
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14
Q

what is the process to clear someone of S. Typhi?

A
  • 3 negative stool cultures
  • 1 month after onset
  • 48 hours after antibiotics finish
  • 24 hours apart
  • restart if one is positive
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15
Q

when to reinstate and employee who had Shigella

A
  • 7 days asymptomatic

- 2 negative stool samples (24 hours apart)

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16
Q

when to reinstate and employee who had ETEC or STEC

A
  • 7 days asymptomatic

- 2 negative stool samples (24 hours apart)

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17
Q

when to reinstate and employee who had a sore throat with a fever

A
  • antibiotics for more than 24 hours
  • negative throat culture for strep
  • health practitioner deemed free of strep infection
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18
Q

when to reinstate and employee who had a lesion or boil

A
  • if on the arm then it must be covered with an impermeable covering
  • dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage if on any other part
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19
Q

Must be excluded for how long if exposed to ETEC?

A

3 days since last exposure

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20
Q

Must be restricted for how long if exposed to Shigella?

A

3 days since last exposure

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21
Q

Must be excluded for how long if exposed to STEC?

A

3 days since last exposure

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22
Q

Must be excluded for how long if exposed to Salmonella Typhi

A

more than 14 days since they had been exposed last

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23
Q

Must be excluded for how long if exposed to Hep A

A
  • they are medically immune

- 30 days since last exposure

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24
Q

how long must you wash your hands?

A

20 seconds

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25
Q

when must employees wash their hands?

A
  • after using the bathroom
  • after smoking
  • after handling animals
  • after using soiled utensils
  • before donning gloves
  • sneezing, coughing, eating and drinking
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26
Q

what requirements must be met to have hand sanitizer in a kitchen

A
  • FDA monogram

- Be 60% Ethyl Alcohol

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27
Q

how do you clean a “Hand dip” soap pump?

A

with a sanitizer of at least 100Miligrams per liter of chlorine

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28
Q

how long may fingernails be for food employees?

A

1/4 inch past the fingertip

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29
Q

what jewelry may be worn by a food employee?

A

Plain ring such as a wedding band

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30
Q

what must an employee ensure when tasting a recipe

A
  • using a clean/sanitized utensil or single use utensil

- taste away from to food

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31
Q

what are the five CDC foodborne risk factors

A
  • Food from unsafe sources
  • Inadequate cooking
  • Improper holding time/temp
  • contaminated equipment/cross contamination
  • poor personal hygiene
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32
Q

how often must refresher training be conducted?

A

every 12 months

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33
Q

how long must the annual training be?

A

4 hours total

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34
Q

what are the instruction numbers for the PIC certification?

A
  • OPNAVINST 4061.4

- MCO 4061.1

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35
Q

for temporary employees (Less than 30 days) what amount of training is required?

A

2 hours of initial training

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36
Q

how long is the PIC certification good for? (OPNAVINST 4061.4)

A

5 years

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37
Q

how much training should non-food employees receive before assisting in galley operations

A

4 hour initial training.

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38
Q

all food training records should be:

A
  • maintained at the food establishment that employee works at
  • available on request
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39
Q

who approves game animals ante-mortem and post-mortem?

A

Vet techs

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40
Q

what temperature must PHF be stored at?

A

41 degrees F

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41
Q

raw eggs must be received at what temperature?

A

45 degrees F or lower

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42
Q

Hot PHF foods must be received at what temp?

A

135 degrees F

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43
Q

what information must be on a shellstock tag?

A
  • harvesters ID number
  • Date of harvesting
  • Most accurate harvesting location
  • type and quantity of shellfish
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44
Q

how long must you retain shellstock tags?

A

90 days

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45
Q

what must commercially processed juice must be

A
  • obtained from a plant with a HACCP plan

- be pasteurized and attain a 5-log reduction

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46
Q

what foods must employees not touch with bare hands?

A

RTE foods

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47
Q

what strength of bleach is used to wash any FF&V and for how long?

A
  • 5-6%
  • 50-200 PPM
  • at least 1 minute
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48
Q

how often must wet wiping cloths be laundered?

A

daily

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49
Q

how must dry wiping cloths be kept?

A

Free of food debris and visible soil

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50
Q

when must you discard single use gloves?

A
  • soiled
  • changing tasks
  • break in operations
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51
Q

what requirement must all single use gloves meet?

A
  • non latex

- powder free

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52
Q

what requirements must be met for food storeage?

A
  • Clean, Dry location
  • not exposed to splash, dust or other contamination
  • at least 6” off the floor
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53
Q

what specific locations must food NOT be stored in?

A
  • locker rooms
  • toilet rooms
  • dressing rooms
  • garbage rooms
  • mechanical rooms
  • under sewer lines
  • under open stairwells
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54
Q

what is the maximum size container of milk that may be provided to a customer?

A

16floz (1pint)

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55
Q

definition of a foodborne illness

A

illness transmitted to people via food

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56
Q

food borne illness outbreak definition:

A

an incident where 2 or more people experience the same illness after eating the same food

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57
Q

foodborne infection definition:

A

an illness caused by consuming food that contained living disease-causing microorganism

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58
Q

foodborne intoxication definition:

A

illness caused by consuming food containing a toxin or hazardous chemical

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59
Q

toxin-mediated infection:

A

illness caused by consuming food containing a live pathogenic organism that produces a toxin

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60
Q

Bacterial characteristics:

A
  • living, single celled organism
  • many types, found everywhere
  • most are not harmful
  • pathogenic typed cause illness
  • reproduces under favorable conditions
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61
Q

Types of bacteria:

A
  • spore forming

- non-spore forming

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62
Q

Characteristics of spore forming bacteria:

A
  • commonly found in soils
  • build a wall to protect themselves
  • can survive cooking and freezing
  • cannot be destroyed
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63
Q

Characteristics of non spore forming bacteria

A
  • vegetative cells

- easily destroyed with proper cooking

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64
Q

illnesses caused by spore forming bacteria:

A
  • Clostridium perfringes
  • Bacillus cereus
  • Clostridium Botulinum
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65
Q

non-spore forming bacteria

A
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Salmonella spp
  • Shigella spp
  • Staphylococcus spp
  • vibrio
  • E.Coli
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66
Q

Characteristics of viruses:

A
  • requires a living host
  • smallest microbe contaminant
  • common cause is poor personal hygiene
  • one prevention method is to minimize bae hand and arm contact
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67
Q

illnesses caused by viruses

A
  • Hep A

- Norovirus (Norowalk)

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68
Q

types of foodborne parasites:

A
  • Anisakis

- Trichinella

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69
Q

Types of Fungi in food:

A
  • Mold

- Yeast

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70
Q

Characteristics of mold:

A
  • spoiled food
  • can cause illness
  • not destroyed by freezing
  • grows well with low acidity and water
  • can produce aflatoxin
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71
Q

Characteristics of yeast:

A
  • can spoil food
  • appears reddish/pink
  • may be slimy and have bubbles
  • may smell or taste of alcohol
  • grows well in low water activity (jams, jellys)
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72
Q

what is the onset time for Cigatoxin?

A

30 min - 6 hours

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73
Q

what does FATTOM stand for?

A
  • food
  • acidity
  • time
  • temperature
  • oxygen
  • moisture
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74
Q

what acidity level do microorganisms best reproduce in?

A

4.6 - 7.5

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75
Q

what are the limits of the temperature danger zone?

A

41 - 135 degrees F

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76
Q

How often can microorganisms double their population?

A

Every 20 minutes

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77
Q

Aerobic:

A

Needs oxygen to live

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78
Q

Anaerobic:

A

Does not need oxygen to survive

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79
Q

what are the two most critical food elements that you can control?

A
  • Time

- Temperature

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80
Q

what ae the 4 phases of bacteriological growth?

A
  • Lag
  • Log
  • Stationary
  • Decline
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81
Q

what temperature at a minimum must you cook raw animal foods at?

A

145 degrees F

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82
Q

what temperature do you cook; fish, meat, commercial game animals at?

A

155 degrees F

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83
Q

what temperature do you cook poultry, balut, wild game and stuffed meats at?

A

165 degrees F

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84
Q

When cooking with a microwave what internal temperature must be achieved and for how long?

A

165 for 2 minutes

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85
Q

what temperature do you store something at to destroy a parasite and for how long?

A
  • 4 degrees F for 7 days (168 hours)

- 31 degrees F for 15 hours

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86
Q

when reheating food what temperature must you reach?

A

165 degrees F

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87
Q

what are some signs of refreezing?

A
  • Ice Crystals
  • wet packaging
  • Product is decolored
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88
Q

what are the specifics when thawing PHF in a sink.

A
  • water temp must be 70 degrees or below

- water must be running

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89
Q

how long do you have to cool food down to save as left overs?

A

6 hours total

90
Q

when cooling down food to be saved as left overs what temperature must you reach in the first 2 hours?

A

70 degrees F

91
Q

when cooling down food to be saved as left overs what temperature must you reach in the last 4 hours?

A

70 down to 41 degrees F

92
Q

what are some methods you can use for cooling?

A
  • placing food in a shallow pan
  • separating the food into smaller portions
  • rapid cooling equipment
  • placing the container in an icewater bath
  • adding ice as an ingredient
93
Q

what temperature must be maintained for hot holding?

A

135 degrees F

94
Q

what temperature must be maintained for cold holding?

A

41 degrees F

95
Q

how long can PHF leftovers be retained and at what temperature?

A

72 hours

41 degrees

96
Q

can you freeze leftovers?

A

NO

97
Q

what are some characteristics of materials used in a kitchen?

A
  • safe
  • durable, corrosion-resistant
  • can withstand repeated ware washing
  • smooth cleanable surface
  • resistant to chipping, scratching and decomposition
98
Q

what is the maximum limit for lead in food contact surfaces?

A

solder lead must be under 0.2

99
Q

what is the limitation for using copper as a food contact surface?

A

cannot come in contact with a food that has a ph below 6

100
Q

how accurate must your thermometers be?

A

within +/- 2 degrees F (+/-1C)

101
Q

what is meant to prevent grease and condensation from dripping onto food

A

ventilation hoods

102
Q

for manual washing what temp do you need to meet for heat sanitization?

A

171 degrees F

103
Q

what is considered “alternate manual ware washing”

A

2 compartment sink

104
Q

what compartments of the 3 compartment sink must be frequently monitored with a thermometer?

A

wash

sanitize

105
Q

what do you need when using chemical sanitization?

A

Test kit or other testing device to measure concentration of sanitizing solutions.

106
Q

how high off the table must table mounted equipment be?

A

4”

107
Q

how high off the floor must equipment be mounted?

A

6”

108
Q

who can authorize the use of non NSF authorized equipment?

A

Regulatory authority

109
Q

when using iodine in a sanitizing solution what temp must the water be?

A

68 degrees F

110
Q

what must the temperature of the WASH solution be?

A

110 degrees F

111
Q

what must the temp of the RINSE solution be?

A

120 degrees

112
Q

what must the concentration and temperature be for chemical sanitization using chlorine?

A

50-100 PPM
(1oz of bleach per 4 gallons of water)
75 degrees F

113
Q

what specifications do you calibrate thermometers to?

A

Manufactures specifications

114
Q

how often do you clean ice machines?

A

30 days

115
Q

how often do you change ice machine filters?

A
  • manufacturer recommendation

- every 6 months

116
Q

how often must you clean iced tea dispencers?

A

every 24 hours

117
Q

how often do you change out consumer self service utensils?

A

every 8 hours

118
Q

how often do you launder wet wiping cloths?

A

Daily

119
Q

how do you dry equipment and utensils?

A

Air Dry

120
Q

how do you store equipment and utensils?

A
  • 6” off the floor
  • not exposed to dust, splashing, other contamination
  • clean, dry location
  • covered or inverted
121
Q

what can be an approved water source?

A
  • a public water source

- a non-public water source that is constructed, maintained and and operated according to law.

122
Q

what can non drinking water be used for?

A

non culinary uses like air conditioning, fire protection

123
Q

who is responsible for ensuring chlorine bulk potable water is tested daily?

A

Food service manager

124
Q

what temperature range must hand washing sinks meet?

A

100 - 120 degrees F

125
Q

how big must an air gap be?

A

Twice the diameter of the water supply inlet but not less than 1 inch

126
Q

what must waste receptacles be?

A
  • durable
  • cleanable
  • insect/rodent resistant
  • leak proof
  • nonabsorbent
127
Q

what kind of hand drying devices are allowed in a food establishment?

A
  • individual disposable towels

- heated-air hand drying device (if single use towels are also provided)

128
Q

what spaces require a minimum of 108 Lux (10 foot candles)

A
  • walk in refers/freezers

- dry storage

129
Q

what spaces require 215 Lux (20 foot candles)

A
  • location where food is provided for customer self service
  • inside reach-in refers
  • warewashing, handwashing and equipment/utensil storage
130
Q

what spaces require 540 Lux (50 foot candles)

A
  • locations where employees are working with PHF, knives, grinders, saws or other equipment where safety is a factor
131
Q

what class of fire extinguisher is required to be in a kitchen

A

class B

132
Q

what is the preferred method of storing mops?

A

Head down

133
Q

what are some ways to control pests and prevent them?

A
  • routinely inspect incoming shipments for pests
  • routinely inspect spaces for pests
  • first in first out method (FIFO)
134
Q

how can you identify a cockroach infestation?

A
  • strong oily odor
  • droppings (pepper like appearance)
  • egg casings appear brown, black or maroon
135
Q

what is the most common cockroach in food establishments?

A

German cockroach

136
Q

what fly is most likely to spread disease?

A

House Fly

137
Q

what fly can be identified by their metallic blue/green bodies?

A

blow fly

138
Q

what is a container that holds chemicals but it not the original container?

A

working container

139
Q

what is limiting chemicals in an establishment to only allowing those needed for day to day operations?

A

Restriction

140
Q

what can be used as a tracking powder in a food establishment?

A

nontoxic powder such as talcum or flower

141
Q

what is required at a minimum for field galley operations?

A

Hand washing sink

142
Q

what are some ways to dispose of liquid waste from a field galley?

A
  • soakage
  • pit
  • trench
  • grease traps
143
Q

how do you dispose of solid waste from a field kitchen?

A
  • bury
  • incinerate
  • return to forward supply point
  • dispose per local requirements
144
Q

who will develop the medical screening for foodservice workers in the field?

A

the senior surgeon/unit surgeon

145
Q

how far must a field serving area be from the toilets/latrines?

A

100 yards (300 feet)

146
Q

how far must a field galley be from sleeping quarters and bodies of water?

A

30 yards (90feet)

147
Q

when must field galley employees wear single use gloves and change them after every task?

A

when only waterless handwashing is available

148
Q

at what locations must medical check residual chlorine in a field galley?

A
  • bulk storage
  • furthest point from bulk connection
  • ice machine
149
Q

who is responsible for testing water at each bulk water delivery?

A

food operation manager

150
Q

what is the minimum that field galley water needs to be tested?

A

daily

- multiple times daily if in hot climate

151
Q

how often must field food managers inspect for insects?

A

daily

152
Q

when cleaning FF&V in the field with hot water what temp and time must you submerge them for?

A

140 degrees F for 1 minute

153
Q

who is considered to be “at risk population”?

A
  • those immunocompromised
  • food locations that provide custodial care, health care, assisted living
  • military personnel afloat or deployed
154
Q

who is the medical authority?

A

the commander of the local MTF or tactical unit whos authority is above prevmed/public health

155
Q

DD for m 2972

A

Food risk assessment survey

156
Q

DD 2973

A

food operation inspection report

157
Q

DD 2974

A

Tactical kitchen inspection report

158
Q

DD 2971

A

conditional employee reporting agreement

159
Q

types of inspections

A
  • pre operational
  • routine
  • complaint
  • follow-up
  • walk through
160
Q

inspection ratings:

A
  • fully compliant
  • substantially compliant
  • partially compliant
  • non-compliant
161
Q

what is fully compliant?

A

No Deficiencies

162
Q

What is Substantially compliant?

A
  • No IHH
  • 2 or less Cos critical hits
  • 5 or less non critical findings
163
Q

Partially compliant

A
  • no IHH
  • 3 or more Cos critical findings
  • 6 or more non critical findings
164
Q

non- compliant

A
  • IHH is present

- any critical findings not Cos

165
Q

what do italicized words mean on a food survey

A
  • not a requirement

- involve the words; should, except for, may, need not

166
Q

how are critical hits identified on the DD 2973?

A

marked with an asterisk

167
Q

how are swing provisions marked on a DD 2973?

A
  • with a letter “S”

- swing hits can be either critical or non critical depending on circumstances

168
Q

what is a vector?

A

any arthropod or rodent that is capable of transmitting disease

169
Q

what is a host?

A

individual whos potentially susceptible to illness

170
Q

what is a reservoir?

A

organism where the agent lives and multiplies

- acts as an intermediate host

171
Q

what are the functions of a navy entomologist?

A
  • on-site consultation
  • technical assistance
  • recommendations
  • conducts training for certifications
  • be weird
  • reviews and evaluates shipboard pest management
172
Q

what instruction governs the DOD pest management program?

A

DOD Directive 4150.07

173
Q

what instruction minimizes the use of pesticides for the navy and MC when non-chemical methods are available?

A

OPNAVINST 6250.4C

174
Q

shipboard pest manual instruction number:

A

NAVMED P-5052-26

175
Q

who standardizes the use of pesticides and equipment recommended by BUMED?

A

NAVSEASYSCOM

176
Q

who monitors and evaluates the shipboard pest management program?

A

BUMED

177
Q

who Develops and provides shipboard pest management training?

A

BUMED

178
Q

what role does the SMDR have in the pest management program?

A
  • procure approved pest control supplies/equipment
  • record all pest management activities
  • report pest management to higher authority
179
Q

what are the three pesticide standards?

A
  • Restricted
  • unrestricted
  • nonstandard
180
Q

Restricted pesticides:

A
  • used only by trained pesticide applicators

- all EPA restricted use pesticides

181
Q

Unrestricted pesticides:

A
  • available without control through military supply system

- does NOT require special training

182
Q

non standard pesticides

A
  • must be approved by local Entomologist prior to use
183
Q

Acaricides control:

A
  • mites
  • scorpions
  • spiders
  • ticks
184
Q

Fungicides control:

A

fungus

185
Q

herbicides control:

A

Plants

186
Q

Insecticides control:

A

insects

187
Q

insecticides can be divided into what categories?

A
  • adulticide
  • larvicide
  • ovicide
188
Q

Molluscicide controls:

A

Mollusks (Snails)

189
Q

Rodenticides control:

A

Rodents

190
Q

what kind of pesticide contains Phosphours?

A

Organophosphates

191
Q

what are the modes of entry for pesticides?

A
  • stomach poisons
  • contact poisons
  • fumigants
192
Q

what are the different formulation that pesticides are prepared in?

A
  • oil solution
  • emulsions
  • suspensions
  • dusts
  • granules
193
Q

“DANGER” is means what?

A
  • Skull and crossbones
  • highly toxic
  • antidote statement
194
Q

“CAUTION” means:

A
  • no antidote statement

- slightly toxic

195
Q

“WARNING” means:

A
  • no antidote statement

- moderately toxic

196
Q

what words must all pesticides have on them?

A

“keep out of reach of children”

197
Q

who must approve all respirators?

A

NIOSH

198
Q

when must respirator filters be changed?

A
  • every 8 hours of use

- 4 hours of use during heave spraying

199
Q

what eye pro will you wear when using pesticides?

A

Unvented or indirectly vented goggles

or a faceshield

200
Q

what head covering do you wear during pesticide application?

A
  • hard hats

- wide brimmed waterproof hat if drifting is a factor

201
Q

what is required for hand protection when applying pesticides?

A

Gloves must cover the wrist and be tested for leaks daily

202
Q

what pesticide causes irreversible damage to the nervous system?

A

Organophosphates

203
Q

what pesticide causes reversible damage nerve damage?

A

Carbamate Poisoning

204
Q

what do all spill kits include?

A
  • shovel
  • absorbent material
  • leakproof barrel
  • detergent and water
  • PPE
205
Q

what is the first thing you need to do when you have a hazmat spill?

A

Confine the spill

206
Q

who do you report all pest management activities to and how often?

A

NECE (Navy Entomology Center of Excellence)

monthly

207
Q

what do you use to report pest management activities?

A

e-DD1532-1

208
Q

what are the 3 types of lice?

A
  • Body louse
  • Head louse
  • Crab louse
209
Q

what louse is typically found on pubic hair and eyebrows?

A

Crab louse

210
Q

what louse attaches its nits to clothing?

A

Body louse

211
Q

what steps do you need to take to rid yourself of a louse infestation?

A
  • wash cloths in 100 degree water to prevent nits from hatching
  • insecticidal ointments such as Elimite
  • wash all combs and brushes with hot soapy water
212
Q

what cockroach is identified by two black stripes or “lieutenant bars” on its dorsal plate?

A

German cockroach

213
Q

brown- banded cockroach characteristics:

A
  • mostly found in hotels and libraries
  • has two yellow bands near the base of its adult wings
  • female produces 10 egg capsules in a lifetime (15 eggs per)
214
Q

American cockroach Characteristics:

A
  • 35mm long
  • anterior dorsal plate has yellow boarder strip
  • female produces 34 egg capsules in a lifetime (15 eggs per)
  • they live in filthy environments
215
Q

how often must a vector survey be conducted?

A

every 2 weeks

216
Q

types of Stored product pests:

A
  • saw tooth grain beetle
  • confused beetle/red flour beetle
  • dermestid beetle
  • indian meal moth
  • rice weevil
217
Q

indian meal moth characteristics:

A
  • less common than beetles
  • females lay 100-300 eggs
  • 6 to 8 weeks from egg to adult
  • grayish band on upper 1/3 of wing
  • larva spin a “web”
218
Q

Dermestid beetle characteristics:

A
  • Medically important
  • if found then whole lot must be condemned
    larvae are resistant to starvation
219
Q

Rice Weevil

A
  • most destructive pest
  • has a long “beak”
  • has 2 yellow/red spots on wing casings
220
Q

when under way how often do you inspect for infestation?

A

every 2 weeks

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