Private Oral Exam (blue book) Flashcards

Question

What causes a stall?

Answer 1

Excessive angle of attack

Answer 2

A excessive critical angle of attack while applying excessive or insufficient rudder

Answer 3

The result of the earth's surface altering the airflow patterns around the plane. Induced drag decreases and excessive speeds causes floating.

Answer 4

Moment - weight of item x's arm C.G - the balancing point Datum - imaginary vertical plane from which all measurements of arm is taken

Answer 5

Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS) * Used to get weather information at non-towered airports. * Updated each minute * Can be found in A/FD

Answer 6

Contant Flight Standard District Office (FSDO) for a special flight permit.

Answer 7

For international flights

Answer 8

ARROW ## Footnote **A**irworthiness certification w/ valid inspections & AD's **R**egistration **R**adio Certification **O**perator's manual **W**eight & Balance

Answer 9

Blue 100 Low Lead

Answer 10

The conflict between the information given by the instruments, and peripheral vision senses movement.

Answer 11

There are 3 semicircular canals in the ear that sences pitch, yaw, and roll. When it subjected to the different forces of flight, it sends misleading signals called **vestibular disorientation** producing feelings of instability and motion sickness.

Answer 12

Tricycle type with steerable nose and two main wheels Shock absorbent * Spring steel for 2 main landing struts * Air/oil for nose landing Main gear wheel is equipped with hydraulic single-disc brake.

Answer 13

(14 CFR 91.213, 14 CFR 21.197) A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight. These permits are typically issued for the following purpose: a. Flying an aircraft to a base where repairs, alteration or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage. b. Delivering or exporting an aircraft. c. Production flight testing new-production aircraft. d. Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger. e. Conducting customer demonstration flights in new-production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests. Obtained by FSDO or designated airworthiness representative (DAR).

Answer 14

The altitude altitude or elevation corrected for non standard pressure and indicated when the altimeter barometric scale is set to 29.92. 29.92 is equivalent to the air pressure at mean sea level (MSL) in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)

Answer 15

1. May not act as pilot-in-command if aircraft is carrying passengers or properly for compensation 2. Can not pay less than the share of operating expenses. (fuel, oil, fees, etc) 3. May act as PIC of aircraft that is directly incidental to the business. (form point a to b like your car) 4. 3.May act as PIC if demonstrating an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer and private pilot is an aircraft salesman and has at least 200 hours logged flight time.

Answer 16

It is the vertical distance above sea level in the *standard atmosphere* at which a given density is found. It is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.

Answer 17

Lycoming Horizontally opposed 160 horsepower, 2700 RPM Direct drive Aircooled Wet sump oil system

Answer 18

* Single-disc, hydraulically-actuated brake on each main landing gear. * The brakes are connected **by** hydraulic line **to** the master cylinder, then to **each** rudder pedal.

Answer 19

Takeoff Landing Cruise Flight

Answer 20

**_PARE_** ## Footnote **P**ower idle **A**ilerons neutral (flaps up) **R**udder opposite of spin **E**levator neutral

Answer 21

Total load support by the wing divided by the total weight of the plane.

Answer 22

1. Overload may cause A/C damage 2. increased load factor increases stalling speeds.

Answer 23

By changing either the... 1. Airspeed 2. Angle of attack 3. Flaps

Answer 24

A form of Hypemic Hypoxia where carbon monoxide does not allow oxygen to attach to any of the cells.

Answer 25

PM's Simple or minor operations & replacements of small standard parts not involving complex operations that any pilot can do.

Answer 26

1. Controlled airspace E 2. Uncontrolled Airspace G 3. Other airspace 4. Special Use Airspace * warning * alert * M.O.A * controlled firing

Answer 27

VSI - goes to zero Altimeter - Freezes Airspeed - looks normal but inaccurate * At altitudes above block point - airspeed moves slower * At altitudes below block point - airpseed moves faster.

Answer 28

Proof of flight Any endorsements Any flight reviews

Answer 29

Parasite 1. Parasite drag - caused by aircraft surface interference 2. Form drag - turbulent wake caused by seperation of airflow from surface structure 3. Skin drag - roughness of aircraft surface Induced 1. Induced drag - a by-product of lift. The greater the A.O.A, the more this drag is produced.

Answer 30

1. High altitude airplanes - service 25,000 ft 2. Tailwheel airplane.

Answer 31

The increased lift on the side of a plane during a turn also has an increase in drag. This causes the nose of the plane to turn to the side with the most drag.

Answer 32

In order... 1. Slower acceleration 2. Longer takeoff distance 3. Higher liftoff (V_R) speed 4. Increased drag

Answer 33

Average height - 10,000 feet Speed limits * Unlimited over 10,000 ft * 250kts inside airspace * 200 underneath any of its shelfs

Answer 34

Angle between longitudinal axis and chord line.

Answer 35

As the velocity of a fluid or air increases, its internal pressure decreases.

Answer 36

A demostration of Newton's 3rd law - For every action, there is a an equal and opposite reaction. Because the propeller is rotating in one direction, it forces the airplane to rotate in the opposite direction.

Answer 37

1. Logged flight review within the past 24 months 2. To carry passengers - 3 takeoff and landings within 90 days. 3. To fly tail-wheel - 3 takeoff and landing to a FULL STOP within 90 days 4. To fly night ( the time between 1hr after sunset and 1hr before sunrise) - 3 takeoff and landing to a FULL STOP within 90 days

Answer 38

33ft DUC ## Footnote **30** days after death **3** years for renewal **F**oriegn ownership **T**ransfered **D**estroyed **U**.S citizenship loss **C**ancelled

Answer 39

1. Controlled Airspace A,B,C,D 2. Special Use Airspace * Restricted * Prohibited

Answer 40

Owner or Operator

Answer 41

Pilot in Command

Answer 42

1. An aircraft with 200 or more horsepower 2. A one-time endorsement is needed in your log book from your instructor to operate.

Answer 43

Lower stall speeds Higher cruise speeds Less stable

Answer 44

Higher stall speed Slower cruise speed More stable Greater back elevator pressure required - longer takeoff roll

Answer 45

Aviation Routine Weather Report Issued every hour and only valid for that hour.

Answer 46

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast Issued every 6 hours 4x's daily. Covers a 5 mile radius.

Answer 47

Area Forecast General weather covering several states issued every 8 hours Different sections of F.A: * **Header section** - valid for 8 hrs * **Precautionary Statement** - valid for 12 hrs * **Synopsis** - valis for 18hrs * VF**R Weather** (12hrs) **and Outlook** (6hrs) - valid for 18 hrs

Answer 48

When the tissue is NOT getting enough oxygen. 1. **Hypoxic hypoxia** - when accending too quickly in altitude (Can't get O₂) 2. **Hypemic Hypoxia** - the blood can't carry oxygen (Can't carry O₂) Ex: Anemia 3. **Stagnant Hypoxia** - Poor circulation of oxygen (Can't circulate O₂) 4. **Histoxic Hypoxia** - cells don't accept oxygen (Can't use O₂) Ex: Alchohol, drugs.

Answer 49

**Empty weight** - airframe, engine, all items permanetly installed, hydraulic fluid, unusuable fuel, and undranable oil **Gross weight** - Maximum allowable weight **Useful load** - weight of pilot & co-pilot, passengers & baggage, Unusable fuel & undranable oil. **Arm** - horizontal distance in inches from reference datum line to the C.G of an item.

Answer 50

The body as TOO MUCH Oxygen Can be caused when emotional stress increases the breathing rate and depletes the carbon dioxide from the body. This may: * Decrease reaction time * Impair judgement * Produce a drowsiness feeling Breathing into a bag or talking outload to increase carbon dioxide is a normal cure.

Answer 51

Category - A broad classification. (Airplane, Glider, Balloon etc) Class - Within the same category having similar characteristics (single engine, multi-engine, etc) Type - Specific make and models (C172, Cirrus SR22,etc)

Answer 52

A complex airplane has * Retractable landing gear * Flaps * Controllable pitch prop

Answer 53

**Airmets** (**AIR**man's **MET**eorological Information) - * advises of weather that maybe hazardous, other than convective activity, to single engine, other light aircraft, and Visual Flight Rule (VFR) pilots. * affect an area of at least 3000 square miles * routinely issued for 6 hour periods. **Valid for no more than 6 hours** **Sigmets**(**SIG**nificant **MET**eorological Information) * Severe Icing (not associated with thunderstorms), Severe Turbulence (not associated with thunderstorms), Duststorms and sandstorms lowering visibility to less than three miles * affect an area of at least 3000 square miles * has a maximum forecast period **valid of 4 hours (6 hours for hurricanes).** **Convective Sigmets** - severe convective activity, which implies severe turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear. Specifically * Embedded thunderstorms * A line of thunderstorms * Thunderstorms with heavy precipitation affecting 40%+ of an area at least 3,000 square miles * Surface winds 50+ knots due to severe thunderstorm * Hail 3/4+ inches in diameter * Tornadoes * Issued every hour (at H+55), **Valid for 2 hours.**

Answer 54

**H**azardous **I**n-flight **W**eather **A**dvisory **S**ervice (HIWAS) 1. Continuous broadcast of advisories including summarized AWW, SIGMET, Convective SIGMET, CWA, AIRMET, and urgent PIREP reportsA 2. RTCC will announce HIWAS update one time (unless emergency)

Answer 55

WARM PC ## Footnote Warning Alert Restricted M.O.A Prohibited Controlled firing

Answer 56

Airspeed is REVERSED ## Footnote Climbing will give the airspeed indicator a FASTER reading Decending will give the airspeed indicator a SLOWER reading.

Answer 57

The airspeed drops and reads 0

Answer 58

It effects... 1. Lift produced by the wings 2. Power engine output 3. Propeller efficiency 4. Drag

Answer 59

1. Type certification is a regulatory process that the FAA uses to ensure that aircraft manufacturers comply with Federal Airworthiness Regulations. 2. To obtain a TC, the manufacturer must demonstrate to the FAA that the aircraft or product being submitted for approval complies with all applicable FARs. 3. Only after a aircraft is produced under a type certified design, it is then issued a standard airworthiness certificate

Answer 60

Airmet Sierra - areas of IFR Airmet Tango - areas of turbulence Airmet Zulu - areas of icing **Valid for 6 hrs**

Answer 61

1. Normal 2. Freiz 3. Differential

Answer 62

Maneuvering speed (V_A) increases with an increase in weight and decreases with a decrease in weight.

Answer 63

1. Altitude 2. Temperature 3. Humidity

Answer 64

1. Altitude 2. Temperature 3. Humidity

Answer 65

VFR flight requires adequate fuel to reach the first airport of intended landing with enough remaining fuel to fly an additional 30 minutes. At night, it’s enough fuel to fly to the airport and remain flying an additional 45 minutes. (A prudent pilot will always allow for at least one hour of reserve fuel.)

Answer 66

The TEMPO group is used for any conditions in wind, visibility, weather, or sky condition which are expected to last for generally less than an hour at a time (occasional), and are expected to occur during less than half the time period. The TEMPO indicator is followed by a four-digit group giving the beginning hour and ending hour of the time period during which the temporary conditions are expected. ex: Three thousand scattered with occasional ceilings three thousand broken between 1900Z and 2300Z.

Answer 67

The FM group is used when a rapid change, usually occuring in less than one hour, in prevailing conditions is expected. Typically, a rapid change of prevailing conditions to more or less a completely new set of prevailing conditions is associated with a synoptic feature passing through the terminal area (cold or warm frontal passage). Appended to the FM indicator is the four-digit hour and minute the change is expected to begin and continues until the next change group or until the end of the current forecast. ## Footnote A FM group will mark the beginning of a new line in a TAF report. Each FM group contains all the required elements -- wind, visibility, weather, and sky condition. Weather will be omitted in FM groups when it is not significant to aviation. FM groups will not include the contraction NSW. EX: FM1430 OVC020 - After 1430Z ceiling two thousand overcast

Answer 68

The BECMG group is used when a gradual change in conditions is expected over a longer time period, usually two hours. The time period when the change is expected is a four-digit group with the beginning hour and ending hour of the change period which follows the BECMG indicator. The gradual change will occur at an unspecified time within this time period. Only the conditions are carried over from the previous time group. ## Footnote Example: OVC012 BECMG 1416 BKN020 - Ceiling one thousand two hundred overcast. Then a gradual change to ceiling two thousand broken between 1400Z and 1600Z.

Answer 69

**Date and Time of Origin: ie. (051130Z)** This element is the UTC date and time the forecast is actually prepared. The format is a two-digit date and four-digit time followed, without a space, by the letter Z. Routine TAFs are prepared and filed approximately one-half hour prior to scheduled issuance times. TAFs are scheduled for issuance foure times daily at 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z. Example: 091050Z - Forecast prepared on the ninth day of the month at 1050Z. **Valid Period Date and Time: ie. (051212)** The UTC valid period of the forecast is a two-digit date followed by the two-digit beginning hour and two-digit ending hour. Routine TAFs are valid for 24-hours. Valid periods beginning at 0000Z shall be indicated as 00. Valid periods ending at 0000Z shall be indicated as 24. The 24 indication applies to all time group ending times. Examples: * 091212 - Forecast valid from the ninth at 1200Z til the tenth at 1200Z. * 110024 - Forecast valid from the eleventh at 0000Z till the twelfth at 0000Z. * 010524 - Amended forecast valid from the first at 0500Z till the second at 0000Z.

Answer 70

**NOTAM, "NOtice To AirMen",** are notices containing essential flight operation information not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means. Types of NOTAM's NOTAM(D): Information that requires wide dissemination and pertains to enroute navigational aids, civil public use landing areas listed in the Airports Facility Directory and aeronautical data related to IFR operations. FDC: Information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight including, but not limited to, changes to charts, procedures, and airspace usage. It includes TFRs. **Notices to Airmen is published every 28 days**

Answer 71

1. Grab E6B and put -1C over 8,000 feet pressure altitude. 2. Read outer scale (TAS) of 140 and follow to inner scale (CAS). Should read about 125. 3. Then go to POH in the _Airspeed Calibration_ section and find the IAS for the CAS

Answer 72

Lower by 150 feet. (30. 11 - 29.96 = 0.15). At the standard pressure lapse rate of 1" Hg = 1,000 feet in altitude, the amount of change equals 150 feet. Each .01 = 10 feet. * *From High to Low Look out Below**

Answer 73

121.5 MHz It is monitored by most air traffic control towers, FSS services, national air traffic control centers, and other flight and emergency services, as well as by many airliners.

Answer 74

7500 – Hijack 7600 – Lost Comm (radio failure) 7700 – Emergency 1200 - Visual Flight Rules (VFR) flight, this is the standard code used in North American airspace when no other has been assigned

Answer 75

**Aircraft on the Ground** Steady green - Cleared for takeoff Flashing green - Cleared for taxi Steady red - STOP Flashing red - Taxi clear of the runway in use Flashing white - Return to starting point on airport Alternating red and green - Exercise Extreme Caution **Aircraft in Flight** Steady green - Cleared to land Flashing green - Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time Steady red - Give way to other aircraft and continue circling Flashing red - Airport unsafe, do not land Flashing white - Not applicable Alternating red and green - Exercise Extreme Caution

Answer 76

Runway centerline lights are white until the last 3000 ft of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2000 ft and for the last 1000 ft of the runway, ## Footnote

Answer 77

Emergency locator transmitter 121.5 MHz

Answer 78

**Even thousands** plus 500 for **WEST** headings 180 - 359 degrees **Odd thousands** plus 500 for **EAST** headings 360 to 179 degrees Magnetic courses begin at 3,000 ft AGL to 18,000 MSL

Answer 79

When in class C, B or A airspace, above 10,000 feet or within any 30 nm radius Mode C veil

Answer 80

sequencing separation collision avoidance

Answer 81

Flight Watch is the common name for Enroute Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) It is limited to: en route weather updates collection of pilot weather reports (PIREPs) The service is available on a single common frequency, 122.0 MHz, to flights operating below Flight Level 180

Answer 82

(14 CFR 91.407) No person may operate or carry passengers in any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventative maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate a. Flies the aircraft; b. Makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made; and c. Logs the flight in the aircraft records.

Answer 83

14 CFR 91.213 Yes, under specific conditions. 14 CFR Part 91 describes acceptable methods for the operation of an aircraft with certain inoperative methods for the operation of an aircraft with certain inoperative instruments and equipment that are not essential for safe flight – they are : a. Operation of aircraft with a Minimum Equipment List (MEL), as authorized by 14 CFR 91.213(a) b. Operation of aircraft without a MEL under 14 CFR 91.213(d)

Answer 84

When inoperative equipment is found during preflight or prior to departure, the decision should be to cancel the flight, obtain maintenance prior to flight, or to defer the item or equipment. Maintenance deferrals are not used for in flight discrepancies. The manufacturer’s AFM/POH procedures are to be used in those situations

Answer 85

The use of an MEL for a small, non-turbine-powered airplane operated under Part 91 allows for the deferral of inoperative items or equipment. The FAA considers an approved MEL to be a supplemental type certificate (STC) issued to an aircraft by serial number and registration number. Once an operator requests an MEL, and a Letter of Authorization (LOA) is issued by the FAA, then the MEL becomes mandatory for that airplane. All maintenance deferrals must be done in accordance with the MEL and the operator-generated procedures document.

Answer 86

The pilot determines whether the inoperative equipment is required by type design, the regulations, or Ads. If the inoperative item is not required, and the airplane can be safely operated without it, the deferral may be made. Then the pilot removes or deactivates the inoperative item, and places an INOPERATIVE placard near the appropriate switch, control, or indicator. If deactivation or removal involves maintenance (removal always will), it must be accomplished by certificated maintenance personnel. For example, if the position lights (installed equipment) were discovered to be inoperative prior to a daytime flight, the pilot would follow the requirements of section 91.213(d).

Answer 87

(14 CFR 91.409) ## Footnote The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

Answer 88

(14 CFR Part 43) ## Footnote No difference exist when comparing the content of an annual inspection with that of a 100-hour inspection. The difference is who is allowed to perform these inspections. Only an A&P mechanic with an Inspection Authorization can perform an annual inspection. 100-hour inspections may be performed by any A&P mechanic (no IA required).

Answer 89

Aircraft owners must: ## Footnote a. Have a current Airworthiness Certificate and Aircraft Registration in the aircraft. b. Maintain the aircraft in an airworthy condition including compliance with all applicable Airworthiness Directives. c. Ensure maintenance is properly recorded. d. Keep abreast of current regulations concerning the operation of that aircraft. e. Notify the FAA Civil Aviation Registry immediately of any change of permanent mailing address, or of the sale or export of the aircraft, or of the loss of citizenship. f. Have a current FCC radio station license if equipped with radios, including emergency locator transmitter (ELT), if operated outside of the United States.

Answer 90

Low Pressure – inward, upward, and counterclockwise High Pressure – outward, downward, and clockwise

Answer 91

A trough (also called a trough line) is an elongated area of relatively low atmosphere pressure. At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot go outward against the pressure gradient, nor can it go downward into the ground; it must go upward. Therefore, a low or trough is an area of rising air. Rising air is conductive to cloudiness and precipitation; hence he general association of low pressure and bad weather.

Answer 92

A ridge (also called a ridge line) is an elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure. Air moving out of a high or ridge depletes the quantity of air; therefore, these are areas of descending air. Descending air favors dissipation of cloudiness; hence the association of high pressure and good weather.

Answer 93

15 °C and 29.92” Hg

Answer 94

An isobar is a line on a weather chart which connects areas of equal or constant barometric pressure. ## Footnote

Answer 95

The spacing of isobars on these charts defines how steep or shallow a pressure gradient is. When isobars are spaced very close together, a steep pressure gradient exists which indicates higher wind speeds. A shallow pressure gradient (isobars not close together) usually means wind speeds will be less.

Answer 96

The Coriolis force.

Answer 97

Surface friction.

Answer 98

1” Hg per 1,000 feet.

Answer 99

Visible moisture in the form of clouds, dew, or fog. Also, these are ideal conditions for carburetor icing.

Answer 100

The stability of the atmosphere.

Answer 101

By observing the actual lapse rate and comparing it to the standard lapse rate of 3.5 ° F per 1,000 feet. The “K” index of a stability chart is the primary means of determining stability. In general, stable air cools at a rate less than the standard lapse rate with altitude, and unstable air cools at a rate that is greater than the standard lapse rate.

Answer 102

You can estimate the height of cumuliform cloud bases using surface temperature/dew point spread. Unsaturated air in a convective current cools at about 5.4 ° F (3.0 ° C) per 1,000 feet; dew point decreases at about 1 ° F (5/9 ° C). Thus, in a convective current, temperature and dew point converge at about 4.4 ° F (2.5 ° C) per 1,000 feet. You can get a quick estimate of a convective cloud base in thousands of feet by rounding the values and dividing into the spread. When using Fahrenheit, divide by 4 and multiply by 1,000. This method of estimating is reliable only with instability, clouds and during the warmer part of the day. ## Footnote (Temperature – Dew point) / 4 \* 1,000 = Base of clouds 82-62=20 20/4=5 5\*1000=5000 feet AGL

Answer 103

The freezing level (0 ° C) can be estimated by subtracting 2 ° C per 1,000 feet (average lapse rate) from 15 ° C and then adding the result to the field elevation. For this example the freezing level will be at 8,5000 MSL. ## Footnote

Answer 104

Visible moisture and below freezing temperatures at the point moisture strikes the aircraft

Answer 105

Structural and Induction ## Footnote • **Induction Icing:** Icing in the power plant – Carburetor Icing • Air is cooled with adiabatic expansion and endothermic evaporation of the fuel. • Cooled below 0oC and Ice forms • Carburetor icing is 51% of all icing accidents • Can occur in SKC with OAT well above freezing • Check your POH for when carburetor heat is needed • Carb Heat reduces power, but isbetter than no power – Jet Engine: Can develop ice in taxi, takeoff, & climb **Structural Icing:** Icing on the Airframe (The outside of the airplane) –Skin temperature is 0oC or less –Decrease lift efficiency of the wings –Clogs the pitot-static system –Bad altitude, VSI, and KIAS due to clogged Pitot –Adds weight to plane: may be several hundred pounds of ice.

Answer 106

Clear ice – forms when large drops strike the aircraft surface and slowly freeze. Rime ice – small drops strike the aircraft and freeze rapidly. Mixed ice – combination of above; super cooled water drops varying in size. Frost – ice crystal deposits formed by sublimation when temperature and dew point are below freezing.

Answer 107

Change course and/or altitude; usually, climb to a higher altitude, if possible.

Answer 108

Yes, because while frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing, the roughness of its surface spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing a slowing of airflow. This slowing of the flow of air causes early airflow separation, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. It is also possible that, once airborne, an aircraft could have insufficient margin of airspeed above stall so that moderate gusts or turning flight could produce incipient or complete stalling.

Answer 109

A source of lift (heating, fast-moving front) Unstable air (nonstandard lapse rate) High moisture content (temperature / dew point close)

Answer 110

* *Cumulus Stage** – Updrafts cause raindrops to increase in size. * *Mature Stage** – Rain at earth’s surface; it falls through or immediately beside the updrafts; lightning; perhaps roll clouds. * *Dissipating stage** – Downdrafts and rain begin to dissipate.

Answer 111

An inversion is an increase in temperature with height – a reversal of the normal decrease with height. An inversion aloft permits warm rain to fall through cold air below. Temperature in the cold air can be critical to icing. A ground-based inversion favors poor visibility by trapping fog, smoke, and other restrictions into low levels of the atmosphere. The air is stable, with little or no turbulence.

Answer 112

a. Cool air to the dew point b. Adding moisture to the air

Answer 113

a. Radiation fog b. Advection fog c. Upslope fog d. Precipitation –induced fog e. Ice fog

Answer 114

The ground cools the adjacent air to the dew point on calm, clear nights.

Answer 115

Advection fog results from the transport of warm humid air over a cold surface. A pilot can expect advection fog to form primarily along coastal areas during the winter. Unlike radiation fog, it may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over a wide geographic area, and at any time of the day or night.

Answer 116

Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Upslope fog is often quite dense and extends to high altitudes.

Answer 117

Wind shear is defines as the rate of change of wind velocity (direction and / or speed) per unit distance; conventionally expressed as vertical or horizontal wind shear. It may occur at any level in the atmosphere but three areas are of special concern ## Footnote Wind Shear with a low-level temperature inversion. Wind Shear in a frontal zone or thunderstorm. Clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.

Answer 118

Wind shear is an operational concern because unexpected changes in wind speed and direction can be potentially very hazardous to aircraft operations at low altitudes on approach to and departing from airports.

Answer 119

The primary source is an individual briefing obtained from a briefer at the AFSS/FSS. These briefings, which are tailored to your specific flight, are available 24 hours a day through the use of the toll-free number (1-800-WX BRIEF).

Answer 120

Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) (AFSS) Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB) Telephone Access to TWEB (TEL-TWEB) Weather and aeronautical information from numerous private industry sources The Direct User Access System (DUATS)

Answer 121

Numbers for these services can be found in the Airport / Facility Directory under the “FAA and NWS Telephone Numbers” section. They are also listed in the U.S. Government section of the local telephone directory.

Answer 122

Request when you need information t supplement mass disseminated data, update a previous briefing, or when you need only one or two items.

Answer 123

Request whenever your proposed time of departure is six or more hours form the time of the briefing; for planning purpose only.

Answer 124

Request when needed to update a preflight briefing

Answer 125

Adverse Conditions VFR Flight Not Recommended Synopsis Current Conditions En route Forecast Destination Forecast Winds Aloft Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) ATC Delay Pilots may obtain the following from AFSS/FSS briefers upon request: Information on MRTs and MOAs, a review of printed NOTAM publications, approximate density altitude information, information on air traffic services and rules, customs / immigration procedures, ADIZ rules, search and rescue, LORAN, NOTAM, GPS RAIM availability, and other assistance as required.

Answer 126

En route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) is a service specifically designed to provide en route aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intended, route of flight, and altitude. In conjunction with this service, EFAS is also a central collection and distribution point for pilot reported weather information (PIREPs). EFAS provides for communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 feet above ground; level to 17,5000 feet MSL on a common frequency of 122.0 MHz. It is also known as “Flight Watch.”

Answer 127

Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories including summarized Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs, and urgent PIREPs. HIWAS is an additional source of hazardous weather information which makes this data available on a continuous basis.

Answer 128

METAR, or Aviation Routine Weather Report : An hourly surface observation of conditions observed at an airport.

Answer 129

Example : **METAR KLAX 140651Z AUTO 00000KT ISM R35L/4500V6000FT – RA BR BKN030 10/10 A2990 RMK AO2** Type of reports – the METAR, and the SPECI (aviation special weather report). ICAO Station identifier – 4-letter station identifiers; in the conterminous U.S., the 3-letter identifier is prefixed with K. Date and time of report – a 6-digit date/time group appended with Z (UTC). First two digits are the date, then two for the hour, and the two for minutes. Modifier (as required) – if used, the modifier AUTO identifies the report as an automated weather report with no human intervention. If AUTO is shown in the body of the report, AO1 or AO2 will be encoded in the remarks section to indicate the type of precipitation sensor used at the station. Wind – 5-digit group (6 digits if speed is over 99 knots); first three digits = wind direction, in tens of degrees referenced to true north. Directions less than 100 degrees are preceded with a zero; next two digits are the average speed in knots, measured or estimated (or, if over 99 knots, the next three digits). Visibility : prevailing visibility – statue miles, space, fractions of statue miles ( as needed), and the letters SM. Runway visual range (RVR), as required. Weather phenomena – broken into two categories: qualifiers, and weather phenomena. Sky condition – amount/height/type (as required) or indefinite ceiling/height (vertical visibility). Temperature/dew point group – 2-digit format in whole degrees Celsius, separated by a solidus(/). Temperature below zero are prefixed with M. Altimeter – 4-digit format representing tens, units, tenths, and hundredths of inches of mercury prefixed with A. The decimal point is not reported or stated. Remarks (RMK), as required – operational significant weather phenomena, location of phenomena, beginning and ending times, direction of movement.

Answer 130

**Manual Observations** – reports made from airport locations staffed by FAA or NES personnel. **AWOS** – Automated Weather Observing System; consists of various sensors, a processor, a computer-generated voice sub-system, and a transmitter to broadcast local, minute-by-minute weather data directly to the pilot. Observations will include the prefix AUTO in data. **AWOS Broadcasts** – computer-generated voice is used to automate the broadcast of minute-by-minute weather observations. **ASOS** – Automated Surface Observing System; the primary7 U.S. surface weather observing system. Up to 993 systems installed throughout the U.S. providing minute-by-minute observations generating METARs and other aviation weather information. Transmitted over a discrete VHF radio frequency or the voice portion of a local NAVAID. ASOS included the prefix “AUTO” in the report data.

Answer 131

ese reports contain information concerning weather as observed by pilots en route. Required elements for all PIREPs are message type, location, time (in UTC), flight level (altitudes are MSL), type of aircraft, and at least one weather element encountered (visibility in SM, distances in NM). A PIREP (abbreviation for “Pilot Reports”) is usually transmitted as an individual report but can be appended to a surface aviation weather report or placed into collectives. Also referred to in code reported as “UA”.

Answer 132

General areas of precipitation, including rain, snow, and thunderstorms, can be observed by radar. The radar weather report (SD) includes the type, intensity, and location of the echo top of the precipitation. All heights are reported above MSL. Radar stations report each hour at H+35. SDs should be used along with METARs, satellite photos, and forecasts when planning a flight, to help in thunderstorm area avoidance. But once airborne, depend on Flight Watch, which has the capability to display current radar images, airborne radar, or visual sighting to evade individual storms.

Answer 133

An Aviation Terminal Forecasts (TAF) is a concise statement of the expected **meteorological conditions within a 5-SM radius from the center of an airport’s runway complex during a 24-hour time period**. The TAFs use the same weather code found in METAR weather reports, in the following format: Type of reports – a routine forecast (TAF); and an amended forecast, TAF AMD ICAO station identifier – 4-letter station identifiers. Date and time of origin – the date and UTC the forecast is actually prepared; 2-digit date, and 4-digit time, (no space) followed by the letter Z. Valid period date and time – valid forecast period is a 2-sigit date followed by the 2-digit beginning and 2-digit ending hours in UTC. Routine TAFs are valid for 24 hours and are issued four times daily at 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z. Forecasts – wind, significant weather, sky condition, non-convective low-level wind shear, change indicators, probability.

Answer 134

A forecast of visual meteorological conditions (VMC), clouds, and general weather conditions over an area the size of several states. To understand the complete weather picture, the FA must be used along with in flight weather advisories to determine forecast en route weather and to interpolate conditions at airports where no TAFs are issued. FAs are issued 3 times a day by the Aviation Weather Center (AWC) for each of the 6 areas in the contiguous 48 states. The weather forecast office (WFO) in Honolulu issues FAs for Hawaii. The Alaska Aviation Weather Unit (AAWU) in Anchorage, Alaska produces the FA for the entire state of Alaska. There are also two specialized FAs, one for the Gulf of Mexico, and one for international airspace.

Answer 135

a. **Communications and product header section** – identifies the office from which the FA is issued, the date and time of issue, the product name, the valid times and the states and/or areas covered by the FA. b. **Precautionary statement section** – between the communications/products headers and the body of the forecast are three precautionary statements which are in all Area Forecasts: SEE AIRMET SIERRA FOR IFT CONDITIONS AND MTNOBSC This alerts user that IFR conditions and/or mountain obscurement may be occurring or may be forecast to occur in a portion of the FA area. TSTMS IMPLY PSBL SVR OR GTR TURBC SVR ICG LLWS AND IFR CONDS A reminder of the hazards existing in all thunderstorms. NON MSL HGTS ARE DENOTED BY AGL OR CIG This alerts user that heights, for the most part, are heights above sea level. All heights are in hundreds of feet. The tops of clouds, turbulence, icing and freezing level heights are always MSL. Heights above ground level are noted in either of the following ways: ceilings by definition are above ground; therefore, the contraction “CIG” indicates above ground. The contraction “AGL” means above ground level; thus, if the contraction “AGL” or “CIG” is not denoted, height is automatically above MSL. c. **Synopsis section** – a brief summary of the location and movements of fronts, pressure systems, and circulation patterns for an 18-hour period. References to low ceilings and/or visibilities, strong winds, or any other phenomena the forecaster considers useful, may also be included. d. **VFR Clouds and Weather section** – contains a 12-hour specific forecast, followed by a six-hour (18-hour in Alaska) categorical outlook giving a total forecast period of 18 hours (30 hours in Alaska). The VFR CLDS/WX section is usually several paragraphs long. The breakdown may be by states or by well-known geographical areas. The specific forecast section gives a general description of clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.

Answer 136

In flight aviation weather advisories are forecasts to advise en route aircraft of development of potentially hazardous weather, **in 3 types: the SIGMET, AIRMET, and Convective SIGMET**. All heights are referenced MSL, except in the case of ceilings CIG, which indicate AGL.

Answer 137

Convective SIGMETs (WST) implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low-level wind shear. They may be issued for any convective simulation which the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft. Convective SIGMET bulletins are issued for the Eastern (E), Central ( C ) and Western (W) united States (Convective SIGMETs are not issued for Alaska or Hawaii). Bulletins are issued hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are issued at any time as required and updated at H+55. The text of the bulletin consists of either an observation and a forecast, or just a forecast. The forecast is valid for up to 2 hours ## Footnote a. Severe thunderstorm due to: • Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots. • Hail at the surface greater than or equal to ¾ inches in diameter. • Tornadoes b. Embedded thunderstorms c. A line of thunderstorms d. Thunderstorms producing greater than or equal to heavy precipitation that affects 40% or more of an area at least 3,000 square miles.

Answer 138

Advisories of significant weather phenomena that describe conditions at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs, intended for use by all pilots in the preflight and en route phase of flight to enhance safety. AIRMET Bulletins are issued every 6 hours beginning at 0145 UTC during Central Daylight Time and at 0245 UTC during Central Standard Time. Unscheduled updates and corrections are issued as necessary. Each AIRMET Bulletin includes an outlook for conditions expected after the AIRMET valid period. AIRMETs contain details about IFR, extensive mountain obscuration, turbulence, strong surface wins, icing, and freezing levels.

Answer 139

NWS offices prepare transcribed weather broadcast (TWEB) text products for the contiguous U.S., including synopsis and forecast for more than 200 routes and local vicinities. TWEB products are valid for 12 hours and are issued 4 times a day at 0200Z, 0800Z, 1400Z, and 2000Z in a variety of sources (TIBS, PATWAS, and more). A TWEB route forecast or vicinity forecast will not be issued if the TAF for that airport has not been issued. A TWEB route forecast is for a 50-NM wide corridor along a line connecting the end points of the route. A TWEB local vicinity forecast covers an area with a radius of 50 NM. These forecasts describe sustained surface winds (25 knots or greater), visibility, weather and obscuration to vision, sky conditions (coverage and ceiling/cloud heights), mountain obscurement, and nonconvective low-level wind shear.

Answer 140

Winds and temperature aloft are forecasted for specific locations in the contiguous U.S., and also prepared for a network of locations in Alaska and Hawaii. Forecasts are made twice daily based on the 00Z and 12Z radiosonde data for use during specific time intervals. FDs contain the following characteristics: ## Footnote a. The valid period the FD may be used, and annotation “TEMPS NEG ABV 24000”. Since temperatures above 24,000 feet are always negative, the minus sign is omitted. b. “FT” indicates the levels of the wind and temperature data. Through 12,000, feet the levels are true altitude. From 18,000 feet and above, the levels are pressure altitude. c. A 4-digit group shows wind direction in tens of degrees, and the second 2 digits are the wind speed in knots. A 6-digit group included forecast temperatures in degrees Celsius. d. No winds are forecasted within 1,500 feet of station elevation. e. No temperatures are forecasted for any level within 2,500 feet of station elevation. f. If a wind direction is coded between 51 and 86, the wind speed is 100 knots or greater. For example, winds forecast for 39,000 feet indicate “731960”. To decode, subtract 50 from the wind direction and add 100 knots to the wind speed. Wind direction is from 230 degrees (73-50=23); speed is 119 knots (100+19=119) and temperature is -60°C. g. If the wind speed is forecasted to be 200 knots or greater, the wind group is coded as 99 knots. For example, “7799” is decoded as 270 degrees at 199 knots or greater. h. When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded group is “9900” which means, “Light and Variable”.

Answer 141

Most favorable altitude – based on winds and direction of flight. Areas of possible icing – by noting air temperatures of +2°C to -20°C. Temperature inversions. Turbulence – by observing abrupt changes in wind direction and speed at different altitudes.

Answer 142

A Center Weather Advisory (CWA) is an aviation warning for use by aircrews to anticipate and avoid adverse weather conditions in the en route and terminal environments. The CWA is not a flight planning product; instead it reflects current conditions expected at the time of issuance and/or is a short-range forecast for conditions expected to begin within 2 hours of issuance. CWAs are valid for a maximum of 2 hours. If conditions are expected to continue beyond the 2-hour valid period, a statement will be included in the CWA.

Answer 143

A national forecast of thunderstorm, in 2 parts: Day 1 Convective Outlook (first 24 hours), and Day 2 Convection Outlook (next 24 hours). Describe areas in which there is a slight, moderate, or high risk of severe thunderstorms, as well as areas of general (non-severe ) thunderstorms. The times of issuance for Day 1 are 0600Z, 1300Z, 1630Z, 2000Z, and 0100Z. The initial Day 2 issuance is at 0830Z during standard time and 0730Z during daylight time, updated at 1730Z. The AC is a flight planning tool used to avoid thunderstorms.

Answer 144

Surface Analysis Chart. Weather Depiction Chart Radar Summary Chart Significant Weather Prognostic Chart Winds and Temperatures Aloft Chart Composite Moisture Stability Chart Convective Outlook Chart Constant Pressure Analysis Chart Volcanic Ash Forecast Transport and Dispersion Chart

Answer 145

This is a computer-prepared chart that covers the contiguous 48 states and adjacent areas. The chart is transmitted every three hours. The surface analysis chart provides a ready means of locating pressure systems and fronts. It also gives an overview of winds, temperatures and dew point temperatures at chart time. When using the chart, keep in mind that weather moves and conditions change. Using the surface analysis chart in conjunction with other information gives a more complete weather picture.

Answer 146

The weather depiction chart is computer-generated (with a weather observer’s analysis of fronts) from METAR reports. This chart gives a broad overview of the observed flying category conditions at the valid time of the chart. The chart begins at 01Z each day, is transmitted at three-hour intervals, and is valid at the time of the plotted data. The plotted data for each station area are: total sky cover, cloud height or ceiling, weather and obstructions to vision and visibilities. The weather depiction chart is an ideal place to begin in preparing for a weather briefing and flight planning. From this chart one can get a “bird’s-eye” view of areas of favorable and adverse weather conditions at chart time.

Answer 147

IFR : Ceilings less than 1,000 and/or visibilities less than 3 miles (Instrument Flight Rules) MVFR: Marginal VFR) Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet inclusive and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive VFR: No ceiling, or ceiling greater than 3,000 and visibility greater than 5 miles (Visual Flight Rules)

Answer 148

Computer-generated graphical display of a collection of automated radar weather reports (SDs). The chart displays areas of precipitation as well as information about type, intensity, configuration, coverage, echo top, and cell movement of precipitation. Severe weather watches are plotted if they are in effect when the chart is valid. The chart is available hourly with a valid time of 35 minutes past each hour. This chart aids in preflight planning by identifying general areas and movement of precipitation and/or thunderstorms. Displays drop or ice particles of precipitation size only; it does not display clouds and fog. Therefore, since the absence of echoes does not guarantee clear weather, and cloud tops will most likely be higher than the tops of the precipitation echoes detected by radar, the radar summary chart must be used along with other charts, reports, and forecasts for best effectiveness.

Answer 149

Called “Progs”, these charts portray forecasts of selected weather conditions at specified valid times (12,24,36 and 48 hour progs). Each valid time is the time at which the forecast conditions are expected to occur, made from a comprehensive set of observed weather conditions. The observed conditions are extended forward in time and become forecasts by considering atmospheric and environmental processes. Forecast information for the surface to 24,000 feet is provided by the low-level significant weather progchart. Forecast information from above 24,000 to 60,000 feet is provided by the high-level significant weather prog chart.

Answer 150

It is a “Day One” forecast of significant weather for the conterminous U.S., pertaining to the layer from surface to FL240 (400mb). With two forecast periods, 12 hours and 24 hours, the chart is composed of four panels. The two lower panels depict the 12- and 24-hour surface progs, and the two upper panels depict the 12- and 24-hour significant weather progs. Issued four times a day at 00Z, 06Z, 12Z, and 18Z. Covered are forecast positions and characteristics of pressure systems, fronts, and precipitation. Much insight can be gained by evaluating the individual fields of pressure patterns, fronts, precipitation, weather flying categories, freezing levels, and turbulence displayed on the chart.

Answer 151

This chart is a computer-generated chart depicting both observed and forecast winds and temperatures aloft. Forecast winds and temperatures aloft are prepared for eight levels on eight separate panels. The levels are 6,000, 9,000, 12,000, 18,000, 24,000, 30,000, 34,000 and 39,000 feet MSL. They are available daily as 12-hour progs valid at 1200Z and 0000Z. These charts are typically used to determine winds at a proposed altitude or to select the best altitude for a proposed flight. Temperatures also can be determined from the forecast charts. Interpolation must be used to determine winds and temperatures at a level between charts and data when the time period is other than the valid time of the chart.

Answer 152

This chart depicts areas forecast to have thunderstorms, and is presented in two panels. The left-hand panel is the Day 1 Convective Outlook, and the right-hand panel is the Day 2 Convective Outlook. “Day 1” outlines areas in the continental U.S. where thunderstorms are forecasted during that period. It is issued five times daily (0600Z, 1300Z, 1630Z, 2000Z, and 0100Z) and all issuances are valid till 12Z the following day. The outlook issued qualifies the level of risk (i.e., SLGT, MDT, HIGH) as well as the areas of general thunderstorms. The Day 2 Convective Outlook contains the same information as the Day 1 chart, and is issued twice a day (0830Z and 1730Z) in a period from 12Z the following day to 12Z the next day.

Answer 153

This chart depicts areas forecast to have thunderstorms, and is presented in two panels. The left-hand panel is the Day 1 Convective Outlook, and the right-hand panel is the Day 2 Convective Outlook. “Day 1” outlines areas in the continental U.S. where thunderstorms are forecasted during that period. It is issued five times daily (0600Z, 1300Z, 1630Z, 2000Z, and 0100Z) and all issuances are valid till 12Z the following day. The outlook issued qualifies the level of risk (i.e., SLGT, MDT, HIGH) as well as the areas of general thunderstorms. The Day 2 Convective Outlook contains the same information as the Day 1 chart, and is issued twice a day (0830Z and 1730Z) in a period from 12Z the following day to 12Z the next day.

Answer 154

Any surface of equal pressure in the atmosphere is constant pressure surface. A constant pressure analysis chart is an upper air weather map where all information depicted is at the specified pressure of the chart. From these charts, a pilot can approximate the observed air temperature, wind, and temperature-dew point spread along the proposed route. They also depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft by the height contour patterns resembling isobars on a surface map. Twice daily, six computer-prepared constant pressure charts are transmitted by facsimile for six pressure levels: ## Footnote 850 mb …………………5,000 ft 700mb…………….....10,000 ft 500 mb……………….18,000 ft 300 mb……………….30,000 ft 250 mb……………….34,000 ft 200 mb……………….39,000 ft

Answer 155

This VAFTAD chart presents the relative concentrations of ash following a volcanic eruption for three layers of the atmosphere in addition to a composite of ash concentration through the atmosphere. The chart focuses on hazards to aircraft flight operations caused by volcanic eruption with an emphasis on the ash cloud location in time and space. It used National Centers for Environmental Prediction forecast data to determine the location of ash concentrations over 6-hour and 12-hour intervals. The chart is strictly for advanced flight planning purposes. It is not intended to take the place of SIGMETs regarding volcanic eruptions and ash.

Answer 156

In steady-state, straight-an-level, unaccelerated flight, the sum of the opposing forces is equal to zero. There can be no unbalanced forces in steady, straight flight (Newton’s Third Law). This is true whether flying level or when climbing or descending. This simply means that the opposing forces are equal to, and thereby cancel the effects of, each other.

Answer 157

An airfoil is a device which gets a useful reaction from air moving over its surface, namely LIFT. Wings, horizontal tail surfaces, vertical tail surfaces, and propellers are examples of airfoils.

Answer 158

The angle of incidence is the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord of the wing. It is measured by the angle at which the wing is attached to the fuselage. The angle of incidence is fixed and cannot be changed by the pilot.

Answer 159

The relative wind is the direction of the airflow with respect to the wing. When a wing is moving forward and downward the relative wind moves backward and upward. The flight path and relative wind are always parallel but travel in opposite directions.

Answer 160

The angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind; it can be changed by the pilot.

Answer 161

The pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas) decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. In the case of airflow, high speed flow is associated with low pressure and low speed flow with high pressure. The airfoil of an aircraft is designed to increase the velocity of the airflow above its surface, thereby decreasing pressure above the airfoil. Simultaneously, the impact of the air on the lower surface of the airfoil increases the pressure below. This combination of pressure decrease above and increase below produces lift.

Answer 162

Wind area – Lift and drag acting on a wing are roughly proportional to the wind area. A pilot can change wing area by using certain types of flaps (i.e., Fowler flaps). Shape of the airfoil – As the upper curvature of an airfoil is increased (up to a certain point) the lift produced increases. Lowering an aileron or flap device can accomplish this. Also, ice or frost on a wing can disturb normal airflow, changing its camber, and disrupting its lifting capability. Angle of attack – As angle of attack is increased, both lift and drag are increased, up to a certain point. Velocity of the air – An increase in velocity of air passing over the wing increases lift and drag. Air density – Lift and drag vary directly with the density of the air. As air density increases, lift and drag increase. As air density decreases, lift and drag decrease. Air density is affected by these factors: pressure, temperature, and humidity.

Answer 163

Torque effect involves Newton’s Third Law of Physics – for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. Applied to the airplane, this means that as the internal engine parts and the propeller are revolving in one direction, an equal force is trying to rotate the airplane in the opposite direction. It is greatest when at low air speeds with high power settings and a high angle of attack.

Answer 164

In flight – torque reaction is acting around the longitudinal axis, tending to make the airplane roll. To compensate, some of the older airplanes are rigged in a manner to create more lift in the wing that is being forced downward. The more modern airplanes are designed with the engine offset to counteract this effect of torque.

Answer 165

Centrifugal force is the “equal and opposite reaction” of the airplane to the change in direction, and it acts “equal and opposite” to the horizontal component of lift.

Answer 166

**Level Turns** – The load factor increases at a terrific rate after a bank has reached 45° or 50°. The load factor in a 60° - bank turn is 2 Gs. The load factor in a 80° - bank turn is 5.76 Gs. The wing must produce lift equal to these load factors if altitude is to be maintained. **Turbulence** – Severe vertical gusts cause a sudden increase in angle of attack, resulting in large loads which are resisted by the inertia of the airplane. **Speed** – The amount of excess load that can be imposed upon the wing depends on how fast the airplane is flying. At speeds below maneuvering speed, the airplane will stall before the load factor can become excessive. At speeds above maneuvering speed, the limit load factor for which an airplane is stressed can be exceeded by abrupt or excessive application of the controls or by strong turbulence.

Answer 167

The maximum safe load factors (limit load factors) specified for airplanes in the various categories are as follows: a. Normal +3.8 to -1.52 b. Utility (mild aerobatics including spins) +4.4 to -1.76 c. Aerobatic +6.0 to -3.00

Answer 168

Maneuvering speed increases with an increase in weight and decreases with a decrease in weight. An aircraft operating at a reduced weight is more vulnerable to rapid accelerations encountered during flight through turbulence or gusts. Design limit load factors could be exceeded if a reduction in maneuvering speed is not accomplished. An aircraft operating at or near gross weight in turbulent air is much less likely to exceed design limit load factors and may be operated at the published maneuvering speed for gross weight if necessary.

Answer 169

An airplane stalls when the critical angle of attack has been exceeded. When the angle of attack increases to approximately 18° to 20°, the air can no longer flow smoothly over the top wing surface. Because the airflow cannot make such a great change in direction so quickly, it becomes impossible for the air to follow the contour of the wing. This is the stalling or critical angle of attack. This can occur at any airspeed, in any attitude, with any power setting.

Answer 170

A stall/spin situation can occur in any phase of flight but is most likely to occur in the following situations: ## Footnote a. Engine failure on takeoff during climb out – pilot tries to stretch glide to landing area by increasing back pressure or makes an uncoordinated turn back to departure runway at a relatively low airspeed. b. Crossed-control turn from base to final (slipping or skidding turn) – pilot overshoots final (possibly due to a crosswind) and makes uncoordinated turn at a low airspeed. c. Engine failure on approach to landing – pilot tries to stretch glide to runway by increasing back pressure. d. Go-around with full nose-up trim – pilot applies power with full flaps and nose-up trim combined with uncoordinated use of rudder. e. Go-around with improper flap retraction- pilot applies power and retracts flaps rapidly resulting in a rapid sink rate followed by an instinctive increase in back pressure

Answer 171

Higher stall speed – stalling angle of attack is reached at a higher speed due to increased wing loading. Slower cruise speed – increased drag; greater angle of attack is required to maintain altitude. More stable - the center of gravity is farther forward from the center of pressure which increases longitudinal stability. Greater back elevator pressure required – longer takeoff roll; higher approach speeds and problems with landing flare.

Answer 172

Lower stall speed – less wing loading. Higher cruise speed – reduce drag; smaller angle of attack is required to maintain altitude. Less stable – stall and spin recovery more difficult; the center of gravity is closer to the center of pressure, causing longitudinal instability.

Answer 173

Crew and passengers ……….………….170 lbs each Gasoline …………………………………..6 lbs/U.S. gal Oil ………………………………………….7.5 lbs/U.S. Water …………………………………..….8.35 lbs/U.S. gal

Answer 174

Takeoff and landing distance Rate of climb Ceiling Payload Range Speed Fuel economy

Answer 175

Density altitude will increase ( low air density ) when one or more of the following occurs: • High air temperature • High altitude • High humidity Density altitude will decrease ( high air density ) when one or more of the following occurs : • Low air temperature • Low altitude • Low humidity

Answer 176

Vso – Stall speed in landing configuration; the calibrated power-off stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable in the landing configuration. Vs – Stall speed clean or in specified configuration; the calibrated power-off stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable in a specified configuration. Vy – Best rate-of-climb speed; the calibrated airspeed at which the airplane will obtain the maximum increase in altitude per unit of time. This best rate-of-climb speed normally decreases slightly with altitude. Vx – Best angle-of-climb speed; the calibrated airspeed at which the airplane will obtain the highest altitude in a given horizontal distance. This best angle-of-climb speed normally increases with altitude. VLE – Maximum landing gear extension speed; the maximum calibrated airspeed at which the airplane can be safely flown with the landing gear extended. This is a problem involving stability and controllability. VLO – Maximum landing gear operating speed; the maximum calibrated airspeed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted. This is a problem involving the air loads imposed on the operating mechanism during extension or retraction of the gear. VFE – Maximum flap extension speed; the highest calibrated airspeed permissible with the wing flaps in a prescribed extended position. This is a problem involving the air loads imposed on the structure of the flaps. VA – Maneuvering speed; the calibrated design maneuvering airspeed. This is the maximum speed at which the limit load can be imposed (either by gusts or full deflection of the control surfaces) without causing structural damage. VNO – Normal operating speed; the maximum calibrated airspeed for normal operation or the maximum structural cruise speed. This is the speed above which exceeding the limit load factor may cause permanent deformation of the airplane structure. VNE – Never exceed speed; the calibrated airspeed which should never be exceeded. If flight is attempted above this speed, structural damage or structural failure may result.

Answer 177

**Takeoff Performance Charts** a. Normal takeoff ground run in feet b. Obstacle clearance ground run in feet (50 feet) * *Climb Performance Charts** a. Rate of climb under various conditions b. Best climb airspeed under various conditions **Cruise Performance Charts** At various altitudes the following : a. Recommended power settings b. Percent brake horsepower c. Rate of fuel consumption (gal/hr) d. True airspeed e. Hours of endurance with full tanks f. Range in mules **Stall Speed Charts** Stall speeds with different flap settings and bank angles. * *Landing Performance Charts** a. Normal Landing distance b. Landing distance to clear a 50-foot obstacle

Answer 178

* *Elevators** – The elevators control the movement of the airplane about its lateral axis. This motion is called Pitch. * *Ailerons –** The ailerons control the airplane’s movement about its longitudinal axis. This motion is called Roll. * *Rudder** – The rudder controls movement of the airplane about its vertical axis. This motion is called Yaw. * *Trim Tabs** – Trim tabs are small, adjustable hinged-surface on the aileron, rudder, or elevator control surfaces. They are labor-saving devices that enable pilot to release manual pressure on the primary control.

Answer 179

The flight control surfaces are manually actuated through use of either a rod or cable system. A control wheel actuates the ailerons and elevator, and rubber/brake pedals actuate the rudder.

Answer 180

The wing flaps are movable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wings. They are hinged so that they may be extended downward into the flow of air beneath the wings to increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach. In some cases, they may also be used to shorten the takeoff distance.

Answer 181

Carburetion may be defined as the process of mixing fuel and air in the correct proportions so as to form a combustible mixture. The carburetor vaporizes liquid fuel into small particles and then mixes it with air. It measures the airflow and meters fuel accordingly.

Answer 182

A carburetor heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allows unfiltered, heated air from a shroud located around an exhaust riser or muffler to be directed to the induction air manifold prior to the carburetor. Carburetor heat should be used anytime suspected or known carburetor icing conditions exist.

Answer 183

Normally, the introduction of heated air into the carburetor will result in a richer mixture. Warm air is less dense, resulting in less air for the same amount of fuel.

Answer 184

The throttle allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel / air charge entering the cylinders. This in turn regulates the engine speed and power.

Answer 185

It regulates the fuel-to-air ratio. All airplane engines incorporate a device called a mixture control, by which the fuel / air ratio can be controlled by the pilot during flight. The purpose of a mixture control is to prevent the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes, due to decreasing air density. It is also used to lean the mixture during cross-country flights to conserve fuel and provide optimum power.

Answer 186

Increased safety: in case one system fails the engine may be operated on the other until a landing is safely made. More complete and even combustion of the mixture, and consequently, improved engine performance; i.e., the fuel / air mixture will be ignited on each side of the combustion chamber and burn toward the center.

Answer 187

The fuel system is a “gravity feed” system. Using gravity, the fuel flows from two wing fuel tanks to a fuel shutoff valve which, in the “on” position, allows fuel to flow through a strainer and then to the carburetor. From there, the fuel is mixed with air and then flows into the cylinders through the intake manifold tubes. Fuel Tanks Fuel Selector Valve Fuel Reservoir Tank Auxiliary Fuel Pump (Switch) Fuel Shutoff Valve (knob) Fuel Strainer FCU

Answer 188

Airplane engines are designed to operate using a specific grade of fuel as recommended by the manufacturer. If the proper grade of fuel is not available, it is possible, but not desirable, to use the next higher grade as a substitute. Always reference the aircraft’s AFM or POH.

Answer 189

Grade Color 80 Red 100 Green 100LL Blue Turbine Colorless

Answer 190

The manual primer’s main function is to provide assistance in starting the engine. The primer draws fuel from the fuel strainer and injects it directly into the cylinder intake ports. This usually results in a quicker, more efficient engine start.

Answer 191

Electrical energy is provided by a 28-volt, direct-current system powered by an engine-driven 60-amp alternator and a 24-volt battery.

Answer 192

Most of the electrical circuits in an airplane are protected from an overload condition by wither circuit breakers or fuses except that when an overload occurs, a circuit breaker can be reset.

Answer 193

Radio equipment Turn coordinator Fuel gauges Pilot heat Landing light Taxi light Strobe lights Interior lights Instrument lights Position lights Flaps (may be) Stall warning system (may be) Oil temperature gauge Electric fuel pump (may be)

Answer 194

The ammeter indicates the flow of current, in amperes, from the alternator to the battery or from the battery to the electrical system. With the engine running and master switch on, the ammeter will indicate the charging rate to the battery. If the alternator has gone off-line and is no longer functioning, or the electrical load exceeds the output of the alternator, the ammeter indicates the discharge rate of the battery.

Answer 195

The voltage regulator is a device which monitors system voltage, detects changes, and makes the required adjustments in the output of the alternator to maintain a constant regulated system voltage. It must do this at low RPM, such as during taxi, as well as at high RPM in flight. In a 28-volt system, it will maintain 28 volts + / - 0.5 volts.

Answer 196

The difference in voltage keeps the battery charged. For example, a 12-volt battery would be supplied with 14 volts.

Answer 197

Fresh air, heated by an exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of ducts.

Answer 198

Temperature is controlled by mixing outside air (cabin air control) with heated air (cabin heat control) in a manifold near the cabin firewall. This air is then ducted to vents located on the cabin floor.

Answer 199

Mineral Oil – Also known as no detergent oil. It contains no additives. This type oil is normally used after an engine overhaul or when an aircraft engine is new, for engine break-in purposes. Ash less dispersant – Mineral oil with additives. It has high anti-wear properties along with multi-viscosity (ability to perform in a wide range of temperatures). It also picks up contamination and carbon particles and keeps them suspended so that buildings and sludge do not form in the engine.

Answer 200

The vaporization of fuel, combined with the expansion of air as it passes through the carburetor, causes a sudden cooling of the mixture. The temperature of the air passing through the carburetor may drop as much as 60°F within a fraction of a second. Water vapor is squeezed only by this cooling, and if the temperature in the carburetor reaches 32°F or below, the moisture will be deposited as frost or ice inside the carburetor. For airplanes with a fixed-pitch propeller, the first indication of carburetor icing is loss of RPM. For airplanes with controllable-pitch (constant-speed) propellers, the first indication is usually a drop in manifold pressure.

Answer 201

When heat is first applied, there will be a drop in RPM in airplanes equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller; there will be a drop in manifold pressure in airplanes equipped with a controllable-pitch propeller. If ice is present there will be a rise in RPM or manifold pressure after the initial drop (often accompanied by intermittent engine roughness); and then, when the carburetor heat is turned “off”, the RPM or manifold pressure will rise to a setting greater than that before application of heat. The engine should run more smoothly after the ice has been removed.

Answer 202

Carburetor ice is most likely to occur when temperatures are below 70°F (21°C) and the relative humidity is above 80 percent. However, due to the sudden cooling that takes place in the carburetor, icing can occur even with temperatures as high as 100°F (38°C) and humidity as low as 50 percent. This temperature drop can be as much as 60° to 70° F.

Answer 203

Detonation is an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel / air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber. It causes excessive temperature and pressure which, if not corrected, can quickly lead to failure of the piston, cylinder, or valves. In less severe cases, detonation causes engine overheating, roughness, or loss of power. Detonation is characterized by high cylinder head temperatures, and is most likely to occur when operating at high power settings.

Answer 204

Corrective action for detonation may be accomplished by adjusting any of the engine controls which will reduce both temperature and pressure of the fuel air charge. ## Footnote a. Reduce power. b. Reduce the climb rate for better cooling c. Enrich the fuel/air mixture. d. Open cowl flaps if available. Also, ensure that the airplane has been serviced with the proper grade of fuel.

Answer 205

Pre-ignition occurs when the fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine’s normal ignition event resulting in reduced engine power and high operating temperatures. Premature burning is usually caused by a residual hot spot in the combustion chamber, often created by a small carbon deposit on a spark plug, a cracked spark plug insulator, or other damage in the cylinder that causes a part to heat sufficiently to ignite the fuel / air charge. As with detonation, pre-ignition may also cause severe engine damage, because the expanding gases exert excessive pressure on the piston while still on its compression stroke.

Answer 206

Corrective actions for pre-ignition include any type of engine operation which would promote cooling such as: a. Reduce power. b. Reduce the climb rte of better cooling. c. Enrich the fuel / air mixture. d. Open cowl flaps if available.

Answer 207

The left P-lead is not grounding, or the engine has been running only on the right magneto because the left magneto has totally failed.

Answer 208

After starting – Power from the battery used for starting is being replenished by the alternator; or, if a full-scale charge is indicated for more than 1 minute, the starter is still engaged and a shutdown is indicated. During flight – A faulty voltage regulator is causing the alternator to overcharge the battery. Reset the system and if the condition continues, terminate the flight as soon as possible.

Answer 209

After starting – It is normal during start. At other times this indicates the alternator is not functioning or an overload condition exists in the system. The battery is not receiving a charge. During flight – The alternator is not functioning or an overload exists in the system. The battery is not receiving a charge. Possible causes: the master switch was accidentally shut off, or the alternator circuit breaker tripped.

Answer 210

The alternate has quit producing a charge, so the alternator circuit breaker should be checked and reset if necessary. If this does not correct the problem, the following should be accomplished: a. The alternator should be turned off: pull the circuit breaker (the field circuit will continue to draw power from the battery). b. All electrical equipment not essential to flight should be turned off (the battery is now the only source of electrical power). c. The flight should be terminated and a landing made as soon as possible.

Answer 211

If a continuous excessive rate of charge were allowed for any extended period of time, the battery would overheat and evaporate the electrolyte at an excessive rate. A possible explosion of the battery could be adversely affected by higher than normal voltage. Protection is provided by an over voltage sensor which will shut the alternator down if an excessive voltage is detected. If this should occur the following should be done: a. The alternator should be turned off; pull the circuit breaker (the field circuit will continue to draw power from the battery). b. All electrical equipment not essential to flight should be turned off (the battery is now the only source of electrical power). c. The flight should be terminated and a landing made as soon as possible.

Answer 212

A low oil pressure in flight could be the result of any one of several problems, the most common being that of insufficient oil. If the oil temperature continues to remain normal, a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction could be the culprit. In any case, a landing at the nearest airport is advisable to check for the cause of trouble.

Answer 213

If a partial loss of power occurs, the first priority is to establish and maintain a suitable airspeed (best glide airspeed if necessary). Then, select an emergency landing area and remain within gliding distance. As time allows, attempt to determine the cause and correct it. ## Footnote Complete the following checklist: **Airspeed.....................................75 KIAS** **Fuel Pump..................................On** **Mixture........................................Rich** Carb Heat...................................On Primer.........................................In and Locked N/A Fuel Selector..............................Switch Tanks Engine Gauges..........................Check If Power is Restored Fuel Pump...................................Off If Power is Not Restored Ignition Switch............................L.R. Then Both Throttle & Mixture.......................Different Settings Fuel Selector..............................Opposite Tanks

Answer 214

In the event of an engine fire in flight, the following procedures should be used: **Mixture.......................................Idle Cut off** **Fuel Shutoff Valve....................Off (Pull Full Out)** **Aux Fuel Pump Switch.............Off** **Master Switch............................Off** **Cabin Heat and Air....................Off** Airspeed.....................................100 KIAS Throttle.......................................Closed Forced Landing..........................Execute

Answer 215

**Ignition................................................Continue Cracking** **Throttle (Couple of minutes).............1800 RPM** **Engine.................................................Shut Down**

Answer 216

**Ignition...............................................Continue Cranking** **Throttle...............................................Full Open** **Mixture...............................................Idle Cut Off** **Fuel Shutoff Valve..............................Off (Pull Full Out)** **Aux Fuel Pump Switch.......................Off** Ignition Switch....................................Off Master Switch.....................................Off Fuel Selector.......................................Off N/A Fire Extinguisher................................Use

Answer 217

**Master Switch.................................................Off** **Vents/Cabin Air/Heat......................................Closed** **Fire Extinguisher.............................................Activate** Avionics Power Switch....................................Off All Other Switches..........................................Off Cabin..............................................................Ventilate Land................................................As Soon as Practicable

Answer 218

**Throttle..........................................................Idle** **Brakes...........................................................Apply** **Flaps.............................................................Retract** Mixture..........................................................Idle Cut Off Ignition Switch................................................Off ATC...............................................................Advise Master Switch................................................Off

Answer 219

**Airspeed (flaps up)....................................70 KIAS** **(flaps down)................................65 KIAS** **All Turns.............................................Shallow Banks** **Landing Field.............................................Select** Mixture.......................................................Idle Cut Off Fuel Selector.............................................Off Ignition Switch...........................................Off Flaps..........................................................As Required Master Switch............................................Off Cabin Door.................................................Unlatch ATC.......................................................Advise (121.5)

Answer 220

Aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial of the instrument.

Answer 221

Non standard pressure and temperature; temperature variations expand or contract the atmosphere and raise or lower pressure levels that the altimeter senses. * *On a warm day** – The pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude. * *On a cold day** – The pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude. Changes in surface pressure also affect pressure levels at altitude. * *Higher than standard pressure** – The pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude. * *Lower than standard pressure** – The pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude. Remember : High to low or hot to cold, look out below!

Answer 222

**Absolute altitude** – the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain. **Indicated altitude** – the altitude read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) after it is set to the current altimeter setting. **Pressure altitude** – the altitude when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92. Pressure altitude is used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, etc. **True altitude** – the true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes. **Density altitude** – pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature variations. Directly related to an aircraft’s take off, climb, and landing performance.

Answer 223

The airspeed indicator is a sensitive, differential pressure gauge which measures the difference between impact pressure from the pilot head and undisturbed atmospheric pressure from the static source. The difference is registered by the airspeed pointer on the face of the instrument.

Answer 224

The airspeed indicator is subject to proper flow of air in the pitot / static system.

Answer 225

**Position error** – Caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude and configuration, and may be a plus or minus value. **Density error** – Changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for by the instrument. **Compressibility error** – Caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It is usually not a factor at slower speeds.

Answer 226

Indicated airspeed (IAS) – read off the instrument. Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – IAS corrected for instrument and position errors; obtained from the Pilot’s Operating Handbook or off the face of the instrument. Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – CAS corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at altitude. True airspeed (TAS) – CAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure; obtained from the flight computer. POH or A/S indicator slide computer. Ground speed (GS) – TAS corrected for wind; speed across ground; use the flight computer.

Answer 227

Maneuvering speed (VA) – the “rough air” speed and the maximum speed for abrupt maneuvers. If rough air or severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the airspeed should be reduced to maneuvering speed or less to minimize the stress on the airplane structure. Landing Gear Operating speed (VLO)- the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear if using aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear. Best Angle-of-Climb speed (VX) – important when a short-field takeoff to clear an obstacle is required. Best Rate-of-Climb speed (Vy) – the airspeed that will give the pilot the most altitude in a given period of time.

Answer 228

The vertical speed indicator is a pressure differential instrument. Inside the instrument case is an aneroid very much like the one in an airspeed indicator. Both the inside of this aneroid and the inside of the instrument case are vented to the static system, but the case is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. As the aircraft ascends, the static pressure becomes lower and the pressure inside the case compresses the aneroid, moving the pointer upward, showing a climb and indicating the number of feet per minute the aircraft is ascending.

Answer 229

The VSI is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Because of the restriction in airflow to the static line, a 6 to 9 second lag is required to equalize or stabilize the pressures. Sudden or abrupt changes in aircraft attitude will cause erroneous instrument readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. Both rough control technique and turbulent air result in unreliable needle indications.

Answer 230

The turn coordinator The heading indicator (directional gyro) The attitude indicator (artificial horizon)

Answer 231

**Rigidity in space** – a gyroscope remains in a fixed position if the plane in which it is spinning. **Precession** – the tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force. The reaction to this force does not occur at the point where it was applied; rather, it occurs at a point that is 90° later in the direction of rotation. The rate at which the gyro precesses is inversely proportional to the speed of the rotor and proportional to the deflective force.

Answer 232

In some airplanes, all the gyros are vacuum, pressure, or electrically operated: in others, vacuum or pressure systems provide the power for the heading and altitude indicators, while the electrical system provides the power for the turn coordinator. Most airplanes have at least two sources of power to ensure at least one source of bank information if one power source fails.

Answer 233

The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon the rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon. This bar is fixed to the gyro and remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.

Answer 234

The pitch and bank limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument. Limits in the banking plane are usually from 100 degrees to 110 degrees, and the pitch limits are usually from 60 to 70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until reset. A number of modern attitude indicators will not tumble.

Answer 235

Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending upon the speed with which the erection system functions, there may be a slight nose-up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose-down indication during a rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180° turn. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a minute or so after returning to straight-and-level flight.

Answer 236

The operation of the heading indicator uses the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and the compass card is fixed to the rotor. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information.

Answer 237

The bank and pitch limits of the heading indicator vary with the particular design and make of instrument. On some heading indicators found in light airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 degrees of pitch and 55 degrees of bank. When either of these attitude limits is exceeded, the instrument “tumbles” or “spills” and no longer gives the correct indication until reset. After spilling, it may be reset with the caging knob. Many of the modern instruments used are designed in such a manner that they will not tumble.

Answer 238

Because of precession, caused chiefly by friction, the heading indicator will creep or drift from a heading to which it is set. Among other factors, the amount of drift depends largely upon the condition of the instrument. The heading indicator may indicate as much as 15° error per every hour of operation.

Answer 239

The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied thus moving the needle or miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The slip / skid indicator is a liquid-filled tube with a ball that reacts to centrifugal force and gravity.

Answer 240

The turn coordinator shows the yaw and roll of the aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axes. The miniature airplane will indicate direction of the turn as well as rate of turn. When aligned with the turn index, it represents a standard rate of turn of 3° per second. The inclinometer of the turn coordinator indicates the coordination of aileron and rudder. The ball indicates whether the airplane is in coordinated flight or is in a slip or skid.

Answer 241

**Slip –** The ball in the tube will be on the inside of the turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank. **Skid –** The ball in the tube will be to the outside of the turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank.

Answer 242

Magnetized needles fastened to a float assembly, around which is mounted a compass card, align themselves parallel to the earth’s lines of magnetic force. The float assembly is housed in a bowl filled with acid-free white kerosene.

Answer 243

The float assembly of the compass is balanced on a pivot, which allows free rotation of the card, and allows it to tilt at an angle up to 18 degrees.

Answer 244

1. Oscillation error – Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique. 2. Deviation error – Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft. 3. Variation error – Angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation. 4. Dip errors : Acceleration error – On east or west headings, while accelerating the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south. Remember : ANDS Accelerate North Decelerate South 5. Northerly turning error – The compass leads in the south half of a turn, and lags in the north of the turn. Remember : UNOS Undershoot North Overshoot South

Answer 245

Fuel Tank \* Fuel Selector Valve (controlled) \* Fuel Reservoir Tank \* Auxiliary Fuel Pump (controlled) Fuel Shutoff Valve (controlled) Fuel Strainer \* Engine Driven Fuel pump Mixture Fuel Injections

Answer 246

To navigate successfully, pilots must know their approximate position at all times or be able to determine it whenever they wish. Position may be determined by: ## Footnote a. **Pilotage** (by reference to visible landmarks) b. **Dead reckoning** (by computing direction and distance from a known position); or c. **Radio navigation** (by use of radio aids).

Answer 247

a. Sectional Charts – designed for visual navigation of slow to medium speed aircraft. One inch equals 6.86 nautical miles. They are revised semiannually, except most Alaskan charts which are revised annually. b. VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC) – TACs depict the Class B airspace. While similar to sectional charts, TACs have more detail because the scale is larger. One inch equals 3.43 nautical miles. Charts are revised semiannually, except in Puerto Rico and the Virgin Islands where they are revised annually. c. World Aeronautical Charts (WAC) – WACs cover land areas for navigation by moderate speed aircraft operating at high altitudes. Because of a smaller scale, WACs do not show as much detail as sectionals or TACs, and therefore are not recommended for pilots of low speed, low altitude aircraft. One inch equals 13.7 nautical miles. WACs are revised annually except for a few in Alaska and the Caribbean, which are revised biennially. d. VFR Flyway Planning Charts – This chart is printed on the reverse side of the selected TAC charts. The coverage is the same as the associated TAC. They depict flight paths an altitudes recommended for use to bypass high traffic areas.

Answer 248

Shown on most aeronautical charts as broken magenta lines, isotonic lines connect points of equal magnetic variation. They show the amount and direction of magnetic variation, which from time to time may vary.

Answer 249

Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north. It is expressed as east variation or west variation depending upon whether magnetic north (MN) is to the east or west of true north (TN), respectively.

Answer 250

To convert true course or heading to magnetic course or heading, note the variation shown by the nearest isogonic line. If variation is west, add; if east, subtract. Remember : East is Least (Subtract) West is Best (Add) EX: If the variation is shown as “9° E,” this means that magnetic north is 9° east of true north. If a true course of 360° is to be flown, 9° must be subtracted from 360°, which results in a magnetic heading of 351°. To fly east, a magnetic course of 081° (090° – 9°) would be flown. To fly south, the magnetic course would be 171° (180° – 9°). To fly west, it would be 261° (270° – 9°). To fly a true heading of 060°, a magnetic course of 051° (060° – 9°) would be flown.

Answer 251

Because of magnetic influences within the airplane itself (electrical circuits, radios, lights, tools, engine, magnetized metal parts, etc.) the compass needle is frequently deflected from its normal reading. This deflection is called deviation. Deviation is different for each airplane, and also varies for different headings of the same airplane. The deviation value may be found on a deviation card located in the airplane.

Answer 252

NDB (Non-directional Radio Beacon) VOR (Very High Frequency Omni directional Range) VORTAC (VHF Omni directional Range / Tactical Air Navigation) DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) RNAV (Area Navigation) includes INS, LORAN, VOR/DME-referenced, and GPS)

Answer 253

VORs are VHF radio stations that project radials in all directions (360°) from the station, like spokes from the hub of a wheel. Each of these radials is denoted by its outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VOR stations will also be VORTACs. A VORTAC (VOR-Tactical Air Navigation), provides the standard bearing information of a VOR plus distance information to pilots of airplanes which have distance measuring equipment (DME).

Answer 254

Transmitting frequencies of Omni range stations are in the VHF (very high frequency) band between 108 and 117.95 MHz, which are immediately below aviation communication frequencies.

Answer 255

Terminal, Low, and High

Answer 256

Terminal, Low, and High Class Distance/Altitudes Miles * T 12,000’ and below 25 * L Below 18,000’ 40 * H Below 18,000’ 40 * H 14,500 – 17,999’ 100 (conterminous 48 states only) * H 18,000 – FL450 130 * H Above FL450 100

Answer 257

VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment.

Answer 258

a. VOT check – plus or minus 4° b. Ground checkpoint – plus or minus 4° c. Airborne checkpoint – plus or minus 6° d. Dual VOR check - 4° between each other e. Selected radial over a known ground point – plus or minus 6°

Answer 259

A non-directional beacon; a low-to medium-frequency radio beacon transmits non-directional signals where by the pilot of an aircraft properly equipped can determine bearings and “home” or “tract” to the station. NDBs have one advantage over the VOR. This advantage is that low or medium frequencies are not affected by line-of-sight. The signals follow the curvature of the Earth; therefore, if the aircraft is within the range of the station, the signals can be received regardless of altitude.

Answer 260

These facilities normally operate in the frequency band of 190 to 535 kHz (immediately below AM broadcast bands) and transmit a continuous carrier with wither 400 or 1020 Hz modulation. All radio beacons, except compass locators, transmit a continuous three-letter identification code.

Answer 261

Automatic Direction Finder – Many general aviation-type airplanes are equipped with automatic direction finder (ADF) radio receiving equipment which operate in the low to medium frequency bands. To navigate using the ADF, the pilot tunes the receiving equipment to a ground station known as a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB). The most common use of ADF is that of “homing” by flying the needle to the station.

Answer 262

**Advantages** : Low cost of equipment and usually very low maintenance; Low or medium frequencies are not affected by line-of-sight; The signals follow the curvature of the earth; therefore, if the aircraft is within range of the station, the signals can be received regardless of altitude. **Disadvantages**: Low frequency signals are very susceptible to electrical disturbances, such as lightning, precipitation static, etc.; These disturbances create excessive static, needle deviations, and signal fades; Particularly at night, there may be interference from distant stations.

Answer 263

Area Navigation (RNAV) provides enhanced navigational capability to the pilot. RNAV equipment can compute the airplane position, actual tract and ground speed, and then provide meaningful information relative to a route of flight selected by the pilot. Typical equipment will provide the pilot with distance, time, bearing and cross track error relative to the selected “TO” or “active” waypoint and the selected route. Several distinctly different navigational systems with different navigational performance characteristics are capable of providing RNAV functions. Present day RNAV systems include INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS.

Answer 264

Global Positioning System – a space-based radio positioning, navigation, and time-transfer system. The system provides highly accurate position and velocity information, and precise time, on a continuous global basis to an unlimited number of properly equipped users. The system is unaffected by weather, and provides a worldwide common grid reference system. The GPS concept is predicated upon accurate and continuous knowledge of the spatial position of each satellite in the system with respect to time and distance from a transmitting satellite to the user. The GPS receiver automatically selects appropriate signals from satellites in view and translates these into three-dimensional position, velocity, and time. System accuracy for civil users is normally 100 meters horizontally.

Answer 265

113 knots 36 minutes 72 NM

Answer 266

13. 5 gallons 14. 4 GPH 3 hours, 31 minutes

Answer 267

135 TAS 110 TAS 139 TAS

Answer 268

4,100 feet 3,100 feet 4,200 feet

Answer 269

1. Climb - The higher altitude allows better communication capability as well as better visual range for identification of landmarks 2. Conserve - lean mixture to peak EGT 3. Communicate - Use the system. Use 121.5 MHz if no other frequency produces results. 4. Confess - Once communications are established, let them know your problem. 5. Comply - Follow instructions

Answer 270

* Mark your present locaion on the chart; write the current time next to your mark * Consider the relative distance to all suitable alternatives; select the one most appropriate for emergency * Determine the magnetic course to the alternate and divert immediately * Wind correction, actual distance and estimated time/fuel can be computed while enroute to alternate.

Answer 271

In general aviation, the most common types of radio are VHF. A VHF radio operates on frequencies between 118.0 and 136.975 MHz and is classified as 720 or 760 depending on the number of channels it can accommodate.

Answer 272

121.5 MHZ; this frequency is guarded by military towers, most civil towers, FSS's, and radar facilities

Answer 273

The majority of ground control frequencies are 121.6 to 121.9 MHz (AIM 4-3-14)

Answer 274

A CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency) is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or TOWER frequency and is ientified in appropriate aeronautical publications.

Answer 275

Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on te airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures. MULTICOM is a mobile service not open to public use, used to provide communications essential to conduct the activites being performed by or directed from private aircraft.

Answer 276

FSS's and supplemental weather service locations are allocated frequencies for different functions; for example, 122.0 MHz is assigned as the Enroute Flight Advisory Service frequency at selected FSS's. In addition, certain FSS's provide Local Airport Advisory on 123.6 MHz. Frequencies are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory. If you are in doubt as to what frequency to use, 122.2 MHz is assigned to the majority of FSS's as a common enroute simplex frequency

Answer 277

Certain FSS's provide Local Airport Advisory service to pilots when FSS is phically located on an airport which does not have a control tower or where the tower is operated on a part-time basis. The CTAF (usually 123.6) for FSS's which provide this service will disseminated in appropriate aeronautical publications. A CTAF FSS provides wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, altimeter setting, known traffic, notices to airman, airport taxi routes, airport traffic pattern information, and instrument approach procedures. The information is advisory in nature and does not constitute an ATC clearence.

Answer 278

Two ways: 1. Ask the FSS Briefer during preflight weather briefing. 2. Consult the communications section under flight service for the airport of departure in the Airport?Facility Directory.

Answer 279

A heavy-lined blue box surrounding the radio station data indicates that both standard FSS frequencies are available at all altitudes without terrain interference. The standard frequencies are 121.5 and 122.2.

Answer 280

This usually means that this frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies. ## Footnote

Answer 281

A plain box without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. These NAVAIDs will have a “no voice” symbol (underline under frequency).

Answer 282

These frequencies are the best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of the NAVAID site, and will ensure reception by the controlling FSS at low altitudes without terrain interference. They will normally be followed by an “R” which indicates that the FSS can receive only on that frequency (you transmit on that frequency). The pilot will listen for a response over the NAVAID frequency.

Answer 283

Navaids that have HIWAS capability are depicted on sectional charts with an “H” in the upper right corner of the identification box. ## Footnote

Answer 284

A Transcribed Weather Broadcast is available. A TWEB is a continuous recording of meteorological and aeronautical information that is broadcast on L/MF and VOR facilities for pilots.

Answer 285

a. The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft. b. In an in flight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency. c. Each PIC who deviates from a Part 91 rule shall, upon request from the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

Answer 286

No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft: a. Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage; b. While under the influence of alcohol c. While using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety; or d. While having .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Answer 287

No. Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.

Answer 288

Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

Answer 289

No pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Answer 290

Yes, pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions.

Answer 291

For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport: a. Weather reports and forecasts b. Fuel requirements c. Alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed d. Any known traffic delays of which the pilot-in-command has been advised by ATC e. Runway lengths of intended use f. Takeoff and landing distance data

Answer 292

Each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing. However a person who has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth, and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting any use the floor of the aircraft as a seat.

Answer 293

No pilot may take off a U.S. registered civil aircraft unless the pilot-in-command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed. The pilot-in-command shall ensure that all persons on board have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness, if installed, before movement of the aircraft on the surface, takeoff or landing.

Answer 294

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crew member shall keep his/her seatbelt fastened while at his/her station. During takeoff and landing this includes shoulder harness, if installed, unless it interferes with other required duties.

Answer 295

a. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. b. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation. c. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Answer 296

Balloons Gliders Airships Airplanes Rotorcraft Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft. Remember : BGAAR (BIG “R”)

Answer 297

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

Answer 298

Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have the right-of-way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to may way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

Answer 299

No person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 MPH).

Answer 300

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, below an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

Answer 301

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall be operated no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

Answer 302

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Answer 303

All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface.

Answer 304

When the barometric pressure is 31.00” Hg or less, each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight operating an aircraft, as the case may be, by reference to an altimeter set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the barometric pressure exceeds 31.00” Hg, consult the Aeronautical Information Manual for correct procedures.

Answer 305

Use the same procedures as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio: the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used.

Answer 306

No pilot may deviate from an ATC clearance unless: a. An amended clearance has been obtained., b. An emergency exists, c. Or in response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

Answer 307

Two actions are required of you as PIC: a. Each pilot-in-command who, in an emergency, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible (in-the-air responsibility) b. Each pilot-in-command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC (on-the-ground responsibility).

Answer 308

Light On Ground In Air Steady Green Cleared for Takeoff Cleared to Land Flashing Green Cleared to Taxi Return for Landing Steady Red Stop Yield, Continue Circling Flashing Red Taxi Clear of Runway Unsafe, Do Not Land Flashing White Return to Start Not used Alternate Red / Green Exercise Extreme Caution Exercise Extreme Caution Note: Most pilots find these hard to remember; attach them to your kneeboard or your flight log form.

Answer 309

a. Weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather minimums; b. Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and c. A clearance to land is received.

Answer 310

Arriving Aircraft Receiver Inoperative: a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area. b. Determine direction and flow of traffic. c. Advise tower of aircraft type, position, altitude, and intention to land. Request to be controlled by light signals. d. At 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern. e. Watch tower for light gun signals. Arriving Aircraft Transmitter Inoperative: a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area. b. Determine direction and flow of traffic. c. Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information. d. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals. e. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings, Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights. Arriving Aircraft Transmitter and Receiver Inoperative: a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area. b. Determine direction and flow of traffic. c. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals. d. Acknowledge light signals as noted above.

Answer 311

Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall: a. In the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right. b. In the case of an aircraft departing an airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93.

Answer 312

Aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

Answer 313

No person may begin in a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

Answer 314

During the day, you must be able to fly to the first point of intended landing, and assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.

Answer 315

When operating above 3, 000 feet AGL but less than 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 0° to 179°, fly at an odd-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When on a magnetic course of 180° to 359°, fly at an even-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.

Answer 316

For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipments are required: Tachometer for each engine Oil pressure gauge for each altitude engine Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine Altimeter Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine Fuel gauge indicating the quantity in each tank Flotation gear – if operated for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance from Shore Landing gear position indicator, if the airplane ahs retractable gear Air speed indicator Anti-collision light system – aviation red and white for small airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996 Magnetic direction indicator Emergency locator transmitter (if required by 14 CFR 91.207) Safety belts (and shoulder harness for each front seat in aircraft manufactured after 1978)

Answer 317

For VFR flight at night, all the instruments and equipment for VFR day flight are required, plus the following: Fuses – one spare set or three fuses of each kind required accessible to the pilot in flight Landing light – if the aircraft is operated for hire Anti-collision light system – approved aviation red or white Position lights – (navigation lights) Source of electrical energy – adequate for all installed electrical and radio equipment

Answer 318

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil airplane unless there is attached to the airplane an automatic-type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition. Several exception exists, including the following: a. Aircraft engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50-nautical-mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began. b. Aircraft engaged in design and testing. c. New aircraft engaged in manufacture, preparation and delivery. d. Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations.

Answer 319

Batteries used in ELTs must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable): a. When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour; or b. When 50 percent of their useful life (or, rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge), has expired. Note: The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record. This date indicates 50% of the battery’s useful life.

Answer 320

At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL: for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL: for the entire flight time at those altitudes, the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL: each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Answer 321

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight: a. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement; b. Over an open air assembly of persons; c. Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport; d. Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of a Federal airway; e. Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or f. When flight visibility is less than 3 statue miles.

Answer 322

For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s altitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.

Answer 323

a. Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crew member) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds: • A bank angle of 60° relative to the horizon; or • A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° relative to the horizon. b. The above regulation does not apply to : • Flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or • Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a CFI or ATP instructing in accordance with 14 CFR 61.67.

Answer 324

Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.

Answer 325

No, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must operate that aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR).

Answer 326

The pilot must be at least a private pilot with an instrument rating.

Answer 327

a. A two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on the frequency assigned. b. A Mode C altitude encoding transponder. c. Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.

Answer 328

Class A airspace is not specifically charted.

Answer 329

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspace areas resemble upside down wedding cakes), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.

Answer 330

No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless: a. The pilot-in-command holds at least a private pilot certificate. b. The pilot-in-command holds a recreational pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.101; or for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94. c. The pilot-in-command holds a sport pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.325; or the requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in 14 CFR 61.94 d. The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94 or 61.95 of this chapter, as applicable. Certain Class B airspace areas do not allow pilot operations to be conducted to or from the primary airport, unless the pilot-in-command holds at least a private pilot certificate (example : Dallas / Fort Worth International).

Answer 331

a. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on the appropriate frequencies for that area. b. A Mode C altitude encoding transponder. c. If IFR, a VOR receiver is also required.

Answer 332

Arriving aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area.

Answer 333

VFR flight operations must be conducted clear of clouds with at least 3 statue miles flight visibility.

Answer 334

Class B airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Chars. A solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral limits of Class B airspace. Numbers indicate the base and top, i.e. 100/25, 100/SFC.

Answer 335

VFR plans will be provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace.

Answer 336

The pilot-in-command is responsible. The services provided by ATC do not relieve pilots of their responsibilities to see and avoid other traffic operating in basic VFR weather conditions, to adjust their operations and flight path as necessary to preclude serious wake turbulence encounters, to maintain appropriate terrain and obstruction clearance, or to remain in weather conditions equal to or better than the minimum required by 14 CFR 91.155.

Answer 337

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. This restriction does not apply to operations conducted within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with the “below 10,000 feet MSL” restriction: “No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots”.

Answer 338

No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH)

Answer 339

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.

Answer 340

Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. The outer area radius will be 20 NM, with some variations based on site specific requirements. The outer area extends outward from the primary airport and extends from the lower limits of radar / radio coverage up to the ceiling of the approach controls airspace.

Answer 341

A student pilot certificate.

Answer 342

Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the following: a. A two-way radio, b. Automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment with Mode C capability.

Answer 343

Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Answer 344

If a controller responds to a radio call with, “(aircraft call sign) standby,” radio communications have been established. It is important to understand that if the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft identification, radio communications have not been established and the pilot may not enter the Class C airspace.

Answer 345

Each person must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

Answer 346

VFR flight operations within Class C airspace require 3 statute miles flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal to clouds.

Answer 347

A solid magenta line is used to depict Class C airspace. Class C airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts where appropriate.

Answer 348

When two-way radio communications and radar contact are established, all participating VFR aircraft are: a. Sequenced to the primary airport. b. Provided Class C services within the Class C airspace and the outer area. c. Provided basic radar services beyond the outer area on a workload permitting basis. This can be terminated by the controller if workload dictates.

Answer 349

Basic radar service – Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement. TRSA service – radar sequencing and separation service for VFR aircraft in a TRSA. Class C service – This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport. Class B service – Provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport(s).

Answer 350

a. At or above 10,000 feet MSL over the 48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia, excluding that airspace below 2,500 feet AGL. b. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL. c. Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 feet MSL; d. Within 10 miles of certain designated airports, excluding that airspace which is both outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200 feet AGL. e. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous U.S. ADIZ.

Answer 351

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area at an indicated speed of more than 200 knots (23 MPH).

Answer 352

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be signed to contain those procedures.

Answer 353

Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

Answer 354

Each person must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

Answer 355

Arrival extensions for instrument approach procedures may be Class D or Class E airspace. As a general rule, if all extensions are 2 miles or less, they remain part of the Class D surface area (blue segmented line). However, if any one extension is greater than 2 miles, then all extensions become Class E, Class E airspace areas that serve a s extensions (magenta segmented line) to Class B, Class C, Class D surface areas, provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilots operating under VFR.

Answer 356

VFR flight operations within Class D airspace require 3 statute miles flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal to clouds.

Answer 357

Class D airspace areas are depicted on Sectional and Terminal charts with blue segmented lines, and on IFR En route Lows with a boxed [D].

Answer 358

No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of the type of flight plan or whether or not under the control of a radar facility, the pilot is responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain or obstacles. A controller, on a workload permitting basis, will provide radar traffic information, safety alerts and traffic information for sequencing purposes.

Answer 359

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH).

Answer 360

During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable. Check the A/FD for specifics.

Answer 361

No; some airports do not have the required weather reporting capability necessary for surface based controlled airspace. The controlled airspace over these airports normally begins at 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL and can be determined from visual aeronautical charts.

Answer 362

Generally, if the airspace is not Class A, Class B, Class C, or Class D, and t is controlled airspace, it is Class E airspace.

Answer 363

a. A surface area designated for an airport and configured TO CONTAIN ALL INSTRUMENT APPROACHES. b. An extension to a surface area – There are Class E airspace areas that serve as extensions to Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas designated for an airport. Such airspace provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilots operating under VFR. c. Airspace used for transition – Class E airspace beginning at either 700 or 1,200 feet AGL used to transition to / from the terminal en route environment. d. En Route Domestic Areas – Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude and provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR en route ATC services but the Federal airway system is inadequate. e. Federal Airways – The federal airways are within Class E airspace areas and, unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200 feet to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL. It includes the airspace within parallel boundary lines 4 miles each side f the center line. f. Offshore Airspace areas – Class E airspace that extend upward from a specified altitude to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL. These areas provide controlled airspace beyond 12 miles from the coast of the United States in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR en route ATC services. g. Unless designated at a lower altitude – Class E airspace begins at 14,500 feet MSL to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL overlying the 48 contiguous states, including the waters within 12 miles from the coast of the 48 contiguous states; the District of Columbia; Alaska, including the waters within 12 miles from the coast of Alaska, and airspace above FL600, excluding specified areas in Alaska.

Answer 364

a. Minimum pilot certification – student pilot certificate. b. No specific equipment requirements in Class E airspace. c. No specific requirements for arrival or through flight in Class E airspace.

Answer 365

As long as the weather allows flight operations to be conducted under basic VFR minimums, a flight into or out of the Class E airspace may be made without an ATC clearance. However, if basic VFR minimum cannot be maintained an ATC clearance will be necessary for arrival or departure (Special VFR clearance).

Answer 366

Yes; unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer 367

Class E airspace below 14,500 feet MSL is charted on Sectional, Terminal, and IFR En Route Low Altitude charts. The lateral and vertical limits of all Class E controlled airspace up to but not including 18,000 feet are shown by narrow bands of vignette on Sectional and Terminal Area Charts. Controlled airspace floors of 700 feet AGL are defined by a magenta vignette; floors other than 700 feet that abut uncontrolled airspace are defined by a blue vignette; differing floors greater than 700 feet AGL are annotated by a symbol and a number indicating the floor. If the ceiling is less than, 18,000 feet MSL, the value (prefixed by the word “ceiling”) is shown along the limits of the controlled airspace.

Answer 368

Class E airspace areas that serve as extensions to Class B, Class C, and Class D airspace are depicted by a magenta segmented line.

Answer 369

Class G or uncontrolled airspace is that portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace.

Answer 370

Yes; unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 AGL.

Answer 371

Class G airspace begins at the surface and continues up to the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 feet MSL.

Answer 372

When the visibility is less than 3 statute miles but not less than 1 statute mile during night hours, an airplane may be operated clear of clouds if operated in an airport traffic pattern within one-half mile of the runway.

Answer 373

The main difference which distinguishes Class G airspace from Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace is the flight visibility / cloud clearance requirements necessary to operate within it.

Answer 374

**Class C, D, or E Airspace** Less than 10,000 feet MSL: * Visibility : 3 statute miles * Cloud Clearance : 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal. At or above 10,000 feet MSL: * Visibility : 5 statute miles. * Cloud Clearance : 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal. **Class G Airspace** *1,200 feet or less* above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude): Day * Visibility : 1 statute mile. * Cloud Clearance : Clear of clouds Night * Visibility : 3 statute miles * Cloud Clearance : 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal. *More than 1,200* feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL: Day * Visibility : 1 Statute mile * Cloud Clearance : 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal. Night * Visibility : 3 statute miles * Cloud Clearance : 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal. *More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL:* * Visibility : 5 statute miles * Cloud Clearance : 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal.

Answer 375

No person may operate an aircraft, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and the ground visibility is less than 3 statute miles. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles. Note: Class B only requires clear of clouds and 3 statute miles visibility.

Answer 376

No, with one exception. A “Special VFR clearance” may be obtained from the controlling authority prior to entering the Class B, C, D, or E airspace provided the flight can be made clear of clouds with at least one statute mile ground visibility if taking off or landing. If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, the flight visibility must be at least 1 statute mile.

Answer 377

A VFR pilot may request and be given a clearance to enter, leave, or operate within most Class D and Class E surface areas and some Class B and Class C surface areas traffic permitting and providing such flight will not delay IFR operations. Note: Special VFR operations by fixed wing aircraft are prohibited in some Class B and Class C surface areas due to the volume of IFR traffic. A list of these Class B and Class C surface areas is contained in 14 CFR Part 91. They are also depicted on Sectional Aeronautical Charts.

Answer 378

When a control tower is located within a Class B, Class C, or Class D surface areas, requests for clearances should be made to the tower. In a Class E surface area, a clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center.

Answer 379

Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft are prohibited between sunset and sunrise unless the pilot is instrument rated and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight.

Answer 380

Prohibited areas contain certain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.

Answer 381

Restricted areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. These areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards, to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.

Answer 382

No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency. Normally no operations are permitted within a prohibited area and prior permission must always be obtained before operating within a restricted area.

Answer 383

A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions extending from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, containing activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. The purpose of such an area is to warn non-participating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters, or both.

Answer 384

A Military Operating Area (MOA) consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within an MOA when military activity is being conducted. The activity status (active / inactive) of MOAs may change frequently. Therefore, pilots should contact any FSs within 100 miles of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.

Answer 385

Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform non-participating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas. All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Answer 386

Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs) contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.

Answer 387

National Security Areas consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of 14 CFR 99.7.

Answer 388

National Security Areas consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of 14 CFR 99.7.

Answer 389

Special use airspace (except CFAs) are charted on IFR or visual charts and include the hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency.

Answer 390

Information will normally be depicted on the reverse side of VFR Terminal Area Charts, commonly referred to as Class B airspace charts.

Answer 391

An airport advisory area is the area within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not operating but where a FSS is located. At such locations, the FSS provides advisory service to arriving aircraft. It is not mandatory that pilots participate in the Airport Advisory program, but it is strongly recommended they do so.

Answer 392

Military Training Routes are developed for use by the military for the purpose of conducting low-altitude, high speed training. The routes above 1,500 feet AGL are developed to be flown, to the maximum extent possible, under IFR. The routes at 1,500 feet AGL and below are generally developed to be flown under VFR. Routes below 1,500 feet AGL use four-digit identifiers (i.e. IR 1004, VR 1008). Routes above 1,500 feet AGL use three-digit identifiers, (i.e. IR 1003, VR 004). IR is for IFR routes and VR is for VFR routes.

Answer 393

A Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA) consists of airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring., sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatory.

Answer 394

TRSAs do not fit into any of the U.S. airspace classes and are not contained in 14 CFR Part 71 nor are there any operating rules in Part 91. The primary airport(s) within the TRSA become Class D airspace. The remaining portion of a TRSA overlies other controlled airspace which is normally Class E airspace beginning at 700 or 1,200 feet and established to transition to/from the en route / terminal environment. TRSAs will continue to be an airspace area where participating pilots can receive additional radar services which have been defined as TRSA service.

Answer 395

TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional and terminal area charts with a solid black line and altitudes for each segment. The Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line.

Answer 396

All aircraft entering domestic U.S. airspace from points outside must provide for identification prior to entry. To facilitate early identification of all aircraft in the vicinity of U.S. and international airspace boundaries, Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ) have been established.

Answer 397

Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with an ADIZ are as follows: Flight Plan – An IFR or DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility. Two-way radio – An operating two-way radio is required. Transponder – Aircraft must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting (Mode C) capabilities. The transponder must be turned on and set to the assigned ATC code. Position reports – For IFR flights, normal position reporting. For DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15 minutes prior to entry. Aircraft position tolerances – Over land, a tolerance of + / - 5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point or point of penetration and within 20 NM from centerline of an intended tract over an estimated reporting point.

Answer 398

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur: a. Flight control system malfunction b. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties c. Turbine engine failure of structural components d. In flight fire e. Aircraft collision in flight f. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 g. Overdue aircraft (believed to be in accident)

Answer 399

An aircraft incident means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

Answer 400

An aircraft accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

Answer 401

Serious injury means any injury that: a. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received; b. Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose); c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage; d. Involves any internal organ; or e. Involves second-or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface.

Answer 402

“Substantial damage” means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged; bent fairings or cowling; dented skin; small punctured holes in the skin or fabric; ground damage to rotor or propeller blades; and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wing tips are not considered substantial damage for the purpose of this part.

Answer 403

Refer to the definition of “Accident”. An aircraft accident can involve substantial damage and / or injuries, and the NTSB always requires a report if this is the case.

Answer 404

The operator shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1/2, available from NTSB field offices, the NTSB in Washington D.C., or the FAA Flight Standards District Office: a. Within 10 days after an accident; b. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing. Note : A report on an “Incident” for which notification is required as described shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the NTSB.

Answer 405

At an airport with a full- or part-time FSS or a full- or part-time UNICOM in operation, an advisory may be obtained which will usually include wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMs, etc. At those airports where these services are not available, a segmented circle visual indicator system, if installed, is designated to provide traffic pattern information. The segmented circle system consists of the following components: • * The segmented circle * The wind direction indicator (wind sock, cone, or tee) * The landing direction indicator ( a tetrahedron) * Landing strip indicators * Traffic pattern indicators

Answer 406

When approaching for landing, all turns must be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right.

Answer 407

1200 – VFR operations 7500 – Hijack 7600 – Communication failure 7700 – Emergency

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