Pro Super Flashcards

1
Q

This organization is responsible for determining the appropriate deviation code after coordination with applicable agencies

A

Command Post

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2
Q

Estimated 80% of all aviation accidents are caused by this type of error

A

Human

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3
Q

First Emergency Management objective is to

A

Save lives

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4
Q

The 900 deviation code is used for a _________ delay

A

Maintenance

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5
Q

Senior NCO’s and Officers who have less than 12 months experience on their currently assigned aircraft should take this training

A

CAST

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6
Q

Training class designed to improve safety by reducing all types of maintenance induced human errors

A

Logistics Resource Management (LRM)

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7
Q

Number of days that maintenance has to turn in MICAP DIFM assets to supply

A

one day

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8
Q

The aircraft sub-systems required for a specific mission are identified in this column on the MESL

A

Full Systems List (FSL)

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9
Q

Coordinates aircraft maintenance schedules between maintenance and operations

A

Plans Scheduling and Documenation (PSD)

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10
Q

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) Annex dealing with natural diasasters

A

Annex B

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11
Q

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) Annex dealing with Major Mishaps

A

Annex A

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12
Q

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) Annex dealing with CBRNE

A

Annex C

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13
Q

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) Annex dealing with Terrorism used CBRNE

A

Annex D

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14
Q

Component of the UTC identifying the equipment required

A

LOGDET

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15
Q

The symbol “*” on the UPMR means there is a ________

A

mismatch

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16
Q

Status of an iarcraft with one or more systems, subsystems or components that are not working and there is ONLY an “X” in the FSL column

A

PMC

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17
Q

This NCOIC is responsible for developing work center training requirements

A

Section Chief

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18
Q

This commander is responsible to ensure their unit is capable to respond to wing taskings

A

Squadron

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19
Q

This AMC organization sources, tasks and manages deployed personnel, equipment and supplies utilizing Unit Type Codes

A

AEF

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20
Q

The 200 deviation code is used for an __________ delay

A

aircrew

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21
Q

This person moves people, resources and ensures maintenance is accomplished

A

Expediter

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22
Q

Two up and one down is the allowed substitution for _________ personnel deploying

A

enlisted

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23
Q

A newly assigned individual would be most likely to notice these safety issues

A

Norms

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24
Q

Repetitive maintenance tasks can lead to this dirty dozen safety issue

A

Complacency

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25
Q

Responsible for making changes in G081 for approved SCR actions

A

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

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26
Q

Pro Super and this organization are CANN authorities

A

XOCL

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27
Q

This person’s duties include aggressively working non-mission-capable aircraft

A

Pro-super

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28
Q

Class A mishap has a direct cost totaling ______ million plus

A

Two

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29
Q

MESL column that identifies all systems and subsystems needed for full mission performance

A

Full System List (FSL)

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30
Q

Useful AMC A4 web site used for checking the status of your aircraft

A

Global Reach

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31
Q

Primary work/rest authority for these individuals rests with the Aircraft Commander

A

FCC

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32
Q

These units serve roles in both federal and state

A

ANG

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33
Q

Leads the monthly Data Integrity Team (DIT) meetings

A

Analysis

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34
Q

External Environmental Compliance Assessment Management Program is evaluated every how many years?

A

Three

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35
Q

Max number of hours you are allowed by regulation to schedule your personnel for

A

12

36
Q

Owning MXG/CC, MXG/CD, or designated individual is this type of release authority

A

Impoundment

37
Q

The prosuper is ultimately responsible for setting the _______

A

Estimated Time In Completion (ETIC)

38
Q

Type of enroute aircraft maintenance unit with the most repair capability

A

Tier One

39
Q

Why safety nets are not 100% reliable? Humans are __________

A

fallible

40
Q

Responsible for the on-scene recovery actions in suppport of an off station NMC aircraft

A

MRT Chief

41
Q

DOD civilian that develops special test equipment and helps units resolve complex or unusual technical aircraft problems

A

Air Force Engineering and Technical Services (AFETS)

42
Q

Tool used to help aircrews determine aircraft airworthiness

A

Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

43
Q

Codes assigned to track aircraft departure delays

A

Deviation

44
Q

Air Force ___________ manual covers how to read a grid map and cordon overlay

A

Airman’s

45
Q

Publication that establishes base specific guidance for emergency response actions

A

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP)

46
Q

What are the three components of a UTC?

A

MISCAP (mission), LOGDET (equipment) and MANFOR (People)

47
Q

Type of evaluation that QA must observe a technician accomplish maintenance every 18 months (AMC Active Duty)

A

Personnel Evaluation (PE)

48
Q

Acronym used to help you develop a comprehensive ETIC

A

WARCAP

49
Q

Document used to identify critical maintenance tasks

A

Special Certification Roster (SCR)

50
Q

The AF Form 2407 is used to make what to the flying schedule

A

changes

51
Q

AF Form 2408 is used for what

A

Big Picture Aircraft Generation

52
Q

AF Form 2409 is used for what

A

Aircraft specific generation, such as line conditions/actions for missions (think firebottle and exercise)

53
Q

AF Form 2410 is used for what

A

Pre and Post Docks

54
Q

Five character alphanumeric code that uniquely identifies a capbility of each type of unit in the Air Force

A

Unit Type Code (UTC)

55
Q

When signing a conditional release, what documentation is required in the block below your signature on the 781H?

A

conditional

56
Q

MXG-CD normally chairs this meeting

A

Production

57
Q

This inspection interval is 1 year for internal and 3 years for external and it has to do with safety

A

ESOHCAMP

58
Q

Single source for information about the manpower a unit requires to perform its mission

A

Unit Manning Document (UMD)

59
Q

Tool used to determine what missions an aircraft is capable of performing

A

Minimum Essential Subsystems List

60
Q

When developing the _______ identify all task requirements within your duty section to ensure 100% task coverage

A

Master Training List

61
Q

What does WARCAP stand for?

A
Weather
Aircraft
Resources
Cargo
Aircrew
Priority
62
Q

best way to develop an ETIC?

A

1) Flow Plan
2) Sanity Check
3) Set ETIC
4) Put plan inmotion
5) Notify Everyone
6) Constantly check, reevaluate, update

63
Q

This civilian satisfies short-term engineering service requirements for on-site engeineering

A

Contract Engineering Technical Support (CETS)

64
Q

This en route location consistts of general servicing tasks, and 2nd level maintenance component troubleshooting and removed/replace actions commensurate with MDS MELs

A

Tier two

65
Q

This type of base consists of general servicing tasks only. These locations are considered “off-line” locations and flying crew chiefs are required

A

Tier Three

66
Q

What are the three Air Force Emergency Management Program Objectives?

A

1) Save Lives
2) Minimize loss or degradation of resources
3) Continue, sustain, and restore combat and combat support abilities

67
Q

The Master Training Plan (MTP) must include the minimum requirements

A

1) Current CEFTP
2) Master Task List
3) AF Form 797
4) Milestones for task/CDC completion

68
Q

What is work stoppage?

A

Whenever a maintenance is stopped prior to the completion or change in maintenance personnel occurs

69
Q

What designated official has to approve you to downgrade a Red X for a one time flight?

A

the owning Maintenance Group CC (MXG/CC)

70
Q

What are three status reporting tools?

A

1) Aircraft Maintenance Status Codes
2) Designed Operational Capability statements (DOCs)
3) minimum Equipment List (MEL)

71
Q

What organization sources, tasks, and manages deployed personnel and equipment for “Enabler” taskings

A

A4O (AMC Logistics Operations)

72
Q

This organization conduts serach and tasks units that will provide the most expeditious support

A

TACC/XOCL (Execution Operations Control Logistics)

73
Q

Who ensures all required parts and/or equipment are properly sourced and issued to the MRT chief to hand-carry to the deployment site and/or processed for shipment by the Traffic Management Flight (TMF)?

A

Pro-Super

74
Q

An MRT duty day is authorized up to how many hours on the first day only to allow for travel time?

A

16 hours

75
Q

What tool is provided for commanders for internal assessment of unit health and to complement external inspection and assessment

A

Self Inspections

76
Q

What type of inspection determines the extent of a problem, deficiency or to confirm a problem/issue has been resolved?

A

Special Interest Items (SII) or Command Interest Items (CII)

77
Q

What program is used to evaluate key logistic process throughout AMC logistics units thereby ensuring standardized, repeatable and technically compliant aircraft maintenance?

A

Logistic Compliance Assessment Program (LCAP)

78
Q

What Deviation Code is crew directed; maintenace requested, no discrepancy found or crew flew “as is” or when the write-up is for a MC part according to the MEL?

A

Dev Code 222

79
Q

The Unit Personnel Manpower Roster (UPMR) is an extension of the UMD which puts _______ to positions numbers

A

names

80
Q

What is a CAT I Discrepancy

A

required inspection/carded item missed or improperly completed

81
Q

What is a CAT II Discrepancy?

A

readily detectable but not carded item

82
Q

What is a Major Finding?

A

endanger personnel / affect safety of flight where one additional action would result in automatic failure

83
Q

What is a Minor Finding?

A

unsatisfactory conditions that are documented for trends

84
Q

What does “PEAR” stand for in the PEAR Model?

A

People
Environment
Actions
Resources

85
Q

Name the Dirty Dozen

A

1) Lack of communication 2) Complacency
3) Lack of Knowledge 4) Distraction
5) Lack of Team work 6) Fatigue
7) Lack of Resources 8) Pressure
9) Lack of Assertiveness 10) Stress
11) Lack of Awareness 12) Norms

86
Q

Identify the Hangar Queen categories

A

CAT I - not flown 30-59 days
CAT II - not flown 60-89 days
CAT III - not flown 90 or more days

87
Q

How many days are unit possessed aircraft exempt from accruing Hangar Queen time for immediately following depot repair or maintenance?

A

ten days