Procedures Flashcards
(166 cards)
1
Q
Define an alerting service.
A
A service provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as required.
2
Q
Define a Basic Service.
A
An ATS provided for the purpose of providing advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight. This may include; Changes to serviceability of facilities Conditions at aerodrome Weather General airspace activity information Any other information likely to affect safety Pilot is solely responsible for the avoidance of other traffic.
3
Q
Define a Flight Information Service.
A
A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight. Together with pertinent information about; Weather Changes to serviceability of facilities Conditions at aerodromes Any other information likely to affect safety.
4
Q
What are the different types of FIS? What types can AFISOs provide?
A
Aerodrome flight information service Basic service Traffic service Deconfliction service Procedural Service AFIS and BS
5
Q
Why can’t FISOs provide traffic, deconfliction or procedural services?
A
Because we are not licensed to do so.
6
Q
Can FISOs utilise surveillance derived information to provide traffic info?
A
No, however the use of surveillance equipment by FISOs for other tasks may be granted subject to regulatory approval.
7
Q
When does a FISO provide a basic service?
A
To aerodrome traffic and aircraft flying in the vicinity. It may be provided to any type of aircraft regardless of flight rules and met conditions. Pilots should not expect specific traffic information.
8
Q
What sort of traffic information is a FISO permitted to pass and when shall it be given?
A
General airspace activity information (as part of a basic service), so basically general traffic information. This can be passed whenever the FISO believes that this information may affect a flight and this is passed with the intention of improving the pilots situational awareness.
9
Q
When do we provide an alerting service?
A
As part of providing a basic or aerodrome flight information service
10
Q
What must a FISO do if he considers there is a risk of a collision?
A
Issue a warning to the pilot.
11
Q
What type of FIS are FISOs licence to give?
A
Aerodrome flight information service Basic service (Alerting service comes as part of these)
12
Q
What may and what shall a FISO do in the provision of his services?
A
May issue advice and shall issue information to aircraft in their area of responsibility, for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
13
Q
Can FISOs issue instructions? What re the exceptions?
A
No -Departing aircraft about to move on the apron and manoeuvring area up to and including the holding point of the departure runway. -Departing aircraft required to utilise the runway for the purposes of taxiing, who will not subsequently vacate the runway prior to departure (backtracking). -Arriving aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area and apron, following the completion of the landing roll. -All other aircraft raft intending to move or moving on the apron and manoeuvring area, including the crossing of runways. -To helicopters engaged in air taxiing for departure, up to and including the holding point of the runway to be used for departure, including any other locations from which the helicopter will depart. -to helicopters engaging in air taxiing on completion of landing or that have reached the hover prior to air taxiing. Elsewhere on the ground and at all times in the air, information will be passed.
14
Q
Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.
A
Aircraft in emergency Aircraft which have declared a police emergency Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.
15
Q
Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.
A
Police flights under normal operational priority Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops Post accident flight checks Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights
16
Q
Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status
A
Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement
17
Q
Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.
A
Flights carrying heads of government or very senior government ministers.
18
Q
Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.
A
Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks HEMS flights positioning for the purposes of their duties Other flights authorised by the CAA
19
Q
Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.
A
Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests
20
Q
What flight category are training and non standard flights?
A
Class Z
21
Q
When is a police aircraft likely to declare a police emergency and what category would this make the aircraft?
A
In situations where an immediate response is required where the safety of life is at immediate risk or a serious crime or major incident is in progress. Class A
22
Q
What re the different flight categories relevant to police flights?
A
Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A Cat B- Normal operational priority Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc
23
Q
What call sign will UK police used and what will be added to denote the Flight being Cat A?
A
UKP- “Police” A will be suffixed to call sign
24
Q
What is a HEMS flight and what flight category can it operate under?
A
Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved. They can operate as; Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks Cat E when positioning for its duties Cat Z when training, testing etc.
25
What is the call sign for a he Helimed flight?
HLE- "Helimed" Suffixed by A or E when operating under either of these categories of priority. If no suffix than aircraft is performing routine tasks.
26
Define a Royal flight.
The movement of an aircraft specifically tasked to carry one or more members of The Royal Family afforded such status by the Royal Household.
27
What is CAS-T?
Usually a fixed wing Royal flight will operate within established controlled airspace. However if it does leave the this the Royal flight will have temporary controlled airspace (CAS-T) established around it. This temporary airspace is class D and subject to the normal rules of that type of airspace with the additional rule that gliders are not permitted to enter. This airspace will also be established at uncontrolled aerodromes in the form of a temporary control zone with the CAS-T linking that with the established controlled airspace structure.
28
How is information on a Royal flight disseminated?
By a notification message on a Royal flight collective, giving full details. Information on the establishment of CAS-T including vertical limits is promulgated by NOTAM.
29
What is established for the protection of helicopter Royal flights?
Royal low level corridors Dimensions are detailed.
30
What is the SSR code for Royal flight?
0037
31
What is the SSR code for selected helicopter flights?
0035
32
What are the Royal flight call signs and what do they mean?
KRF Kittyhawk. 32 Royal squadron RRF Kitty. 32 Royal squadron positioning flight TQF Rainbow. The queens helicopter flight KRH. Sparrowhawk. Civilian chartered aircraft The call sign will be suffixed with an R if carrying a person afforded Royal flight status.
33
When is a FISO permitted to instruct an aircraft to squawk a code?
On behalf of an ATC unit.
34
0030?
Fir lost
35
7000?
General conspicuity code
36
7010?
Aerodrome traffic circuit
37
7500
Hi jack/unlawful interference
38
7600
Radio comms failure
39
7700
Emergency
40
What is ACAS?
Airborne collision avoidance system Aircraft system based on SSR transponders that aims to resolve airborne conflicts.
41
What is TACAS?
Traffic alert and collision avoidance system A type of ACAS currently carried on aircraft. Latest version is TCAS II (v7.1). Uses transponder information to inform aircraft of conflicting traffic and can issue RAs to resolve those conflicts. If one or more of the transponders does not report mode C level info then an RA will not be generated and aircraft will only get a TA.
42
What is an RA and how is it communicated to the pilots?
A resolution advisory Vertical instructions given to the pilots aurally and visually to resolve a conflict detected by the system. Aircraft not transponding their level (mode C or S) will not get RA’s
43
What shall a pilot do when issued a RA?
Respond immediately to it. Restrict manoeuvres to the minimum necessary to resolve conflict Advice ATC asap and return to previously assigned level when safe to do so.
44
What is the proper response from ATS to a pilot having an RA?
Roger
45
What would be the exchange between ATC and the pilot in receipt of an RA?
When flight crew is issued RA Pilot: TCAS RA FISO: roger After Ra is complete; Pilot: Clear of conflict returning to (previous level) FISO: roger Or Pilot: clear of conflict (previous level) resumed FISO: roger
46
Define an aerodrome
A defined area on land or water (including any building, installation and equipment) or on a fixed, offshore or floating structure intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival departure and surface movement of aircraft.
47
Define an Apron.
A defined area, intended to accommodate aircraft for the purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, feeling, parking or maintenance.
48
Define a clearway.
An area at the end of the take off run Available, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aircraft may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
49
Define a holding point.
Either; - a specified location, identified by visual or other means, in the vicinity of which the position of an aircraft in flight is maintained in accordance with air traffic control clearances. Or -a runway Holding Position or intermediate Holding Position.
50
Define the manoeuvring area.
That part of an aerodrome provided for the take off, landing and taxiing or aircraft, excluding aprons.
51
Define a runway.
A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take off run of aircraft along its length.
52
Define a runway holding position.
A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold unless otherwise authorised.
53
Define a stopway.
A defined rectangular area at the end of the take off run Available, prepared and designated as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of a discontinued take off.
54
Define the threshold.
The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing.
55
What is a TORA?
Take off run Available This is the length of runway available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off. In most cases it will correspond to the length of the runway pavement.
56
What is the TODA?
Takeoff distance Available This is the length of the TORA plus the length of any associated clearway. If there is no clearway then the TODA and TORA will be the same.
57
What is the ASDA?
This is the length of the takeoff run Available plus the length of any associated stopway. Where no stopway exists, the ASDA will equal the TORA. TORA+ stopway, unless there is no stopway in which case equal to TORA
58
What is the LDA?
This is the length of the runway available and suitable for the ground landing run of the aeroplane, starts at the threshold, which can be displaced.
59
What is the PCN?
Pavement classification number An ICAO standard used in combination with the ACN to indicate the strength of a runway, taxiway or apron.
60
What is the ACN?
Aircraft classification number The number expressing the relative effect of an aircraft on the runway pavement for a specified standard subgrade category, using a method defined by ICAO.
61
Don't forget to look at lighting and signage lessons
Can't get the images on here without a computer so just look through the slides
62
When should you initiate overdue action?
When the aircraft is 30 minutes or more late and nothing has been heard and you can't find them
63
What should you should do if you have a radio fail aircraft?
Ask other aircraft to attempt to contact it Transmit weather and other relevant information, prefixing the transmission with the phrase 'transmitting blind' Ask a nearby radar equipped unit for assistance
64
What will a VFR aircraft that is experiencing radio failure and has not acknowledged any transmissions be expected to do?
If in VMC: Continue to fly in VMC Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome Report its arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATSU
65
What will an IFR aircraft experiencing radio failure that has not responded to any transmissions be expected to do?
Proceed to the appropriate designated navigation aid or fix serving the estimation aerodrome and hold over this aid or fix until commencement of descent. Commence descent from the navigation aid or fix specified in at the eta. Complete a normal instrument approach procedure Land if possible within 30 mins
66
What is the FISO reporting requirement?
A holder of a FISO licence is to report, within 72 hours, any occurrence which has, or if not corrected would have, endangered an aircraft, its occupants, or any other person.
67
Give some examples of things you would report.
Collisions Takeoff and landing related Fuel related Inflight Communications related Injuries Crew incapacitation Met conditions Security related
68
What is a reportable occurrence?
Any incident which endangers or which, if not corrected, would endanger an aircraft, its occupants or any other person.
69
Define an aircraft ground incident.
Where an aircraft on the ground is known to have an e,regency situation, after an accident, requiring the attendance of emergency services.
70
Define a full emergency.
When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.
71
Define local standby.
When it is known that an aircraft has, or is suspected to have, developed some defect but the trouble would not normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing. Also used at some units. When an aircraft has to be searched following a bomb warning or requires inspecting on the ground by the aerodrome fire services.
72
Define weather standby.
When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe, e.g. Strong crosswind, poor vis etc
73
Define an airprox
A situation in which, in the opinion of a pilot or a controller, the distance between aircraft as well as their relative positions and speed have been such that the safety of the aircraft involved was or may have been compromised.
74
What should a pilot airprox report on the RT include?
Aircraft call sign SSR code Position of airprox Aircraft heading Level Altimeter setting Aircraft attitude Weather conditions Date and time Description of other aircraft first sighting distance and details of flight paths or reporting and reported aircraft.
75
If your unit did not have an internal reporting system what site would you go to file a report?
Aviationreporting.eu.
76
How long does data that may be relevant to an investigation (should one be needed) be retained for?
30days. Including flight strips and RT recordings
77
What is the AFTN?
Aeronautical fixed telecommunications network Exchanges messages between fixed stations including flight plans and NOTAMS. Units have unique 8 digit addresses consisting of the ICAO designator and the particular part of that station (e.g. ZTZX means the tower of that unit) e.g.; Tiree tower = EGPUZTZX Blackbushe tower= EGLKZTZX
78
Define a flight plan.
Specified information provided to air traffic service units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight from an aircraft.
79
What types of flight plans are there and describe them briefly.
Full flight plans- those on the CA48 form Abbreviated flight plans- limited information required to obtain a clearance for a portion of a flight e.g. Crossing controlled airspace, these can be filed in the air via the RT or by telephone before take off.
80
If passing an airborne flight plan over the RT how much notice should the pilot give to receive his clearance?
10 minutes.
81
What form do you use for full flight plans?
CA48 (for details of filling this in refer to CAP694 the flight planning guide).
82
When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?
1.For any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an ATC service 2.Any IFR flight within advisory airspace 3.Any flight across international boundaries 4.Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate the provision of search and rescue, flight information and alerting services 5.Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate coordination with the appropriate military units or air traffic service units of an adjacent state to prevent the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification as prescribed by the states concerned. 6.Any flight planned to operate at night if leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome.
83
Who may file a flight plan?
A pilot may file a flight plan for any flight
84
Why file a flight plan?
Notifies ATC and other agencies of intended flight Applies for CTOT (calculated takeoff time) when ATFCM (Air Traffic Flow Capacity Management) measures are in place. Search and rescue- people will come looking for you if you go missing
85
When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan?
When flying more than 10nm from the UK coast or over a sparsely populated area where search and rescue operations would be difficult. If he intends to fly into an area where search and rescue operations are in progress. The ACC is to notify the aeronautical rescue co-ordination centre (ARCC) concerned.
86
When should a pilot submit his flight plan before taking off?
60 minutes before
87
Who is ultimately responsible for the accuracy of flight plans?
The pilot
88
What shall a pilot do if flying to an aerodrome not connected to the AFTN?
Nominate a responsible person and inform them of planned ETA, if aircraft doesn't arrive within 30 minutes of ETA the responsible person will notify the ATSU who will initiate alerting action. If a responsible person cannot be found then the ATSU will act in that role and the pilot must contact the ATSU to inform them of arrival within 30 minutes of eta otherwise alerting action will automatically be initiated.
89
What is AFPEx?
Assisted flight planning exchange Gateway via the internet to the AFTN.
90
What is a NOTAM?
A notice to airmen A notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
91
Give examples for NOTAMS
Hazards such as air shows cranes etc Flights by important people Closed runways Inoperable Nav aids Military exercises Temporary obstacles Large flocks of birds (known as a BIRDTAM)
92
What does NOTAMN, NOTAMC, or NOTAMR mean?
NOTAMN- NOTAM with new info NOTAMR- NOTAM replacing a previous one NOTAMC- NOTAM cancelling a previous NOTAM
93
For an IFR flight what time before and after the EOBT will it be allowed to depart?
+/-15 minutes, of later than that a delay message must be sent. If earlier, original flight plan must be cancelled and refilled.
94
What time period after the EOBT can a VFR flight take off?
30mins
95
What is a CTOT and what time tolerance either side is there for taking off?
Calculated take off time -5 mins +10 mins
96
What is the ATFCM?
Air traffic flow capacity management Service provided to make sure air traffic is safe, orderly and expeditious. Designed to ensure the maximum utilisation of the airspace which can be achieved in different ways and to make sure no area become overloaded or beyond capacity.
97
What is the NMOC?
The network manager operations centre Manages the tactical management of air traffic in collaboration with the flow management positions at the ACCs. Based in Brussels
98
Where is the UKs flow management position?
Swanwick
99
What is the IFPS?
Integrated initial flight plan processing system Rationalises reception, initial processing and distribution of flight plan data related to IFR flight within the area covered by the participating states. All IFR flight plans go through this, VFR do not.
100
Name some methods of flow management.
Re-routing Level capping CTOTs
101
What is a departure message?
A message sent through the AFTN from the ATSU at the departure aerodrome telling those concerned that the aircraft has departed.
102
How would you tell the AFTN that an aircraft wishes to depart later than originally planned?
A delay message of more than 15 minutes after an IFR EOBT, or 30 minutes for a VFR EOBT.
103
What is the EOBT?
Estimated off blocks time The time the aircraft intends to start taxiing for departure.
104
What is a ready message?
A message sent by the ATSU indicating to NMOC that a flight can accept an improved CTOT
105
What is an ACC?
Area control centre A unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled flights in control areas under its jurisdiction.
106
What ACC provides services to the London FIR and what are its constituent units?
Swanwick London area control London terminal control Military air traffic control
107
Where is the ACC for the Scottish FIR and what are its constituent units?
Prestwick Scottish area control centre Oceanic area control centre
108
What is an Area FISO?
A FISO at either swanwick or prestwick who provides FIS to aircraft within their area of responsibility outside of controlled airspace. They provide a Basic service (and by extension an alerting service).
109
What is the LATCC and what do they provide?
London military controllers London military control Distress and diversion Military airspace booking and coordination cell Radar analysis cell
110
Who provides assistance to aircraft in an emergency and who is responsible for that unit?
Distress and diversion cell RAF
111
What Frequency would a civilian aircraft call up D and D on?
121.5MHz
112
What are the responsibilities of the D and D cell?
. Provide and maintain within the UK FIR; -Emergency and fixing service for Mil and civ aircraft. -A search and rescue alerting service (SAR). -Facilities for practicing emergencies for pilots and controllers. -RPS values, weather and airfield information. . Monitor Royal flights . Construct temporary danger areas, and promulgate details. . Alert ARCC of emergencies.
113
Describe the involvement and authority of D and D in emergencies.
If aircraft calls emergency on discrete frequency; -D and D retains executive control -Operational control delegated to reporting ATSU If aircraft calls on 121.5; -Executive control -Operational control Reports received from; -Other ATC agencies or aircraft -Members of the public -Emergency services -ARCC
114
What is SAR and who provides it?
Search and rescue, It is provided by the Aeronautical rescue and coordination centre
115
Who are ARCC and what are there responsibilities?
Aeronautical rescue and coordination centre Only organisation that can task an SAR asset in the UK SAR region. Coordinate search and rescue attempts and other activities related to SAR ops including; -Overland search planning -Refuelling arrangements -Airspace considerations -Multi agency communications -Coordination with other emergency aircraft -Ambulances and hospitals
116
What are the phases of emergency?
Uncertainty Alert Distress
117
Where would you find the phases of emergency table?
Cap797
118
What would a telephone message about an emergency contain?
1. Phase of emergency (uncertainty, alert, distress) 2. Information from the transmitted flight plan- aircraft ID, SSR code, flight rules, type of AC, equipment, aerodrome, speed, level, route, destination/alternate aerodrome, FIR boundary estimate, other info. Followed by this information if you have it; 3. Information from the flight plan at departure aerodrome- supplementary information, pilots name, aircraft operator, colour and aircraft markings. 4. Info from appropriate sources- last reported position, any dangerous goods, action taken by reporting unit, any other pertinent info.
119
Define distress in regards to emergencies.
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
120
Define urgency with regards to emergencies.
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or vehicle, or of some person on board within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
121
What should the pilot say if distress?
Mayday, mayday, mayday
122
What should a pilot say for urgency?
Pan pan, pan pan, pan pan.
123
What details should a pilot pass in an emergency message?
Mayday/ pan call followed by; Name of station addressed Aircraft call sign Aircraft type Nature of emergency Intentions of pilot in command Present or last known position Pilot qualifications Any other useful info E.g. "Mayday mayday mayday, Kemble information, GABCD, PA28, engine fire losing height, intend an immediate forced landing 8 miles north of Kemble, passing 1800ft, heading 180 degrees, ppl no instrument qualification, 2 pob"
124
What is the correct response from a FISO to an aircraft declaring an emergency?
"Callsign, your callsign, roger mayday/pan-pan, any pertinent information e.g. Surface wind" "GABCD, Kemble information, roger mayday."
125
When should overdue action be initiated?
No later then the time shown in the overdue column of the phases of emergency table relevant to the phase of emergency. For uncertainty this is 30 minutes after expected arrival time.
126
What information should the FISO take if receiving a report of an emergency or accident from an outside source?
In addition to taking the emergency information obtain the name, address and telephone number of the person making the report.
127
What actions should a FISO take in an emergency?
1. Take all necessary steps to ascertain aircraft ID and type, type of emergency, intentions of the crew, position and level. 2. Decide upon most appropriate type of assistance which can be rendered. 3. Enlist the aid of any other ATS units or other services which may be able to provide assistance to the aircraft e.g. D and D. 4. Provide the flight crew with any requested information e.g. Weather 5. Obtain from the operator or the flight crew info such as POB, amount of fuel remaining, possible hazardous materials. 6. Notify appropriate ATS units and authorities as specified in local instructions.
128
When is the FISO to alert rescue and fire services?
An aircraft accident has occurred, on or in the vicinity of aerodrome Information is received that the safety of an aircraft which is or may come under the jurisdiction of the AFIS unit may be impaired Requested by the flight crew When otherwise deemed necessary or desirable.
129
What shall FISOs do in the event of u lawful interference?
Be prepared to recognise such interference. Whenever it is suspected or known to have happened assist the ACC as far as practicable.
130
What shall a FISO do when receiving information regarding a bomb threat?
-If in direct communication with the aircraft, advise the flight crew without delay of the threat and the circumstances regarding that threat. -If not in direct communications with the aircraft, advise the flight crew by the most expeditious through other ATS units or channels. FIS UNITS ARE NOT TO PROVIDE ANY SUGGESTIONS CONCERNING ACTION TO BE TAKEN.
131
Why do you provide specific traffic information as the aircraft gets closer?
As the pilot gets to the aerodrome and is required to integrate with other traffic, specific traffic information is needed in order to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic and to assist pilots in preventing collisions.
132
What shall a FISO do if he believes that a risk of collision exists?
When a pilot report indicates, or an AFISO considers, that there may be a collision risk, specific traffic information shall be passed to each pilot concerned.
133
What shall a FISO do if an aircraft doing a go around looks like it will catch up with another aircraft?
He shall ensure that traffic information is passed if an aircraft executing a go around may catch up a preceding aircraft.
134
List the format of a specific traffic information message.
"Traffic is.... -aircraft type -position -level -intentions" E.g. "G-VJ, traffic is a Cherokee, last reported at Stanford three minutes ago, not working this Frequency."
135
With whom does the responsibility for wake turbulence avoidance ultimately rest with?
The pilot.
136
What shall FISOs do if they believe or there is wake turbulence that will affect an aircraft?
They shall, to the extent practicable advise aircraft of the expected hazards caused by turbulent wake. Such information will be provided by the warning "caution wake turbulence" and may also include relevant information on the aircraft concerned.
137
How do you warn an of jet or prop blast?
"Caution jet/prop blast" E.g. "G-KI, cross runway 26 at the threshold, caution jet blast from departing Boeing 737".
138
What considerations should a FISO have with regards to helicopter downwash?
They should avoid taxiing light aircraft or helicopters within a minimum area compromising three times the rotor diameter of that helicopter (CAP797). Should also exercise caution when landing small aircraft on a runway after a helicopter of higher wake turbulence category has taken off.
139
What should a pilot report regarding windshear contain?
1. A warning of the presence of windshear 2. The height or the height band where it was encountered. 3. The time at which it was encountered. 4. Details of the effect of the windshear on the aircraft e.g. Speed gain or loss, vertical speeds etc. The information shall be relayed to subsequent inbound and outbound aircraft until confirmation is received that it no longer exists.
140
Define essential information on aerodrome conditions
Essential information on aerodrome conditions is information necessary to safety in the operation of aircraft which pertains to the movement area or any facilities usually associated there with.
141
Give some examples of essential information on aerodrome conditions
. Construction or maintenance work . Rough or broken surfaces on a runway/taxiway/apron . Snow, slush, or ice on manoeuvring area or apron . Water on manoeuvring area or apron . Snow banks . Other temporary hazards . Failure or irregular operation of lighting system . Aircraft parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines . Any other pertinent information
142
Can vehicles move on the manoeuvring area without permission of AFIS unit?
No, they must comply with instructions at all times.
143
What is the procedure for crossing a runway?
The instruction must be given explicitly to the aircraft and it will be told to report vacating (if you can see the runway and aircraft /vehicle continuously then not necessary to report vacated).
144
What shall a pilot do if they are unsure of their position on the manoeuvring area?
.Notify the AFIS unit of the circumstances including the last known position .If on the runway and if able to locate a nearby suitable taxiway, vacate the runway as expeditiously as possible, and then stop the aircraft.
145
What shall an AFISO do of an aircraft is lost on the manoeuvring area?
Pass appropriate information to other pilots affected and provide assistance to the aircraft or vehicle concerned to determine its position.
146
What shall a FISO do in the event of a runway incursion or obstruction?
Shall take appropriate action and inform the aircraft of the runway incursion or obstruction and its location in relation to the runway. FISOs and pilots must also make a report of the event.
147
What decides the direction of runway used?
The wind direction is usually the main decider however it can also be decided by the traffic circuit, met conditions (thunderstorms windshear etc), noise abatement, or airtraffic conditions.
148
Does a pilot have to follow the runway designation as decided by the FISO?
Nope, if he decides to land on another runway the FISO shall provide information as necessary.
149
Who needs to be informed of runway change?
Aircraft receiving service Aerodrome fire service Contractors working on the aerodrome who will be affected by the change Other agencies according to local instructions
150
What is the closest point to the runway an aircraft can hold?
Runway holding position
151
I an aircraft is landing but there is already an aircraft on the runway taking off who has priority?
The aircraft departing.
152
What information needs to be passed to an aircraft prior to taxi or departure?
.Relevant information on local traffic and aerodrome conditions shall be provided, as well as taxi instructions to the holding point of the runway in use. .The runway to be used .The QNH or QFE .The air temperature in the case of turbine engine aircraft
153
When a taxi instruction contains a taxi limit beyond a runway what must that instruction contain?
Explicit permission to cross that runway. You can get the aircraft to hold short of the runway to be crossed by saying "hold short of runway xx" if the taxi instruction involves a taxi point beyond the runway, otherwise just taxi to the runway holding position.
154
How do you stop an aircraft on the manoeuvring area where you can issue instructions?
Say "hold position"
155
What information is to be passed to the aircraft prior to departure?
.Surface wind and speed .Changes in altimeter setting .Changes in air temperature for turbine aircraft .Significant met conditions in the take off and climb out area .Current traffic circuits and other traffic when necessary
156
What do you say to aircraft wishing to use the runway when another aircraft ahead is still on it?
Runway occupied
157
What information should you pass to arriving aircraft?
.The runway in use .The QNH or QFE .current runway surface conditions .Changes in the operational status of visual and non visual aids .Other relevant information.
158
What must the runway be before aircraft can be informed to land at own discretion?
Unoccupied
159
What must be conducted before flying can commence and what may be reported?
A runway inspection Changes in runway conditions
160
What are the runway surface condition definitions?
Dry- The surface is not affected by water, slush or ice. Damp- When the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture Wet- When the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible. Water patches- When significant patches of standing water are visible Flooded- When extensive standing water is visible
161
How are runway surface conditions passed?
Sequentially passed reports of each third of the runway e.g. "Wet, wet, dry"
162
Define aircraft accident/ aircraft accident imminent
Aircraft accidents which have occurred or are inevitable on or in the vicinity of the aerodrome
163
What is the “operations normal procedure”?
When an aircraft is traversing over a sparsely populated area and is receiving a service from a single ATSU for a prolonged period of time. After a period of 30mins of radio inactivity it is expected that the pilot will transmit an “operations normal” message to let the ATSU know that operations are progressing as planned. If an ATSU does not receive this message by the expected time they may transmit to aircraft “call sign, confirm operations normal?”, if no response received after three successive attempts at contact FISO is to initiate overdue action.
164
Which aircraft must carry TCAS?
Those with a MTOW of more than 5,700kg or capacity to carry more than 19 passengers
165
How long before an assumed collision does TCAS issue a TA?
40 seconds
166
How long before an assumed collision does TCAS issue an RA?
25 seconds
