principles_20190518182821 Flashcards
(494 cards)
1
Q
what are the oxidation states of carbon?
A
alkane (fats) > alcohol (carbs) > aldehyde > carboxylic acid > carbon dioxide
2
Q
what is the first law of thermodynamics?
A
energy neither created or destroyed
3
Q
what is the second law of thermodynamics?
A
energy converted from one form to another, some becomes unavailable to do work
4
Q
where is collagen triple helix found?
A
connective tissue
5
Q
role of smooth ER
A
synthesis of steroid hormones
6
Q
role of rough ER
A
synthesises polypeptides
7
Q
role of golgi apparatus
A
receives materials from ER and distributes, can also modify proteins
8
Q
what is nucleoside
A
base and sugar
9
Q
what are purines
A
adenine and guanine
10
Q
what are pyrimidines
A
uracil, thymine and cytosine
11
Q
what kind of bonds between 3 OH group and 5 triphosphate
A
phosphodiester
12
Q
what is the leading strand
A
always has free 3’ end (dna always synthesised in 5-3 direction)
13
Q
role of rRNA
A
combines with proteins to form ribosomes found in nucleolus
14
Q
role of tRNA
A
carries amino acids to be incorporated into protein anticodon consists of 3 nucleotides
15
Q
role of mRNA
A
carries genetic information for protein synthesis
16
Q
what are the three types of RNA which eurkaryotic cells have
A
pol I, II and IIIpol II synthesises all mRNA
17
Q
what is TFIID
A
general transcription factor required for all Pol II transcribed genes
18
Q
steps in the initiation of translation
A
GTP provides energy, ribosomal subunit binds to 5’ end, initiator tRNA (located in P site) pairs to start codon and large subunit joins assembly and initiator tRNA
19
Q
steps in the elongation of translation
A
elongation factor brings aminoacyl-tRNA to A site where second elongation factor regenerates the first to pick up next a-tRNA
20
Q
what catalyses the peptide bond formation between amino acids in P and A sites
A
peptidyl transferase
21
Q
steps in termination of translation
A
occurs when A site of ribosome encounters a stop codon (UAA, UAG, UGA)
22
Q
where are free ribosomes found
A
in cytosol proteins for cytosol, nucleus or mitochondria post translational
23
Q
where are bound ribosomes found
A
plasma membrane, ER, golgi, secretionco-translational
24
Q
what are enzymes without cofactor called
A
apoenzymes
25
what are enzymes with cofactor called
holoenzymes
26
what is vmax?
maximal rate of reaction at unlimited substrate concentrationintersect of straight line with Y
27
what is Km
michaelis constant - 50% vmax intersection with X
28
what happens in competitive inhibition
km varies
29
what happens in non-competitive inhibition
vmax varies
30
what is the difference between haemoglobin and myoglobin
haemoglobin shows allosteric regulationmyoglobin - michaelis menten
31
anabolism
requires energy, endergonic and reductive
32
catabolism
breakdown to produce energy, exergonic and oxidative
33
basic steps in glycolysis
hexokinase phosphorylates glucosephosphofructokinase phosphorylates fructose-6-phosphatepyruvate kinase converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
34
what is the fate of NAD
reduced to NADH+ H+ in glycolysis regenerated through oxidative metabolism of pyruvate
35
basic steps in aerobic metabolism of pyruvate
enters matrixconverted to acetyl-coA (by PDC)condenses with 4c to form 6c compound this 6c decarboxylated twice - yields CO24 oxidation reaction - yeilds NADH+ H+ and FADH2GTP formed 4c compound recreated
36
what enzyme of TCA is integrated in inner membrane of mitochondria rather than matrix?
succinate dehydrogenase
37
how many electrons transferred in conversion of NAD+ to NADH+ H+
3 pairs
38
how many electrons needed to reduce FAD to FADH2
1 pair
39
what does TCA cycle generate from each a-coA
3 NADH+ H+1 FADH21 GTP2 CO2
40
what is the first step of oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport)
electrons from NADH enter at complex 1, electrons from FADH2 enter at complex II (TCA), electrons handed down from higher to lower redox potentials, transferred onto O2 ti form H2Otransfer of electrons through respiratory chain is coupled to H+ transport 3/4 complexes pump H+ (1, 2 and 4)forms electrochemical gradient - more protons in intermembrane space than matrix, matrix negative so protons attracted
41
what is second step of oxidative phosphorylation
ATP synthesis
42
what inhibits oxidative phosphorylation
cyanide, azide and CO inhibit transfer of electrons to O2 (no proton gradient can be formed)
43
what is the final balance from respiration
glycolysis - 2 ATPTCA cycle - 2 ATP (2 GTP)glycolysis, PDH, TCA cycle - 25 ATP and 10 NADH+ H+TCA cycle - 3 ATP (2 FADH2)
44
how many ATP molecules does one glucose yeild
30-32
45
what are the stages of cell cycle
G1 - S - G2 - M - G1DNA synthesis at S
46
basics of DNA synthesis
DNA helicase unzips DNA, DNA polymerase copies 5-3 strand then the 3-5 strand in okazaki fragments which DNA ligase joins
47
what causes sequence variations within a gene
changes in promotor sequence and change in exon sequence
48
what causes sequence changes in DNA between genes
SNPslarger deletions or duplications
49
what is chromosome of normal female
46 XX
50
what is aneuploidy
whole extra or missing chromosome
51
47XY + 21
down syndrome, trisomy 21
52
47XY + 14
miscarriage, trisomy 14
53
47 XY + 18
edward syndrome, trisomy 18
54
45 X
turners syndrome
55
47 XXY
klinefelters syndrome
56
what is a roberstonian translocation
two acrocentric chromosomes stuck end to end - increases risk of trisomy in pregnancy
57
what is microarray CGH
1st line chromosome test, detects any missing of duplicated piece of chromosomesaCGH - paediatric
58
what is gonadal mosaicism
causes recurrence risk for autosomal dominant condition even if parent unaffected
59
what is somatic mosaicism
all cells suffer mutations as they divide, repair mechanisms exist
60
what genes start cells dividing when switched on?
oncogenes
61
what is mendelian disorder
disease caused by change in single gene umbrella term for autosomal dominant, recessive, x linkedhigh penetrance, small environmental contribution
62
what is chance of children getting disease in X linked mutations
mother carrier - 50% chance daughter is carrier and 50% chance male is affected no male - male transmission
63
what does mitochondrial DNA contain
important genes for mitochondrial metabolic pathways and ribosomal RNAs
64
what kind of mutations occur in mitochondria
point mutations and deletions, inherited almost exclusively materally
65
symptoms of mitochondrial mutations
myopathy, diabetes, deafness, optic atrophy, stroke like episodes and encephalitis
66
how do mutations cause disease
only having one working copy not enough (haploinsufficiency) so abnormal protein interferes with normal (dominant negative) and mutation activates gene resulting in loss of heterozygosity
67
what is the characteristics of a multifactorial disease
genetic change just another risk factor and penetrance for any one mutation is low
68
what is imprinting (non mendelian)
differences in gene expression depending on wether gene is maternally or paternally inherited
69
angelman syndrome is example of non mendelian inheritance, what symptoms?
neurogenetic disorder: developmental delay, intellectual disability, ataxia, epilepsy, happy, frequent laughing eg - chromosome 15
70
what is heteroplasmy (non mendelian)
different daughter cells contain different proportions of mutant mitochondria
71
what do drug metabolism genes do
metabolise carcinogens
72
what is the mechanism of gene activation
duplication of gene, activation of gene promotor and change in amino acid sequence
73
what is FISH
can light up specific bit of chromosome if you know which bit to light up
74
mutation in what gene can cause breast cancer?
BRCA1 - carriers have 80% risk of breast or ovarian
75
characteristics of rare autosomal forms of breast cancer
young age of onset, many cancer and rare tumours
76
characteristics of multifactorial predisposition breast cancer
everyone at same risk anyone with family history at increased risk
77
what is components of inner cytosol
solution of proteins, electrolytes and carbohydrates
78
what is the components and role of cytoskeleton
determines shape and fluidity of cells made from thin, intermediate filaments and microtubules
79
microfilaments
7nm, composed of actin
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intermediate filaments
>10nm, composed of proteins
81
microtubules
25nm, composed of tubulin, originate from centrosome, polar and dynein and kinesin attach to them and move them along
82
what are occluding junctions
link cells to form diffusion barrier (tight junctions)
83
what are anchoring juncitons
provide mechanical strength, link submembrane actin bundles of adjacent cells (adherent junctions)
84
what are the role of desmosomes in anchoring junctions
link submembrane intermediate filaments of adjacent cells
85
what are the role of hemidesmosomes in anchoring junctions
link submembrane intermediate filaments of cells to extracellular matrix through transmembrane proteins
86
what are communicating junctions
allow movement of molecules (gap junctions) each junction studded with pores produced by connexion proteins
87
haematoxylin dye
purple, basic dye (affinity for acidic molecules)
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eosin dye
pink, acidic dye
89
sqaumous epithelium
flattened
90
cuboidal epithelium
cube
91
columnar epithelium
tall and thin
92
what are the different kinds of glandular epithelia
exocrine (product secreted towards basal end of cell, distributed by vascular system, ductless glands) and endocrine (apical end of cell, ducted glands)
93
what are the three types of cartilage
hyaline (articular surface, tracheal rings, costal cartilage, epiphyseal growth plates)elasticfibrocartilage
94
what is the outer shell of a cortical bone which makes up the shaft
diaphysis
95
what occupies end of cancellous/trabecular bone
epiphyses
96
what is the contents of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue
fibres (collagen, reticular and elastic fibres), ground substance and tissue fluid
97
what are the cells of connective tissue
fibroblasts, adipose cells, osteocytes, chondrocytes
98
characteristics of smooth muscle
involuntary and non-striated
99
characteristics of skeletal muscle
voluntary and striated, multinucleated nuclei are elongated and located at periphery, just internal to cell membrane (sarcolemma)
100
characteristics of cardiac muscle
involuntary and striated, have intercalated discs which contain multiple intercellular junctions to maintain mechanical integrity
101
what is the connective tissue coat surrounding nervous tissue
meninges in CNSepineurium in PNS
102
role of astrocytes (type of glia)
support and ion transport
103
role of oligodendrocytes (type of glia)
produce myelin
104
role of microglia (type of glia)
provide immune surveillance
105
role of schwann cells (PNS) - type of glia
produce myelin and support axons
106
types of salivary glands
parotid, submandibular and sublingual
107
1st layer of GI tract
mucosa:epithelium - sits on basal laminalamina propia - loose connective tissue muscularis mucosae - thin layer smooth muscle
108
2nd layer of GI tract
submucosa: loose connective tissue
109
3rd layer of GI tract
muscularis externa: 2 thick layers of smooth muscle, inner circular and outer longitudinal layer
110
4th layer of GI tract
serosa or adventitia: outer layer of connective tissue that either suspends digestive tract or attaches to other organs
111
characteristics of protective mucosa
non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
112
characteristics of absorptive mucosa
simple columnar epithelium with villi and tubular glands
113
characteristics of secretory mucosa
simple columnar epithelium with extensive tubular glands
114
in the large intestine (protective and absorptive) the outer longitudinal smooth muscle is not continuous, what is it?
found in 3 muscular strips called teniae coli
115
what is the nervous tissue in the digestive tract?
enteric nervous system - ganglia between 2 muscle layers that make up muscularis externa
116
product of exocrine gland of pancreas
pancreatic digestive enzymes
117
product of endocrine gland of pancreas
islets of langerhans - produce insulin
118
what does the kidney contain
nephrons
119
what is the different layers of artery
tunica intima (endothelial cells)tunica media (smooth muscle)tunica adventitia (supporting connective tissue)
120
layers of arteriole
1 or 2 layers of smooth muscle in tunica media and almost no adventitia
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layers of capillaries
endothelial cells and basal lamina have pericytes (connective tissue cells with contractile properties)
122
where are continuous capillaries found
muscle, nerve, lung, skin
123
where are fenestrated capillaries found
have poresgut mucosa, endocrine glands and kidney
124
where are sinusoidal capillaries found
large gaps liver, spleen, bone marrow
125
layers of venules
endothelium and pericytes
126
layers of veins
tunica intima, thin continuous tunica media, obvious tunica adventitialarge veins have thick tunica adventitia
127
definition of variolation
exposure of individual to the contents of dried smallpox pustules from infected patient
128
what is commensal bacteria
friendly (barrier to infection) which competes with pathogen for scarce resources
129
what receptors involved in innate immune system
PAMPs : PRRs
130
what receptors involved in adaptive immune response
antigens : antigen receptors
131
what are phagocytes
neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cellsingest and kill bacteria important source of cytokines
132
what is the role of eosionophils, mast cells and basophils
granular cells which release chemicals for acute inflammation
133
what is the role of complement proteins
inflammation and defence
134
mast cells
reside in tissues and protect mucosal surfaces, degranulate and release histamine and tryptasegene expression - TNF, chemokines and leukotrienes
135
basophils and eosinophils
circulate in blood and recruited to sites of infection
136
by what three mechanisms do neutrophils attack pathogens
phagocytosis release of antimicrobial peptides and degradative proteasesgenerate extracellular traps
137
what do active neutrophils produce
TNF (cause cell death)
138
what do dead and dying neutrophils + tissue cells + microbial debris produce
pus
139
what are monocytes
precursor of macrophages - limit inflammation and involved in tissue repair and wound healing
140
role of macrophages
reside in tissues, ingest and kill pathogens, clear debris, inflammation, tissue repair and antigen presentation
141
role of dendritic cells
immature cells in peripheral tissues but when in contact with pathogen, mature and migrate to secondary lymphoid tissue where they stimulate adaptive response
142
CD4+ cells
helper T cellregulator of immune system and activate other immune cells
143
CD8+ cells
cytotoxic T cellskill virally infected body cells
144
what are interferons
type of cytokineanti-viral function
145
what are TNF
type of cytokinepro-inflammatory
146
what are chemokines
type of cytokinecontrol and direct cell migration
147
what are interleukins
type of cytokineIL2 - t cell proliferationIL10 - anti inflammatory
148
what is the acute phase response
result of infection, trauma or infectionliver produces acute phase proteins in response to pro inflammatory cytokines (IL1, IL6 and TNF)
149
what is the complement system
family of proteins produced in liver that circulate in blood which enter infected and inflamed tissues
150
what are the functions of complement system
membrane attack complexopsonisation chemotaxisclearance of immune complexes inflammation
151
what is opsonisation and what causes it
coating of microorganisms by immune proteins (opsonins)caused by C3b, CRP, antibodiesenhances phagocytosis
152
how does complement mediated lysis work
C5b bind to pathogen surfaceC6, C7, C8, C9 and C5b = membrane attack complex
153
how does complement mediated inflammation and chemotaxis work
C3a and C5a bind to receptors on mast cells / basophils and release granules which produce histamine and chemokines
154
what is a T cell antigen receptor
membrane bound protein heterodimer has alpha and beta chain
155
what is a B cell antigen receptor
membrane bound antibody (IgM or IgD)has light and heavy chain and disulphide bridges
156
how are pathogens activated
MHC/HLA proteins display peptide antigens to T cellsclass 1 - expressed on all nucleated cells - present peptide antigens to cytotoxic T cellsclass 2 - only dendritic cells, macrophages and B cells - present peptide antigens to helper T cells
157
what does each antibody contain
each heavy and light chain contains variable region (antigen binding site) and a constant domain
158
IgG
most abundant, actively transported across placenta
159
IgM
surface bound monomer, 1st Ig type produced in immune response
160
IgD
extremely low levels in blood, surface bound
161
IgE
extremely low levels normally, produced in allergic response
162
IgA
2nd most abundant type, monomeric form in blood, dimeric form in breast milk, saliva, tears and mucosal secretions
163
what types do mothers pass to baby
IgG and dimeric IgA
164
what is the effector function of antibodies
clearance mechanisms - mediated interaction of constant region with effector molecules by complement and Fc receptors
165
what is agglutination
immune complex formation
166
other characteristics of antibodies
can function as opsoninscan stimulate NK cellscan trigger allergic response can undergo class switching - b cells switch antibody heavy chain segment
167
what is the germinal centre reaction
b cell proliferation, antibody heavy chain switching, generation of high affinity antibodies and differentiation into plasma cells and memory B cells
168
what is pathogenicity
ability of a microorganism to produce disease
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how do bacteria replicate
binary fission
170
what is microaerophilic atmosphere
reduced o2 conc and enriched co2
171
what secretes exotoxin
gram positive bacteria, produced inside cell and exported from it
172
what secretes endotoxin
gram negative bacteria, part of gram negative bacterial cell wall
173
what are moulds
type of fungi, produce spores and hyphae eg aspergillus
174
what are yeasts
type of fungi, single cells that reproduce by budding eg candida
175
characteristics of gram positive streptococcus
aerobic cocci chainsalpha haemolysis (partial) - strep pneumoniae (pneumonia, meningitis) and strep viridans (endocarditis)beta haemolysis (complete) - group A strep (throat and skin infection) and group B strep (neonatal meningitis)
176
characteristics of gram positive enterococcus
aerobic, cocci chains, non-haemolytic, normal gut commensal and cause of UTI
177
characteristics of gram positive staphylococcus
cocci clusterscoagulase positive (golden) - staph aureus - wound, skin infection - flucloxacillincoagulase negative (white) - staph epidermis - normal skin commensal, IV line infection
178
process of fever
antigen attacks macrophage, releases cytokines, travel to anterior hypothalamus of brain, stimulates production of prostaglandin E, resets bodys thermal set point and body shivers to conserve heat (slows growth of pathogens)
179
characteristics of gram negative cocci
diplococci, aerobic eg neisseria gonorrhoea and neisseria meningitidis
180
characteristics of coliforms
gram negative bacilli, aerobic (can be anaerobic)gut commensals eg e.coli, klebsiella, proteusgut pathogens eg salmonella, shigella, e.coli O157 gentamicin first line antibiotic
181
characteristics of strict aerobes
gram negative bacillieg pseudomonas aeruginosa and legionella pneumophilia
182
what are the types of spiral or curved gram negative bacilli
campylobacter - food poisoning helicobacter pylori - gastritis
183
what is haemophilus influenzae
small gram negative bacillus, common cause of chest infection (esp in COPD)
184
characteristics of gram positive anaerobic bacilli
CLOSTRIDIUM SPPpart of normal bowel flora, produces spores and exotoxin that cause severe tissue damage
185
characteristics of gram negative anaerobic bacilli
bacteroides sppnormal gut commensals, only pathogenic when found in other sites metronidazole - 1st line treatment for anaerobes
186
characteristics of mycobacteria
thick waxy outer coat acid fast bacilli or ZN stain TB
187
what is the process of gene transfer by transformation
DNA from dead bacteria taken up by living and incorporated in plasmids
188
what is process of gene transfer by conjugation
sex pilus (fimbria) produced by one bacteria through which plasmid DNA can be transferred
189
what is the process of gene transfer by transduction
viruses infecting bacteria can transfer bits of DNA from one bacterium to another
190
definition of bactericidal
kill bacteria
191
definition of bacteriostatic
inhibit bacterial growth
192
what are antibiotics what work on cell wall
penicillin cephalosporins (ceftriaxone)glycopeptides (vancomycin)
193
how to distinguish between gram positive and gram negative organisms
positive - thick peptidoglycan and single phospholipid bilayer negative - think peptidoglycan and two phospholipid bilayers
194
what are the different kinds and the characteristics of penicillin
flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav and amoxicillininhibit cell wall synthesis by preventing cross linking of PGN subunits bactericidal, narrow spectrumbeta-lactam antibiotic excreted rapidly via kidneystype 1 hypersensitivity
195
characteristics of cephalosporins
inhibit cell wall synthesis bactericidal beta-lactam antibitic may cause c. diff excreted by kidneys
196
characteristics of glycopeptides
binds to end of growing chain, prevents cross linking and weakens cell wallbactericidal only active against gram positive cell wall excreted in urine
197
what are the antibiotics which inhibit protein synthesis
macrolides (erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin) - bacteriostatictetracyclines (doxycycline) - bacteriostaticaminoglycosides (gentamicin) - bactericidal
198
characteristics of macrolides
lipophilic and pass through cell membranes easily (useful for infection where bacteria hides from immune system)excreted via biliary tract
199
characteristics of tetracyclines
broad spectrum, can destruct intestinal flora (cause secondary infections)permanently stain teeth of children <12 yearsexcreted via biliary tract
200
characteristics of aminoglycosides
mainly active against gram negative aerobic organisms (coliforms and pseudomonas aeruginosa)damage of kidney and CN VIII - vestibulochlearexcreted in urine
201
what are the antibiotics which act on bacterial DNA
metronidazoletrimethoprim fluoroquinolones
202
characteristics of metronidazole
causes strand breakage of bacterial DNAtreat true anaerobic infectionsinteracts with alcohol
203
characteristics of trimethoprim
inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis some activity against some gram negative and some gram positive
204
examples and characteristics of fluoroquinolones
CIPROFLOXACIN (can cause tendonitis) LEVOFLOXACINprevent supercoiling of bacterial DNAbactericidal restricted (c diff)weakens tendons, causes seizuresexcreted in urine
205
which antibiotics are to be avoided in pregnancy
trimethoprim and metronidazole avoid in first 3 months gentamicin, tetracycline and fluoroquinolones avoided!!
206
what is the mechanism of antibiotic resistance
changes in bacterial DNA cause change in gene product which is target of antibiotic (MRSA)bacteria can code for enzymes which degrade of inactivate antibiotic efflux pumps actively export antibiotics out of bacterial cell - genetic change may result in increased efflux
207
what are the stages of viral replication
1) attachment (ligand > receptor)2) entry (endocytosis) 3) uncoating (release nucleic acid from capsid)4) nucleic acid and protein synthesis (host ribosomes and polymerases used)5) assembly (nucleic acid and proteins packaged together)6) release by budding (viral released with host envelope) or lysis (accumulate until cell bursts)
208
how can antibodies be used in prevention of viral infection
neutralising antibodies (IgG and IgM) prevent virus binding to cellular receptors
209
how can viruses be detected
PCR, antigen detection
210
what is necrosis
no energy, death of tissues, pathological, elicits adjacent tissue response
211
what is coagulative necrosis
proteins coagulate, preservation of cell outline eg MI
212
what is colliquative necrosis
necrotic material becomes softened and liquefied (pus), no cell structure remains eg in brain
213
what is gangrenous necrosis
cell death by necrosis then infection on top of it - anaerobic bacteria may grow
214
what is fibrinoid necrosis
fibre deposition eg damage to blood vessel in malignant hypertension
215
what is the role of p53 protein
if lost, it can lead to development of cancer p53 can be spellchecker at G1, if mistakes are found cell cycle paused and repair attemptedif cant be repaired, p53 stimulates caspases and indices apoptosis
216
what is the role of telomeres
cap chromosomes to prevent degradation and fusionadds on TTAGGG after its lost to prevent cells dying
217
how can free radicals (chain reaction leading to lipid peroxidation) be formed?
drugs, O2 toxicity, reperfusion injury, inflammation, intracellular killing of bacteria
218
what is phenylketonuria?
metabolic disorderaccumulation of phenylalanine caused by deficiency in enzyme which converts phenylalanine to tyrosine guthrie test
219
what is the beneficial effects of acute inflamation
toxin dilution, entry of antibodies, fibrin formation, drug transport, oxygen and nutrient delivery and immune response stimulation
220
what are the harmful effects of acute inflammation
digestion of normal tissues, swelling and inappropriate inflammatory response - type 1 hypersensitivity
221
what is chronic inflammation
subsequent and often prolonged tissue reactions follow initial response cells: plasma, lymphocytes and macrophages
222
what is the fluid exudate in inflammation
proteins including immunoglobulins fibrinogen - fibrin on contact with ECM, acutely inflamed organ surfaces commonly covered in fibrin
223
what is margination
loss of intravascular fluid and increased plasma viscosity allowed neutrophils into plasma (only occurs in venules)
224
what increases surface adhesion molecule expression
complement C5aleukotriene b2TNF
225
what increases endothelial cell expression of adhesion molecules
IL1endotoxinsTNF
226
what releases histamine (chemical mediator) which causes vascular dilation
released by mast cells, eosinophils, basophils and platelets release stimulated by C3a, C5a and lysosomal proteins (released by neutrophils)
227
what does serotonin (chemical mediator) do and where is its receptors found
increased vascular permeability 5HT (receptors) present in high concentration in platelets
228
what is the role of chemokines (chemical mediator)
attract various leukocytes to site of inflammation
229
role of leukotrienes (chemical mediator)
type 1 hypersensitivity
230
role of prostaglandins (chemical mediator)
increase vascular permeability, stimulate platelet aggregation
231
how are micro-organisms recognised
when coated in opsonins (Fc fragment of IgG, C3b or collectins)
232
what is suppuration
formation of pus - neutrophils, bacteria and cellular debris
233
what is the macroscopic appearances of chronic inflammation
chronic ulcer (breach in mucosa, base lined by granulation tissue and fibrous tissue extends through muscle layer)chronic abscess cavity thickening of wall by fibrous tissue granulomatous (crohns, TB)fibrosis
234
what kinds of damage are reversible
reduced aerobic respiration / increased anaerobicmembrane pumps failcell swellingaccumulation of lipid
235
what kinds of damage are irreversible
severe damage to cell membranes and mitochondrialeakage of enzymes nuclear changes - ATP changes, cell membrane damage
236
what is a granuloma
in chronic inflammationcollection of macrophages (response to foreign bodies eg bone, asbestos, TB, parasites, syphilis and malignancy)
237
what causes wound contraction
myofibroblasts
238
what is metaplasia
one type of cell becomes another form of cell in response to stress (at risk site for cancer)barrett's oesophagus
239
characteristics of a benign neoplasia
no necrosis N:C ratio normal minimal pleomorphism (change in size/shape)eg adenoma and papilloma
240
characteristics of a malignant neoplasia
necrosis common N:C ratio increased pleomorphic (alter shape/size)aneuploid eg carcinoma (cancer of epithelial cell), carcinoma in situ (not invading other tissues) or sarcoma (cancer of mesenchymal cell - MALIGNANT)
241
what is dysplasia
disordered growth pre-malignant process
242
what is angiogenesis
formation of new, abnormal blood vessels (successful tumours)
243
what are the different routes for metastasis
lymphatic route - carcinomahaematogenous route - sarcoma
244
what is the double hit hypothesis
one faulty gene puts person at increased risk two faulty mutated genes will result in functional problem
245
what are some examples of oncogenes (turn up genes that promote growth) which can be effected by mutations?
RAS (GTP binding) eg colon, lung, pancreatic, bladder, renal and melanomaBRAF - 50% melanoma RAF mutated - some colonic malignancies Myc eg lymphoma, neuroblastoma, small cell carcinoma of lungP13K must common mutated kinase in cancer eg haematological malignancies
246
why is the PTEN gene significant
without it, p27 cells can proliferate in uncontrolled fashion
247
example of DNA repair genes effected by mutation
BRCA 1 + BRCA 2 (breast cancer)
248
what is Bcl2
anti apoptotic gene usually switched off for purpose of getting rid of self reactive lymphocytes
249
what is an epithelial cancer called
carcinoma
250
what is glandular cancer called
adenoma v adenocarcinoma (malignant)
251
what is squamous cancer called
papilloma v squamous cell carcinoma (malignant)
252
what is a paraneoplastic syndrome
rare disorders that are triggered by an altered immune system response to a neoplasm (new growth)non-metastatic systemic effects that accompany malignant disease
253
what is the biochemical complications of diabetes
ketoacidosisnon-enzymatic glycosylationhypoglycaemia lactic acidosis
254
what is the cause of an atheroma
response to endothelial injury recruitment of macrophages and platelets lipid accumulation smooth muscle proliferation
255
what are the complications of atheroma
thrombosis, aneurysm, dissection, embolism and ischaemia
256
what is the results of left ventricular hypertrophy
increased LV loadpoor perfusioninterstitial fibrosismicro-infarcts diastolic dysfunction
257
what is the virchows triad (3 things thought to contribute to thrombus)
vessel wall (loss of endothelial surface, inflammation)blood flow (stasis, turbulence)blood constituents (platelets, coagulation proteins, viscosity)
258
what is the difference between thrombus and embolism?
thrombus - solid mass of blood constituents formed within blood vesselembolism - mass of material in vascular system moving from its site of origin to lodge in vessels in distant site
259
what is a infarction and how is it caused
zonal necrosis due to sudden occlusion of blood supply due to lack of O2 and nutrient supply re-perfusion injury possible due to formation of free radicals
260
what is pharmacodynamics
what drug does to body
261
what is pharmacokinetics
what body does to drug
262
what is affinity
strength of association between ligand and receptor
263
what is efficacy
ability of an agonist to evoke cellular response
264
what is the difference between competitive and non competitive antagonism on a graph
competitive - cause parallel rightward shift of agonist concentration with no depression in maximal responsenon competitive - depress the slope and maximum response curve - no shiftPICTURE ON DOC
265
how does the degree of ionisation effect the absorption of a drug
only unionised forms readily diffuse across bilayer depends on pKa (pH at which 50% of drug is ionised and 50% unionised)
266
what is henderson-hasselbalch equation
pH - pKa = log (A-/AH) = acidallows you to determine how active drug may be in body in blood stream or acidic stomach
267
what is the oral availability of a drug
fraction that reaches systemic circulation after oral ingestion
268
what is the systemic availability of a drug
fraction that reaches systemic circulation after absorption
269
what is the volume of distribution (Vd)
apparent volume in which a drug is dissolved (distributed with concentration equal to that of plasma)IV: Vd = dose/plasma concentration
270
what is the therapeutic ratio of a drug
MTC/MEC (max tolerated conc and max effective conc)higher the TR, safer drug
271
what is the half life of drug eliminated at first order kinetics
half life is inversely proportional to elimination rate constant t1/2 = 0.69/Kel
272
how to work out the rate of elimination of a drug
clearance (volume of plasma cleared of drug in unit time) x plasma concentration
273
what is the characteristics of a drug which is eliminated at zero order kinetics
initially eliminated at constant rate then return to first order
274
which factors influence drug disposition
ADME - absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion
275
what is the role of drug metabolism
converts drugs to more polar metabolites not readily absorbed in renal tubules, facilitating excretionconvert drugs to metabolites that are less active than parent compound
276
what is the first phase of drug metabolism
RHS of liver - oxidation, reduction and hydrolysisthis makes drug more polar, adds chemically reactive group permitting conjugation
277
what is the second phase of drug metabolism
LHS of liver - conjugationthis adds an endogenous compound, increasing polarity
278
what happens to the membrane potential in depolarisation
becomes less negative (opposite for hyperpolarisation)
279
what is the characteristics of sodium channels
Na flows inwardly conc 140mm outside cell, 10-15mm insidedriving force - Vm - ENanegative driving force - inward movement of sodium
280
what is the characteristics of potassium channels
K flows outwardlydriving force - Vm - Ekwhen positive, outward movement of K
281
what are the ion channels responsible for action potential in neurons
voltage activated Na channels - depolarising voltage activated K channels - hyperpolarising
282
what is the effect of the activation of voltage activated Na channel (activated by depolarisation)
opening of a few channels causes further depolarisation positive feedback (upstroke of graph)
283
what is the effect of the activation of voltage activated K channel (activated by depolarisation)
outward movement of K causes repolarisation which turns off stimulus negative feedback (downstroke of graph and undershoot)
284
what happens during an absolute refractory peroid
no stimulus, however strong, can elicit a second action potential
285
what happens during a relative refractory period
stronger than normal stimulus may elicit second action potential
286
what is the role of oligodendrocytes
produce myelinated cells in CNS (schwann cells do PNS)
287
what is the role of astrocytes
star shaped, support homeostasis and maintain BBB
288
what is the role of microglia
immune surveillance, macrophages of CNS
289
what are the preganglionic and post ganglionic neurones in sympathetic NS
pre - AChpost - usually noradrenaline
290
what are neurones in parasympathetic
both pre and post - AChcontrols cranial nerves 3/7/9/10
291
sympathetic and parasympathetic role in male reproduction
sympathetic - ejaculationparasympathetic - erection
292
what is the steps in neurochemical transmission
1) precursor taken up2) transmitter synthesised and stored3) action potential depolarises4) calcium influx through voltage activated channels5) calcium induced release of transmitter6) receptor activation7) enzyme mediated inactivation of transmitter or reuptake of transmitter
293
characteristics of ligand-gated ion channels
consist of separate glycoprotein subunits forming a central, ion conducting channel allow rapid changes in permeability of membrane to certain ionsrapidly alter membrane potential
294
what is the structure of receptor in GPCR
integral membrane protein 7 transmembrane spans joined by 3 extracellular and 3 connecting loops
295
what is the structure of G protein in GPCR
peripheral membrane protein3 polypeptide subunits (alpha binding site)contains guanine nucleotide binding site which can hold GTP
296
what happens when there is no signalling in GPCR
receptor unoccupiedG protein binds GDPeffector not modulated
297
what happens when the signal is turned on in GPCR
agonist activates receptorG protein couples with receptorGDP dissociated from and GTP binds to alpha subunitG protein dissociatedalpha subunit combines with and modified activity of effectoragonist may dissociate from receptor, but signal persists
298
what happens when signal is turned off in GPCR
alpha subunit acts as enzyme to hydrolyse GTP -> GDPG protein alpha subunit recombines with By subunit completing G protein cycle
299
what are nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (ligand gated)
consist of 5 glycoprotein subunitsalpha 1-10, beta 1-4, gamma, delta, epsilonbinding of transmitter opens gate
300
what is role of M1 GPCR muscarinic ACh receptor at parasympathetic neuroeffector junctions
Gg - stimulates phospholipase C which increases stomach acid secretion
301
what is role of M2 GPCR muscarinic ACh receptor at parasympathetic neuroeffector junctions
Gj - inhibition of adenylyl cyclase and opening of K+ channels which decreases HR
302
what is role of M3 GPCR muscarinic ACh receptor at parasympathetic neuroeffector junctions
Gg - stimulates phospholipase C which increases saliva secretion and bronchoconstriction
303
what stimulates the re-uptake of NA at sympathetic neuroeffector junctions
transporters U1/U2
304
what stimulates the metabolism of NA at sympathetic neuroeffector junctions
MAO and COMT
305
what is the role of B1 GPCR adrenoreceptor at sympathetic neuroeffector junctions
Gs - stimulation of adenylyl cyclase which increases HR and force
306
what is the role of B2 GPCR adrenoreceptor at sympathetic neuroeffector junctions
Gs - stimulation of adenylyl cyclase which causes relaxation of bronchial and vascular smooth muscle
307
what is the role of A1 GPCR adrenoreceptor at sympathetic neuroeffector junctions
Gg - stimulation of phospholipase C which causes contraction of vascular smooth muscle
308
what is the role of A2 GPCR adrenoreceptor at sympathetic neuroeffector junctions
Gj - inhibition of adenylyl cyclase which causes the inhibition of NA release
309
how does amphetamine work
U1 substrate inhibits MAOdisplaces NA into cytoplasmNA accumulates in synaptic cleft causing increased adrenoceptor stimulation
310
how does prazosin work
selective, competitive antagonist of a1vasodilator used as anti-hypertensive
311
how does atenolol work
selective, competitive antagonist of B1used as anti-anginal and anti-hypertensive agent
312
how does atropine work
competitive antagonist of muscarinic ACh receptors, does not block nicotinic Ach receptorsblocks parasympathetic division of ANSused to reverse bradycardia post MI and in AchE poisoning
313
what is the difference between muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
muscarinic - G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) that mediate a slow metabolic response via second messenger cascadesnicotinic - ligand-gated ion channels that mediate a fast synaptic transmission of the neurotransmitter
314
what is the role of cholesterol
contributes to fluidity and stability stiffens membrane
315
where are docking marker acceptor proteins and where are they found
found in inner membrane surfaceinteract with secretory vesicles leading to exocytosis of vesicle contents
316
what is the role of cadherins (cell adhesion molecule)
hold cells within tissues together
317
what is the role of integrins (cell adhesion molecule)
span membrane acting as link between extra and intra cellular environments
318
what is the function of carbohydrates
self-identity markersrole in tissue growth
319
what does the ficks law of diffusion relate to
magnitude of conc gradientsurface area of membrane across which diffusion taking placelipid solubility of substancemolecular weight of substancedistance through which diffusion must take place
320
what is osmolarity
concentration of osmotically active particles in solution osmoles/litrebody fluids approx 300mOsm
321
what is tonicity
effect a solution has on cell volume
322
what is secondary active transport
energy not used directly, stored in form of an ion concentration (usually Na+)
323
what are the two mechanisms of secondary active transport
symport (co transport) - solute and Na move in same directionantiport (exchange / countertransport) - solute and Na move in opposite direction
324
what mechanism of transport is Na+K+ATPase
primary active 3 Na out and 2 K inbut, conc gradient for Na+ is inwards and outward for K+
325
what is the role of Na+K+ ATPase
establish Na and K conc gradient across plasma membrane regulate cell volume by controlling conc of solutes inside cellenergy used to drive pump indirectly serves as energy source for secondary active transport
326
what happens in endocytosis
membrane pinches off to engulf substance
327
what happens in exocytosis
vesicle fuses with membrane, releasing contents to ECF
328
what is membrane potential
Emseparation of opposite charges across membraneunits mV
329
at resting potential, the membrane is 100x more permeable to what ion
K+
330
what is the equilibrium potential for K+
when conc gradient and electrical gradient balance each other membrane potential at Ek is -90mV
331
what is the equilibrium potential for Na+
membrane potential at ENa is +61mV
332
what is the Nernst equation
Elon = 61log10 [ion]o / [ion]i
333
what is the resting potential for a typical nerve cell
-70mVK+ gradient most important factor in setting Em
334
what is the Goldman-hodgkin-katz equation and what is it used for
Em = 61log10 Pk+ [K+]o + PNa+ [Na+]o / Pk+ [K+]I + PNa+ [Na+]Icalculates overall membrane potential p is relative permeability
335
what is hyperpolarisation
change that makes cell membrane potential more negative
336
what is depolarisation
change that makes cell membrane potential more positive
337
what hormones control glucose during starvation
cortisol (adrenal gland)growth hormone (pituitary)
338
what are the pancreatic islets of langerhans (endocrine glands)
alpha cells - glucagonbeta cells - insulindelta cells - somatostatin
339
what does insulin convert (favours anabolism - build up)
glucose -> glycogenfatty acids -> triglyceridesamino acids -> protein
340
what is the effect of insulin
lowers glucose by stimulating uptake from blood and activating liver enzymes
341
what is the role of ANS on glucose
parasympathetic activity - promoting secretionsympathetic activity - inhibiting secretion
342
what is the effects of glucagon
raises glucose by increasing glycogenolysis, inhibiting liver glycogen synthesis, promoting liver gluconeogenesis, lipolysis
343
what is the effect of sympathetic nerve activity on glucagon
stimulates release
344
what is the effect of adrenaline
raises glucosestimulates glycogenesisstimulates gluconeogenesis(cortisol also does all of above plus lipolysis)released during short term emergencies
345
where is growth hormone located and what is its response to starvation
anterior lobe of pituitary decreases glucose uptake by musclemobilises glucose from liverpromotes lipolysis in fat cells
346
what are baroreceptors
located in aortic arch and carotid sinussensitive to stretch, firing rate increases when MAP increasesonly respond to acute changes (firing decreases if HBP sustained)
347
what is the systolic pressure
when heart is contracting (<140mmHg)
348
what is diastolic pressure
when heart is relaxed (<90mmHg)
349
what is MAP
average arterial BP during single cardiac cycle (70 - 105mmHg)MAP = [(2xdiastolic) + systolic] divided by 3MAP = cardiac output x total peripheral resistance
350
what is cardiac output
stroke volume x heart rate
351
what is feedforward control
responses made in anticipation of a change
352
what is negative feedback control
primary typeopposes initial change components: sensor, control centre and effectorpromotes stability by regulation of controlled variable through flow information along closed loop
353
what is positive feedback control
not as often as negative amplifies initial change
354
how is heat gained in body
metabolic heat - increased by hormoneradiation - emission of heat energy in form of electromagnetic waves (1/2 is loss)convection - transfer of heat energy by air currents, combines with conductionconduction - transfer of heat between objects in contact
355
how is heat lost in body
convection - air next to skin warmed by conduction so less dense and rises whilst cooler air moves next to skinconductionradiationevaporation - passive (water diffuses from skin etc) or active (sweating by sympathetic NS)
356
How does negative feedback control maintain temperature
sensor detects change sends signal to hypothalamuseffectors (skeletal muscles, skin arterioles, sweat glands) triggered and respond to restore variable
357
what does the posterior hypothalamic centre respond to
coldvasoconstrictionincreased muscle toneshivering
358
what does the anterior hypothalamus centre respond to
warmth vasodilationsweating (sympathetic NS)decreased muscle tone
359
how is a fever caused
macrophages release chemicals which act as endogenous pyrogenstimulates hypothalamus to release prostaglandinsthis resets thermostat higherhypothalamus initiates mechanism to heat body thermostat reset to normal if pyrogen release is reduced
360
what is defined as fever
38-40 oC
361
what is defined as hyperthermia
>40 oC
362
what is defined as hypothermia
35 or below oC
363
vascular smooth muscles are partially constricted at rest (vasomotor tone) - how is this achieved?
tonic discharge of sympathetic nerves resulting in continuous release of noradrenaline
364
what is the exception to "there is no parasympathetic innervation of arterial smooth muscle"
penis and clitoris
365
what is gametogenesis
germ cell formation (oogenesis > oocyte, spermatogenes > spermatozoa)
366
what is cleavage
period of rapid cell division which leads to blastomereswhen 8 cells, compaction takes place so zygote becomes blastocyst
367
what is gastrulation
formation of germ layerectoderm (outer)mesoderm (middle)endoderm (inner)
368
what is the process in fertilisation
sperm binds to zona pellucida glycoprotein acrosomal enzymes released from sperm head digest way into eggegg and sperm plasma membrane fuse and sperm contents enter effect sperm entry triggers completion of meiosis 2 and release of cortical granules by oocyte
369
what is the fate of the ectoderm
epidermis of skin, nervous system
370
what is the fate of the mesoderm
subdivided into 3 partsparaxial - axial skeleton, voluntary muscle, parts of dermisintermediate - urogenital systemslateral plate - somatic part (lining of body wall) or visceral part (CV system, mesothelial covering of organs etc)
371
what does the incomplete closure of the embryonic foramen oval in the septum lead to
atrial septal defect (ASD)orventricular septal defect (VSD)
372
what is a meta-analysis
a statistical analysis that combines results of multiple scientific studies
373
what are the phases of clinical trials
I - clinical pharmacology (dosage, safety)II - initial clinical assessment (likely effectiveness, common adverse effects)III - randomised controlled trialIV - post marketing surveillance (less common adverse effects)
374
sagittal
separated left to right
375
coronal
separated front to back
376
axial
chopped in half
377
what is the two types of surface of the wrist
dorsal or volar
378
what is the two types of surface of hand
dorsal or palmar
379
what is the two types of surface of tongue
dorsal or ventral
380
what is two types of surface of foot
dorsal or plantar
381
what is flexion (opposite is extension)
decreasing angle between bones at a joint
382
what is abduction (opposite is adduction)
movement away from medial plane
383
what is internal/medial rotation (opposite is lateral rotation)
anterior surface rotates towards median plane
384
what is circumduction
circular motion at joint
385
what is movements made by foot
eversion or inversion
386
what is movement made by forearm
pronation (palm down) or supination (palm up)
387
what is pulmonary circulation
from right side of heart, to lungs and back to left side
388
what is systemic circulation
from left side of heart, to capillary beds of organs etc back to right side
389
where does the heart lie and what is it surrounded by
lies deep to costal cartilages and between lungs (in inferior middle mediastinum) and is surrounded by pericardium
390
what is the layers of pericardium
visceral serous pericardium covers the heart whilst parietal serous pericardium lines fibrous pericardium
391
what is bicuspid (mitral valve)
between left atrium and left ventricle
392
what is tricuspid valve
between right atrium and right ventricle
393
what is the crux
fibrous cardiac skeleton in septum which acts as electrical insulator
394
what is anastomosis
connection between arteries without capillary network - provide alternative route of blood flow called collaterals
395
what is end arteries
when there is only arterial blood supply to area - occlusion result in infarction and irreversible cell death
396
what does the arch of the aorta branch into
brachiocepallic trunk (bifurcates into right common carotid and right subclavian arteries)left common carotid (bifurcates into external and internal carotid)left subclavian
397
what nerve innervates carotid sinus
glossopharyngeal
398
where does the vertebral artery (travels through vertebral foraminae of cervical vertebrae then through foramen magnum to supply brain) branch from
subclavian artery
399
where is lymph drained
central veins in root of neck at venous angles
400
what is ossification
process in which initial, small, hyaline cartilage grows into bone
401
what is the periosteum
connective tissue sleeve which is vascularised and well innervated (pain when torn during fracture)
402
what are examples of bony features
greater tubercle of humerusstyloid process of radius
403
what are the 33 bones of the vertebrae
7 cervical 12 thoracic 5 lumbar 5 sacral (fuse to form 1 sacrum)4 coccygeal (fused to form 1 coccyx)
404
what is the intervertebral foramen
between adjacent vertebrae and spinal nerves emerge through here
405
what is the facet joint
between articular processes of 2 adjacent vertebrae
406
what is special about C1 atlas
does not have body of spinous process
407
what is special about C2 axis
has odontoid process
408
what is special about C7
first palpable spinous process in 70% of people
409
what bones are in the hand
carpal bones (wrist) metacarpals (palm)phalanges (fingers)
410
what bones are in the foot
tarsal bones (mid foot)metatarsals (forefoot)phalanges (toes)
411
example of circular muscle
orbicularis oculi
412
example of fusiform muscle
biceps brachii
413
example of pennate muscle
deltoid
414
example of quadrate muscle
rectus abdominus
415
what is the role of a tendon
attach muscle to bonean aponeurosis is a flattened tendon
416
what is role of posterior fibres of deltoid
extension of shoulder
417
what is role of middle fibres of deltoid
abduction of shoulder
418
what is role of anterior fibres of deltoid
flexion of shoulder
419
what is the role of shallow socket of glenoid fossa of scapula
circumduction of shoulder
420
what is paralysis
muscle without functioning motor nerve so cannot contract and would have reduced tone
421
what is spasticity
muscle has intact motor nerve but descending controls from brain not working - increased tone
422
what is compartment syndrome
increased pressure caused by swelling and affects functions of muscles of nerves (fasciotomy to relieve pressure in emergency)
423
what is a fibrous joint
limited mobility, stable syndesmoses (unites bone with fibrous sheet)sutures (between bones of skull)fontanelles (wide sutures in neonatal skull)
424
what is a cartilaginous joint
fairly limited mobilityprimary - joins bones e.g. epiphyseal growth platesecondary - fibrocartilage e.g. intervertebral disc
425
what are the features of a synovial joint
2 or more bones articulating articular surfaces covered in hyaline cartilage a capsule wraps around jointcontains joint cavitysupported by ligamentsassociated with bursae (prevents friction)other special features (articular disc in TMJ joint)
426
what are the types of synovial joint
pivot (Atlanto-axial joint - turns neck)ball and socket (hip)plane (acromioclavicular joint)hinge (elbow)biaxial (fingers)
427
what is subluxation
reduced area of contact between articular surfaces
428
what is dislocation
complete loss of contact between surfaces
429
what happens in the dislocation of TMJ
head of condylar process of mandible becomes stuck anterior to articular tubercle of temporal bone
430
what forms the pelvic roof
parietal peritoneum (lining of abdominal cavity)
431
what is the most inferior part of the part of the peritoneal cavity in an upright female patient
rectouterine pouch
432
what is the three layers of the uterus wall
perimetrium, myometrium and endometrium
433
how is an unfertilised ovum expelled
contraction of myometrium
434
how is testes developed
originate on posterior wall of abdominal cavity then descent into scrotum via inguinal canal
435
what produces sperm
seminiferous tubulessperm pass to rete testis into head of epididymis which becomes vas deferens
436
what does the spermatic cord (passes through abdominal wall) contain
vas deferens, testicular artery and pampiniform plexus of veins
437
what is the role of the seminal gland
produces seminal fluid connects with vas to form ejaculatory duct containing semen (sperm and fluid)
438
how does an erection form
3 cylinders of erectile tissue become angorged with blood at arterial pressure
439
which muscle prevents drooling
orbicularis oris
440
what is tonsils at back of mouth called
palatine tonsils
441
what are the extrinsic muscles of the mouth
4 pairs which attach tongue to bony skeleton and moves tongue around during mastication, speech and swallowing
442
what are intrinsic muscles of the mouth
4 pairs in various directions which change shape of tongue during friction
443
what are the three major saliva glands
parotid (near ear)submandibular (under mandible)sublingual (under tongue)
444
what are the 3 parts of the pharynx
nasopharynx, oropharynx and laryngopharynx - last 2 used in resp and GI pathway to risk of aspirating material into respiratory tract
445
what is role of oesophagus and at which vertebrae does It pierce diaphragm
transmits food etc from pharynx to stomachgradual transition of skeletal to smooth muscleT10 vertebrae
446
what is role of small intestine and what is the three parts
transit, digestion and absorption (proximal to distal) duodenum, jejunum and Ileum
447
what is role of large intestine
transit, reabsorption of H2O and electrolytes stool formation
448
what kind of pain does a patient with GI tract obstruction experience
colicky pain - comes and goes response is increased peristalsis proximal to site of obstruction
449
what is the role of cricopharyngeal sphincter
junction between laryngopharynx and oesophagus - prevent regurgatation
450
what is role of pyloric sphincter
junction between stomach and duodenum - control relieve of chyme from stomach
451
what is role of external anal sphincter
control release of stool
452
what is components of the foregut and what artery supplies it
oesophagus to mid-duodenumliver and gall bladderspleen1/2 of pancreascoeliac trunk of abdominal aorta
453
what is components of midgut and what artery supples it
mid duodenum to proximal 2/3rds of transverse colon1/2 of pancreassuperior mesenteric artery
454
what is components of handgun and what artery supplies it
distal 1/3 of transverse colon to proximal 1/2 of anal canalinferior mesenteric artery
455
what is a peripheral nerve
bunch of axons wrapped in connective tissue
456
CN I and location
olfactory nerve - forebrain
457
CN II and location
optic nerve - forebrain
458
CN III and location
oculomotor nerve - midbrain
459
CN IV and location
trochlear nerve - midbrain
460
CN V and location
trigeminal nerve - pons
461
CN VI and location
abducent nerve - junction (pons and medulla)
462
CN VII and location
facial nerve - junction (pons and medulla)
463
CN VIII and location
vestibulocochlear nerve - junction (pons and medulla)
464
CN IX and location
glossopharyngeal nerve - medulla
465
CN X and location
vagus nerve - medulla
466
CN XI and location
spinal accessory nerve - spinal cord
467
CN XII and location
hypoglossal nerve - medulla
468
how are spinal nerves named
according to vertebrae above it except in cervical region when named according to vertebrae below e.g. c8 exists between c7 and t1
469
what is conus medullaris
L1/L2 IV disc level where spinal cord ends
470
what is cauda equine
lumber and sacral spinal nerve roots descending in vertebral canal to their respective intervertebral foraminae - horse tail
471
what is a dermatome
area of skin supplied by both anterior and posterior rami
472
what is at T4 dermatone
male nipple
473
what is at T10 dermatone
umbilicus
474
what is a nerve plexus
network of intertwined anterior rami
475
what nerves are in brachial plexus C5-T1
axillary nerve, median nerve, musculocutaneous nerve, radial nerve and ulnar nerve
476
how are sympathetic nerve signals passed
originate from brain, exit spinal cord with T1-L2, travel to sympathetic chains, pass into all spinal nerves and hitch a ride to splanchnic nerves where they supply organs
477
how are parasympathetic nerve signals passed
leave CNA via cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X via sacral spinal nerves
478
what does vagus nerve supply
organs of neck, chest and abdomen
479
what is role of sacral spinal nerves
carry parasympathetic axons to hindgut, pelvis and perineum
480
what does the somatic NS supply
body wall and external environment
481
what does the autonomic NS supply
supplies visceral motor system and internal environment
482
what do mechanoreceptors sense
course touch, fine touch, vibration and proprioception
483
what do nociceptors sense
pain
484
somatic sensation is linked with posterior nerves and is 3 neurone chain. What are these 3 neurones?
primary somatosensory area, sensory homunculus and motor homunculus
485
what is motor innervation associated with
anterior nerves before they synapse onto skeletal muscle of lower limb and muscles contract
486
characteristics of upper motor neurone
opposite side from movement, axons cross at brainstem, upper motor neurone lesion
487
characteristics of lower motor neurone
same side as movement, connect to skeletal muscle, lower motor neurone lesion
488
what is ischaemia
problem in which there is reduced blood flow
489
what is cockily pain
obstruction, will be dull, achy and poorly localised
490
test sensitivity
proportion of those who have disease who are correctly identified with positive test (same as negative predictive value)
491
test specificity
proportion of those who do not have disease who are correctly identified by negative test (same as positive predictive value)
492
1-Negative predictive value
% of people with negative result who have health problem
493
prevalence
number of cases of a disease present in a population at a specific point in time / number of persons at risk of having the disease at that point in time
494
incidence rate
number of NEW cases of a disease occurring in population during specific period of time / number of persons exposed to risk of developing disease during that period
