Prince2 Foundation Flashcards by Stephanie Ojinta

Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed?

a) Accuracy
b) Reliability
c) Scope
d) Ease of use

c) One of the six aspects, together with costs, timescales, quality, risk and
benefits. Ref 1.5.2

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What theme ensures the project is desirable, viable and achievable?

a) Organization
b) Progress
c) Business Case
d) Risk

c) Correct. The Business Case theme drives decision-making throughout the project and is
used to assess if the project remains viable and benefits can be realized. Ref 4.1

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What process is triggered by the Project Manager’s request to initiate a project?

a) Starting up a Project
b) Initiating a Project
c) Directing a Project
d) Managing a Stage Boundary

c) Correct. Only the Project Board can authorize project initiation, and its activities are
covered in the Directing a Project process

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The purpose of what theme is to establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual
achievements against those planned?
a) Business Case
b) Change
c) Progress
d) Quality

c) Correct. The purpose of the Progress theme is to establish mechanisms to monitor and
compare actual achievements against those planned; provide a forecast for the project
objectives and the project’s continued viability, and control any unacceptable deviations.
Ref 10.1

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Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?

a) Check that all the project’s products have been accepted by the users
b) Prepare for the final stage of the project
c) Capture the customer’s quality expectations
d) Ensure that all benefits have been achieved

a) Correct. To verify user acceptance of a project’s products. Ref 18.2

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Identify the missing words in the following sentence.
A purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process is to provide the Project Board with
sufficient information so that it can approve the [ ? ] for the next stage.
a) Work Packages
b) Exception Report
c) Stage Plan
d) Project Brief

c) Correct. A purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process is to provide sufficient
information to the Project Board, so that it can review the success of the current stage
and approve the next Stage Plan. Ref 17.1

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What theme provides information on what is required, how it will be achieved and by whom?

a) Organization
b) Plans
c) Business Case
d) Quality

b) Correct. Planning provides all personnel in a project with information on what is required,
how it will be achieved and by whom, using what specialist equipment and resources,
when events will happen and whether targets are achievable. Ref 7.1

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Which is recommended as a possible risk response type for an opportunity?

a) Reduce
b) Transfer
c) Reject
d) Fallback

c) Correct. Reject is where a conscious and deliberate decision is taken NOT to exploit or
enhance an opportunity, having discerned that this is more economical than to attempt
an opportunity response action. Ref Table 8.2

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Basing projects on a ‘management by exception’ principle provides which benefit?

a) Promotes consistency of project work and staff mobility
b) Provides a common language
c) Clarity of what a project will deliver, why, when and by whom
d) Efficient and cost-effective use of management time

d) Correct. PRINCE2 is based on a ‘management by exception’ framework, providing for
efficient and economic use of management time (whether at corporate, programme,
Project Board or project management level). It reduces their time burden without
removing their control by ensuring decisions are made at the right level in the
organization. Ref 1.7 / 2.5

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Identify the missing words in the following sentence.
The purpose of the [ ? ] process is to establish solid foundations for the project, enabling the
organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project’s products.
a) Initiating a Project
b) Starting up a Project
c) Directing a Project
d) Managing a Stage Boundary

a) Correct. The purpose of the Initiating a Project process is to establish solid foundations
for the project, enabling the organization to understand the work that needs to be done
to deliver the project’s products before committing to a significant spend. Ref 14.1

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Which is a purpose of the Managing Product Delivery process?

a) Controls the link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s)
b) Tracks the progress of a stage with the help of Checkpoint Reports
c) Provides a link between the work of the Project Manager and the Project Board
d) Maintains a focus on the delivery of benefits throughout the stage

a) Correct. The Managing Product Delivery process places formal requirements on
accepting, executing and delivering project work. Ref 16.1

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Which role is responsible for authorizing and monitoring work to be completed and for taking
corrective action within a stage?
a) Project Manager
b) Project Support
c) Project Assurance
d) Team Manager

a) Correct. The Project Manager is responsible for controlling the day-to-day activities of
the stage. Ref 15.3

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Which fact is true of Project Assurance but not quality assurance?

a) Responsible for monitoring the conduct of the project
b) Independent of the Project Manager
c) Appointed as part of the project management team
d) Responsible for reviewing the project for compliance with corporate standards

c) Correct. Quality assurance is a function within the organization. Project Assurance is a
temporary role within the project management team. Ref 6.2.6

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Which is NOT a characteristic of a project?
a) Has a higher degree of risk than business as usual
b) Involves people with different skills introducing a change that will impact others outside of the
team
c) Has a lifespan that usually covers the delivery of the desired outcomes and the realization of
all the expected benefits
d) A temporary management structure created for the implementation of business products

c) Correct. These are characteristics of a programme. Whilst projects do deliver outcomes
and benefits, many will NOT be realized until after the project has closed. Ref 19.4

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What product forms the 'contract' between the Project Manager and the Project Board for the
project?
a) Project Plan
b) Project Product Description
c) Project Initiation Documentation
d) Project Brief

c) Correct. The Project Initiation Documentation forms the basis for the management and
overall success of the project and as such is the ‘contract’ between the Project Manager
and the Project Board. Ref A.20

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Which is an objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process?

a) Enable the Project Board to commit resources and expenditure required for the initiation stage
b) Review and, if necessary, update the Project Initiation Documentation
c) Provides a break between those managing the project from those creating products
d) Ensure a periodic review is held to approve the products created within the completed stage

b) Correct. Review and, if necessary, update the Project Initiation Documentation (in
particular the Business Case, Project Plan, project approach, strategies, project
management team structure and role descriptions). Ref 17.2

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How should a Team Manager escalate a suggestion for an improvement to a product?

a) Include details in a Checkpoint Report
b) Include details in a Highlight Report
c) Raise an issue
d) Raise an Exception Report

c) Correct. A Team Manager will raise it as an issue, but it is the Project Manager who
determines whether this should be dealt with as a formal Issue Report. Ref 9.3.3

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Which is a purpose of the Closing a Project process?

a) Define the procedure for handing over products
b) Provide a fixed point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed
c) Define formal requirements for the acceptance, execution and delivery of project work
d) Confirm all project benefits have been achieved

b) Correct. This is a purpose of the Closing a Project process. Ref 18.1

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Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?

a) Confirm there are no known restrictions that would prevent the project from being delivered
b) Ensure all Team Managers understand their responsibilities
c) Get approval for the Project Plan from corporate or programme management
d) Prepare the Project Initiation Documentation for authority to initiate the project

a) Correct. An objective of the Starting up a Project process is to ensure time is NOT
wasted on initiating any projects that are based on unsound constraints etc. Ref 12.2

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What process is used to provide an interface with corporate or programme management?

a) Managing Product Delivery
b) Directing a Project
c) Controlling a Stage
d) Managing a Stage Boundary

b) Correct. This process ensures that corporate or programme management has an
interface to the project. It is a key role for the Project Board to engage with corporate or
programme management and to act as a communication channel. Ref 13.2 / 13.3

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Which is NOT a purpose of an End Project Report?
a) Compare project achievements against what was originally agreed
b) Record information that will help future projects
c) Prompt the Project Board to authorize the next stage
d) Pass on details of any ongoing risks for those who will maintain and operate the finished
product

c) Correct. The Project Board would use the End Stage Report in tandem with the next
Stage Plan to decide what action to take with the project: for example, authorize the
next stage, amend the project scope, or stop the project. Ref A.9.1

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Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
If a baselined product requires modification, the [ ? ] procedure should be applied in order to
manage the modification.
a) risk management
b) exception
c) issue and change control
d) quality control

c) Correct. This is the procedure that identifies and controls changes to baselined
products. It is part of the Change theme. Ref 9.1

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Which is a purpose of a Project Brief?

a) Describe an agreed position from which the project can be started
b) Describe the information needs of the project’s stakeholders
c) Describe the configuration management that will be used by the project
d) Describe the reporting requirements of the Project Board

a) Correct. One of the purposes of the Project Brief is to ensure the project has a welldefined
start point. Ref A.19.1

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Which is one of the four integrated elements within PRINCE2?

a) Quality
b) Role descriptions
c) Processes
d) Product Descriptions

c) Correct. Principles, themes, processes and tailoring are the four integrated elements.
Ref 1.5.3

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Which of the following statements apply to a Stage Plan? 1. Is produced with the knowledge of earlier stages 2. Provides the basis for control by the Project Board 3. Is produced close to the time when the planned events will take place 4. Provides the basis for day-to-day control by the Project Manager a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 1, 3, 4 d) 2, 3, 4

c) Correct. (2) The Stage Plan provides the basis for the Project Manager's control. The Project Board monitors against the Project Plan. Ref 7.2.4

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. Because the Project Board receives regular [ ? ], there is no need for regular progress meetings. a) End Stage Reports b) Checkpoint Reports c) Exception Reports d) Highlight Reports

d) Correct. These are sent on a regular basis by the Project Manager to the Project Board. Ref A.11.1

Which is a benefit of using the product-based planning technique? a) All the required products of the project will be delivered to time and to cost b) Clearly shows how long a project will take c) It removes the need for activity-based planning d) Reduces the risk of incorrectly scoping the project

d) Correct. Clearly and consistently identifying and documenting the plan's products and interdependencies between them reduces the risk of important scope aspects being neglected or overlooked. Ref 7.3.3

Which of the following statements about the purpose of the Risk theme are true? 1. The Risk theme identifies how to manage risks at the corporate or programme level of an organization 2. The Risk theme explains the risk management activities to use to improve the chances of a project delivering its objectives a) Only 1 is true b) Only 2 is true c) Both 1 and 2 are true d) Neither 1 or 2 are true

b) Correct. Only statement 2 is true.The Risk Management Strategy defines activities that should be implemented to control risks on a project. Statement 1 is false. The purpose of the Risk theme is to manage project risks, NOT at the corporate or programme level.Ref 8.1

What project management team role can authorize the premature closure of a project? a) Project Manager b) Project Board c) Project Support d) Project Assurance

b) Correct. The Project Board triggers premature closure from the Directing a Project process. Ref 18.4.2 / 13.4.4

Which is a purpose of the Organization theme? a) Set the tolerance on the cost of resources b) Provide project management training to those working within the project c) Define the structure of accountability and responsibilities on the project d) Implement the controls required to permit management by exception

c) Correct. The purpose of the Organization theme is to define and establish the project's structure of accountability and responsibilities (the who?). Ref 5.1

Which process enables the Project Board to exercise overall control of a project? a) Directing a Project b) Controlling a Stage c) Starting up a Project d) Initiating a Project

a) Correct. The purpose of the Directing a Project process is to enable the Project Board to be accountable for the project’s success by making key decisions and exercising overall control while delegating day-to-day management of the project to the Project Manager. Ref 13.1

Which is the first plan to be created? a) Project Plan b) Initiation Stage Plan c) Team Plan d) Exception Plan

b) Correct. The Stage Plan, for the initiation stage, contains the creation of the Project Initiation Documentation. This is the first plan to be created in the PRINCE2 processes. Ref 7.2.3

What is the PRINCE2 definition of a project? a) A number of activities managed as a unit b) A unique undertaking that requires organization and resources c) An element of work that a Project Manager agrees to deliver d) A temporary organization created for the purpose of delivering business products

d) Correct. A project is a temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case. Ref 1.3

Which is NOT an objective of the Managing Product Delivery process? a) Ensure suppliers understand what is expected of them b) Ensure products of appropriate quality are delivered c) Ensure the Project Board is kept informed of progress on the products d) Ensure work for the team is agreed with the Project Manager

c) Correct. The Managing Product Delivery process does NOT have any communications with the Project Board. Informing the Project Board of progress on the products is part of Controlling a Stage. Ref 16.2

Which is an objective of the quality review technique? a) Involve key interested parties to promote wider acceptance of the product b) Develop and improve the specification of a product through continuous assessment c) Agree any changes required to the baselined product d) Update the status information in the Configuration Item Record when a product is signed-off

a) Correct. Involvement of key interested parties in checking a product's quality promotes wider acceptance of the project’s products. Ref 6.3.2.1

Which is a purpose of the Communication Management Strategy? a) Identify how and by whom the project’s products will be controlled and protected b) Define the method of communication between the project and its stakeholders c) Define the structure of responsibilities and accountabilities in support of effective decision making in a project d) Identify the communications required from the Team Manager(s) to the Project Board

b) Correct. This is a key element in the use of the Communication Management Strategy. Ref A.4.1

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. Any requests for change, which require Project Board approval, should be recorded in the [ ? ] and monitored by the Project Manager a) Product Description b) Issue Register c) Configuration Item Record d) Quality Register

b) Correct. Requests for change should be defined in Issue Reports which should be recorded in the Issue Register, and their status monitored by the Project Manager. Ref A.12.1

Which is a recommended quality review team role? a) Senior User b) Presenter c) Project Support d) Project Assurance

b) Correct. This role introduces the product for review and represents the producer(s) of the product. The presenter also coordinates and tracks the work after the review, i.e. applying changes to the product agreed by the team. Ref 6.3.2.1

If a product fails its quality check, what product should always be updated? a) Risk Register b) Issue Register c) Quality Register d) Lessons Log

c) Correct. The Quality Register records the results of all quality management activities. Ref 6.3.1.6 / A.23.1

In what product should the Project Manager enter the details of issues that are resolved without using the formal issue and change control procedure? a) Stage Plan b) Daily Log c) Configuration Item Record d) Checkpoint Report

b) Correct. The Project Manager can deal with issues informally, but these should be entered in the Daily Log. Ref A.7.1

Which of the PRINCE2 principles uses tolerances to establish the limits of delegated authority? a) Manage by stages b) Tailor to suit the project environment c) Focus on products d) Manage by exception

d) Correct. Accountability is established by delegating authority from one management level to the next by setting tolerances against the six objectives for the respective level of the plan: time, cost, quality, scope, risk, benefit. Ref 2.5

Which is a purpose of the Starting up a Project process? a) Ensuring that the prerequisites for initiating the project are in place b) Establishing that the Project Plan can meet the required target dates c) Creating the Project Initiation Documentation so the project can be initiated d) Confirming to corporate or programme management that quality expectations will be met

a) Correct. The purpose of the Starting up a Project process is to ensure that the question 'do we have a viable and worthwhile project' can be answered. This is achieved by ensuring the prerequisites for initiating the project are in place. Ref 12.1

When should the project management team be reviewed? a) As and when new stakeholders are identified b) When planning a quality review c) When planning the next stage d) During product creation

c) Correct. New Team Managers may be required for the next stage, different Project Assurance may be required due to the nature of the next stage, etc. Ref 17.2 / 17.4.1

Which is NOT a responsibility of the Project Board? a) Allocate tolerances to specialist teams b) Transfer ownership of the Benefits Review Plan to corporate or programme management c) Approve the Project Product Description d) Confirm the required frequency of Highlight Reports

a) Correct. Tolerance is allocated to the Project Manager by the Project Board when authorizing the next stage. Tolerance is allocated to specialist teams by the Project Manager, NOT the Project Board. Ref 15.4.1

Who sets the project tolerances? a) Project Board b) Corporate/programme management c) Executive d) Project Manager

b) Correct. Corporate/programme management sits outside the project but sets the overall requirements and tolerance levels of the project. Ref 10.3.1.1

PRINCE2 plans are carefully designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the project organization. Why is this a benefit? a) Ensures stakeholders are properly represented b) Improves communication and control c) Ensures that one plan will meet everyone’s needs d) Reduces the levels of management required in the project organization

b) Correct. PRINCE2 plans are designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the project organization and assist in communication and control by being regularly updated and copied to the necessary levels. Ref 1.7

What levels of plan are recommended by PRINCE2? a) Project Plan b) Project Plan and Stage Plan c) Project Plan, Stage Plan and Team Plan d) Project Plan, Stage Plan, Team Plan and Exception Plan

c) Correct. Project Plan, Stage Plan and Team Plan (Exception Plan replaces one of these) . Ref 7.2.3

Which of the following are described in a Product Description? 1. The component parts of the product 2. The products that are derived from this product 3. The skills needed to create the product 4. The method required to check the product a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 1, 3, 4 d) 2, 3, 4

c) Correct. (2) The Product Description includes products on which this one is dependant but NOT vice versa. Ref A.17.1

Which of the following is funded from a change budget? a) All changes to the baseline cost of the project b) Increased tolerance required by the Project Manager to complete a stage c) Changes to approved baselined products d) The correction of an off-specification

c) Correct. This is a sum of money the customer and supplier agree will fund any request for change. It is given to a Change Authority to manage and control. Ref 9.3.1.1

What is risk appetite? a) Part of the project budget, used to pay for any additional activities required to manage risks b) The funds the Project Board is willing to spend on the management of risk c) Permissible deviation from planned expenditure without the need to escalate to the next higher authority d) An organization's attitude towards risk-taking

d) Correct. An organization's unique attitude towards risk-taking that in turn dictates the amount of risks it considers acceptable. Ref 8.3.2

Which role represents the 'delivering' level on the project management team? a) Project Board b) Project Manager c) Team Manager d) Project Support

c) Correct. The 'delivering' level relates to the Team Manager responsible for delivering the project's products which they do via the Managing Product Delivery process. Ref 5.3.1

Which is a purpose of the Benefits Review Plan? a) Document the justification for the undertaking of a project b) Describe only residual benefits and those that could not be achieved during the lifecycle of the project c) Provide a schedule for measuring the achievement of benefits d) Provide the reasons for the project, for entry into the Business Case

c) Correct. The Benefits Review Plan is used to cover the assessment of benefits. Ref 4. 3.3 / A.1.1

Which is a purpose of a Configuration Item Record? a) Provide a summary of the status of all products at any one time b) Provide any details of important links between configuration items c) Support the creation of the project product breakdown structure d) Include an analysis of an issue or risk which caused the product to change

b) Correct. Contains the relationship with other items which may be affected by any changes to the product. Ref 9.3.1.2 / A.5.1

Which is NOT a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process? a) Take corrective actions to control deviations from the Stage Plan b) Recommend the tolerances for the next stage c) Report progress to the Project Board d) Assign work to be done

b) Correct. The recommendation of stage tolerances is done while planning the stage in the Managing a Stage Boundary process. Ref 17.4.1 / 13.4.3

Which is a true statement regarding stages? a) A project can be scheduled without management stages b) There can be several management stages within a technical stage c) Several management stages can be scheduled to run concurrently d) Technical stages and management stages should always end together

b) Correct. A technical stage can span over more than one management stage. Ref 10. 3.2.3

Which is a purpose of the Risk Management Strategy? a) Defines the techniques to be used when assessing project risks b) Summarizes exposure to strategic, programme, project and operational risks c) Recommends responses for each of the project risks d) Identifies suitable risk owners for each of the project risks

a) Correct. The Risk Management Strategy describes the specific risk management techniques and standards to be applied, and the responsibilities for achieving an effective risk management procedure. Ref A.24.1

Which role can the Project Manager also perform? a) Executive b) Project Assurance c) Change Authority d) Senior User

c) Correct. The Change Authority role can be delegated by the Project Board to the Project Manager. Ref 5.3.2.4

What are the three recommended types of issue? a) Off-specification, request for change and concession b) Off-specification, request for change and problem/concern c) Request for change, problem/concern, and Issue Report d) Request for change, Issue Report and risk

b) Correct. Each of these is a type of issue. Ref Table 9.1

Which of the following is established within the Initiating a Project process? a) The various ways in which the project can be delivered b) Those who require project information have been identified c) All of the information to develop the Project Brief is available d) Any constraints which could affect the project have been removed

b) Correct. An objective of the Initiating a Project process is to ensure that there is common understanding of who needs information, in what format, and at what time. Ref 14.2 / 14.4.4

What term is used to describe when a risk might occur? a) Impact b) Proximity c) Probability d) Evaluate

b) Correct. The point in time, or within the project, when the risks might materialize. Ref 8. 3.5.2

Within what process are Team Plans produced? a) Initiating a Project b) Controlling a Stage c) Managing a Stage Boundary d) Managing Product Delivery

d) Correct. Team Plans are produced by the Team Manager during the Managing a Product Delivery process. Ref 16.3

Identify the missing words in the following sentence. If a Project Manager has the appropriate specialist skills and knowledge, they may also perform the role of [ ? ] on the project. a) Senior Supplier(s) b) Team Manager(s) c) Project Assurance d) Senior User(s)

b) Correct. The appointment of separate Team Managers is optional. If the Project Manager has the appropriate knowledge, coverage, etc, they may manage the teams directly. Ref 5.3.2.7

Which statement is true for project stakeholders? a) Some have decision-making authority within the project environment b) All are external to the corporate organization c) All are internal to the project management team structure d) None have decision-making authority within the project environment

a) Correct. Project Board members are stakeholders. Those with a role on the Project Board will have an interest in, and influence over the project. Project Board members are decision-makers representing stakeholders, i.e. business, user and supplier interests. Ref 5.2.5

Which of the following is funded from a risk budget? a) Potential changes that may be required as the project progresses b) Shortfall in estimating the development costs of the project's products c) Additional activities to reduce, avoid, fallback, transfer, share or enhance project risks d) Production of a Risk Management Strategy

c) Correct. The risk budget is set aside to fund specific management responses to the project's threats and opportunities. Ref 8.3.6

Which is NOT an objective of the Controlling a Stage process? a) Produce the Stage Plan for the next stage b) Focus attention on delivery of the stage's products c) Escalate threats to tolerances d) Keep issues and risks under control

a) Correct. The Stage Plan is produced in the Managing a Stage Boundary process, towards the end of a stage, and is NOT an objective of the Controlling a Stage process. Ref. 15.2 / 17.4.1

Which of the following describes an output? a) Any of the project's specialist products b) The result of the change derived from using the project's products c) The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome d) A negative outcome

a) Correct. This is an output - a specialist product (whether tangible or intangible). Ref 4. 2.2

Which is a purpose of the Quality theme? a) Define the way in which the project will ensure that all products of the project are fit for purpose b) Define the procedures and responsibilities for the creation, maintenance and control of project products c) Establish mechanisms to judge whether the project remains desirable and achievable d) Enable the assessment of continuing project viability

a) Correct. The Quality theme defines the PRINCE2 approach to ensuring that the project's products meet business expectations. Ref 6.1

Which factor should influence the length of a management stage? a) Frequency of Highlight Reports b) The level of project risk c) Availability of the Project Board d) Requirement of a specialist team for an element of the development work

b) Correct. Stage breaks can be inserted at key points when risks to the project can be reviewed before major commitments of money or resources. Ref 10.3.2.2

After the first stage, when are the Stage Plans for further stages produced? a) Near the end of the current stage b) After completion of the current stage c) When creating the Project Plan d) At the start of the initiation stage

a) Correct. The Stage Plan for the next stage should be planned near the end of the current stage when managing a stage boundary. Ref 17.2 / 17.3 / 17.4.1 / 7.2.5

What is a risk cause? a) Negative consequence of a threat occurring b) Explanation of the uncertainty which, should it occur, would create a problem c) Positive consequence of an exploited opportunity d) A known situation which creates uncertainty

d) Correct. This is describing a risk cause. The risk cause should describe the source of the risk, i.e. the situation that gives rise to the risk. These are often referred to as risk drivers. Ref 8.3.5.1

Which product is a time-driven control? a) End Stage Report b) Exception Report c) Checkpoint Report d) Lessons Report

c) Correct. Time-driven controls take place at predefined periodic intervals. The frequency and format of the Checkpoint Reports will be agreed in the Work Package. Ref 10.3.3

Which is a purpose of the Project Product Description? a) Define the quality checks that will be used for the project's products b) Explain what the project must handover to achieve customer acceptance c) Confirm the delivery timescales for the project's products d) Document the Project Manager's responsibilities for delivering the project's products

b) Correct. A purpose of the Project Product Description is to define what the project must deliver in order to gain customer acceptance. Ref A.21.1

Which is a purpose of the Change Authority? a) Determine the change budget for a project b) Assess the impact of all requests for change c) Reduce the number of requests for change that need to be escalated to the Project Board d) Allow the Project Board to delegate the approval of all risks and Issue Reports

c) Correct. Within the limits of authority set by the Project Board, changes can be approved by the Change Authority without the need for escalation. Ref 5.3.2.4 / 9.3.1.1 / C.8

To which role does a Team Manager report an exception situation? a) Project Manager b) Project Board c) Project Assurance d) Project Support

a) Correct. The Team Manager has control for a Work Package, within the Work Package tolerances agreed with the Project Manager. During execution of the Work Package, if any forecasts indicate that it is likely to exceed the agreed tolerances, then the deviation should be referred to the Project Manager by the Team Manager in order to get a decision on corrective action. Ref 10.3.1.1

What is the first step within the recommended risk management procedure? a) Assess b) Identify c) Implement d) Plan

b) Correct. The risk must first be identified before it can be assessed, and responses planned and then implemented. Ref 8.3.5

Prince2 Foundation Flashcards

(75 cards)