Primary Healthcare Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Define Catheterisation

A

Passing of a urethral catheter into the bladder, by the urethral or supra-pubic route, for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons

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2
Q

What are the indications for Catheterisation

A

Need to monitor urine output (Fluid Balance)
Unable to pass urine
Pelvic or Abdominal Injuries
Head Injuries
Post Anaesthetic
Unmanageable incontinence

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3
Q

What are the contraindications of Catheterisation

A

Severe Pelvic Trauma
Urethral Bleeding

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4
Q

What Equiptment is required for Catheterisation

A

PPE
Cleaning Solution
Gauze Swabs
Sterile Towels
Foley Catheter
10ml Syringe Sterile Water
Lubricant containing anaesthetic
Closed Drainage System
Tape

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5
Q

What are the 3 Complications of Catheterisation

A

Damaged urethra
Ureteric Catheterisation (Not far enough in)
Local UTI

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6
Q

What are the 4 Waste Management Principles

A

Waste Producer is responsible for ensuring waste can be safely disposed of by others in the disposal system
Waste segregated at point of disposal
clinical waste must be incinerated
non-clinical waste disposed of at landfill

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7
Q

What are the 3 common types of waste

A

Domestic Waste
Non-Clinical Dangerous Waste
Clinical Waste

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8
Q

Define Clinical Waste and give examples

A

Waste Generated from treatment or nursing care of patients.

Soiled dressings
Material from patients with infectious diseases
Blood, bodily fluids and their containers

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9
Q

What are 6 reasons why equipment fails?

A

Inadequate level of operator skill
Poor servicing, maintenance or standards of inspection.
Age / other slow deterioration.
Defects.
Neglect, misuse, damage.
Wear and Tear.

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10
Q

What are the 5 basic principles of Equipment care?

A

Commitment- from the top down, Commanders and operators taking responsibility for the kit.
Correct Usage- Understanding capabilities and limitations.
Tools, Supporting Equipment and documentation - All must be used correctly.

Understand its purpose- All must have a good knowledge of what kit does and why its used to effectively maintain it.

Understand consequences of poor practice.

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11
Q

What are 3 responsibilities of an equipment user?

A

Pre, during, and post use checks using an MOD Form 373
Competent and trained to use it
Report any faults.

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12
Q

What would an FMED 993 be used for?

A

Maintenance request

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13
Q

What would an FMED 767 be used for?

A

Infection Clearance Certificate

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14
Q

What would an FMED 600 or 661 be used for?

A

Consent for medical / dental investigations, treatments or operations.

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14
Q

Which FMED and Mod form are used for Defence Spectacles?

A

FMed 79 and Mod Form 1003

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15
Q

What does the FOI Act 2000 allow access to?

A

Access to recorded information held by public bodies in England

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16
Q

What are the principles of data protection

A

Used Fairly, lawfully and transparently.
Used for Specified, explicit purposes.
Used in a way that is adequate, limited and relevant.
Accurate and (If required) up to date
Kept for no longer than necessary
Handled in a way that ensures appropriate security.

17
Q

Define Medical Confidentiality

A

Statutory and professional duty to Safeguard personal information by preventing improper disclosure.

Personal information about people which hcps learn professionally and from which individuals can be identified.

18
Q

What are the 8 Caldicott Principles

A

Justify Purpose for using confidential information

Use confidential information only when necessary

Use minimum necessary patient identifiable information.

Access to patient identifiable information should be strictly need to know.

Everyone with access to confidential information should be made aware of their responsibilities.

Comply with the law

Duty to share information can be as important as duty to protect confidentiality.

Inform service user about how their confidential information is used.

19
Q

What is an Fmed 5 Used for?

A

Attendance and treatment card.
Used to document history and examination
All Treatment and examinations must adhere to PHC protocols.

20
Q

What is an FMED 965 Used for?

A

Deployed personnel, containing all the information from DMICP.

21
Q

Which document covers all aspects of service medical employment standards?

22
Q

What is PULHHEEMS

A

A functional assessment of the individuals capacity for work.
Expresses the physical and mental attributes appropriate to the individuals employment and fitness to deploy.

23
Q

What are the 3 JMES

A

Joint Medical Employment Standards.

MFD
MLD
MND

24
What Information is required when requesting a specimen?
Patients name and ward / department Hospital / Service number Date and time of collection Diagnosis Relevant signs and symptoms. Relevant travel Anti-microbial drugs being taken by patient. Type of specimen Consultant / Dr name Name of Dr who ordered investigation.
25
What 5 things are required for specimen transportation?
Leak Proof Container. Placed in a double sealing bag. Transported in container, with crystals to absorb spillages. Biohazard labels and double bagged if required for infectious conditions. Biohazard Spill kit.
26
What is the definition of the Healthcare Assurance Framework?
Framework through which individuals and healthcare delivery units are accountable for continually improving the quality of their services. Safeguarding high standards or care by creating the environment in which excellence in clinical care will flourish.
27
What is the ethos of the Healthcare Assurance Framework?
Ensuring patients receive the highest standards of care in a facilitative environment within an open and fair culture.
28
What are the 5 domains of Healthcare Assurance?
Safe Effective Caring Responsive Well Led
29
Who is responsible for reporting an accident?
The line manager / individual in charge of the area or activity where incident occured.
30
With regard to manual handling, what is TILE?
Task Individual Capabilities Load Environment
31
What are the 4 stages in the chain of survival?
Early recognition and call for help- to prevent cardiac arrest. Early CPR to buy time. Early Defibrillation to restart the heart. Post resuscitation care to restore quality of life.
32
What are the 4 common heart rhythms, and which are shockable?
Normal Sinus Rhythm (Not shockable) Ventricular Fibrillation (Shockable) Ventricular Tachycardia (Shockable) Asystole (Not Shockable)
33
What is Pulseless Electrical Activity?
Absence of cardiac output despite electrical activity that would normally be expected to produce output.
34
What 4Hs are reversible causes of cardiac arrest?
Hypoxia (Low oxygen) Hypovolaemia (Low Blood volume) Hyper/Hypo Kalaemia (Potassium levels) Hypothermia (Low core temperature)
35
What 4 Ts are reversible causes of Cardiac arrest?
Thrombosis- a blood clot Tension Pneumothorax- Air in the chest compressing the heart so it can't beat effectively Toxins- Poisoning Tamponade- Blood filling the pericardial sack, meaning the heart is compressed and can't beat effectively.
36
What size OPAs are used for Large and Very large Adults?
Large -3 V Large - 4
37
What are 3 contraindications for using an OPA?
Lock jaw Conscious Casualty Severe facial trauma
38
What are 3 contraindications for using an NPA
Severe Nasal trauma Basal Skull Fracture Nasal Polyps
39
In Mental Health, what are the 7Rs
Recognition of the reaction Respite from the worst of the fighting. Rest Recall their tales Reassure that the reaction is normal Rehab- keep in role Return to duty
40
In Mental Health, What does PIES Stand for?
Proximity- as close to front as possible. Immediacy- ASAP Expectancy- they will return to duty Simplicity- utilising the 7Rs