Procedures for Air Navigation Flashcards
1
Q
At least __m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than __° can be specified.
A
90, 15
2
Q
Hvað er straight departure?
A
Ferð ekki meira en 15° út frá miðlínu brautar.
3
Q
When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is __°C corresponding to the altitude.
A
+15°
4
Q
Turning departures provide track guidance within __km
A
10
5
Q
In an omnidirectional departure, how high do you need to climb before turning?
A
120m (394 ft)
6
Q
In a straight departure, track guidance must be acquired in _km.
A
20
7
Q
PDG (Procedure design gradient) er samansett af __% gradient of obstacle identification plus __% increasing obstacle clearance.
A
2.5, 0.8
8
Q
Objects located beyong the 15km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacle in flight (enroute obstacles) if they exceed ___m in height.
A
150
9
Q
Það er búið til turning departure ef beygju upp á __° eða meira er þarnfast.
A
15°
10
Q
Holding procedures; The buffer area extends __ NM beyond the boundary of the holding area.
A
5
11
Q
A climb or descent procedure in a holding pattern is called ___.
A
shuttle
12
Q
Turns in a holding procedure are done at a bank angle of __° or a rate of 3° per second, whichever required lesser/more bank.
A
25, lesser
13
Q
Þegar þú ert fyrstur í holding area, the level that will normally be assigned to you is..
A
the lowest available holding level.
14
Q
Holding procedures; The minimum permissible holding level provides a minimum obstacle clearance of at least ___m in the holding area.
A
300m (984 ft)
15
Q
Minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at a range of 6 NM from the boundary (edge) of the holding area is _ m.
A
0
16
Q
If an ILS glide path (GP) becomes inoperative during the approach: a go-around should be initiated, or, if time permits, the approach can be continued by using the __ signals.
A
LOC
17
Q
Where does the arrival route usually end?
A
At the Initial approach fix
18
Q
Width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is:
A
+/- 5 NM
19
Q
If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument approach procedure, can the approach be continued?
A
Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with.
20
Q
When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facility assumed for a VOR is: +/- __°
A
4.5
21
Q
Hvað stendur MDA fyrir?
A
Minimum DESCENT Altitude
22
Q
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the
a) FAF
b) FAP
A
b) FAP
23
Q
When constructing a turning missed approach the pilot reaction time taken into account is: ___ seconds.
A
0 - 3
24
Q
Hvað stendur MOC fyrir?
A
Minimum Obstacle Clearance
25
The intermediate missed approach segment ends where __ m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
50
26
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach segment start? At the __ ___ point.
missed approach
27
Where an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will: intersect the localizer at __° and will not be more than __ NM in length.
45, 10
28
Straight-in-approach: Considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is: __° or less.
30
29
The ILS glide path is normally intercepted at a distance from the threshold between: _ and _ NM.
3, 10
30
With regard to an instrument approach procedure design, the overall fix tolerance using a DME is: +/- 0.46 km + __% of the distance to the antenna.
1.25
31
A visual manoeuvring (circling) area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what circumstances is this permitted? The obstacle is outside the __ approach or ___ ___areas.
final, missed approach
32
A descent below the MDA should not be made until
1) the pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2) visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3) The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made.
Allt rétt
33
For a precision instrument approach, the FAP is at a maximum distance of __ NM from the threshold.
10
34
A complete missed approach procedure consists of what three phases?
Initial, intermediate and final
35
Minimum sector altitudes (MSA) published on approach charts provide at least the following obstacle clearance: __ m within 25 NM of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome.
300
36
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice versa is done at transition ___ during climb and transition ___ during descent.
altitude, level
37
The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than: ___ ft AGL
3000
38
During a flight below the Transition Altitude, the altimeter of an aircraft shall be set to: ___ and its vertical position expressed in terms of ___.
QNH, altitude
39
Altimeter er með tolerance upp á +/- upp á __ ft.
60
40
During an approach to landing on a flight in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from 1013.2 hPa to airfield QNH shall be made: a) when passing the transition altitude
b) when passing the transition level
c) within the transition layer
b) when passing the transition level
41
Hvaða FL væri at the atmospheric pressure level of 1013.2 hPa?
FL zero
42
"The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level" kallast..
Transition layer
43
The NOZ extends from __ to the point where aircraft are normally established on the localiser.
runway threshold
44
The NTZ shall have a width of at least: __ m.
610
45
When parallel runway operations are in progress and a reduced radar separation of 3 NM between approaching aeroplanes is maintained, what type of operations are being carried out? Mode _.
2
| Þú veist að þetta er Mode 2 því það er talað um separation, mode 1 er ekki með neinu sérstöku seperation held ég.
46
The No-Transgression Zone (NTZ) extends from the threshold of the nearer runway to the point at which ___ ft vertical separation is reduced between aircraft.
1000
47
ICAO Annex 6 states that transponders shall be equipped with an altitude reporting data sources which is accurate to: __ ft.
25
48
Hver er emergency transponder code'inn?
7700
49
ICAO Annex 6 states that mode C replies of transponders always report pressure altitude in increments of: __ ft.
100
50
Hver er kóðinn fyrir unlawful interference?
7500
51
Hver er kóðinn fyrir radio com failure?
7600
52
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode:
a) unless otherwise directed by ATC.
b) only when directed by ATC
a) unless otherwise directed by ATC.
53
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Initial-, Intermediate or Final approach segment?
Final approach
54
PAN OPS stendur fyrir “Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Airfield/Aircraft Operations”.
Aircraft
55
The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called:
a) ICAO Annex 14
b) PAN OPS Doc 8168
b) PAN OPS Doc 8168
56
DER stendur fyrir
Departure End of Runway
57
Hvað stendur STAR fyrir?
Standard Instrument Arrival
58
Transition level: Shall be the highest/lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
lowest
59
Þetta kallast __ turn: " A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track.”
Procedure turn
60
ICAO Doc 8168 er talað um OIS, hvað þýðir það?
Obstacle Identification Surface
61
Hvað kallast þessi hæð? "The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue its descent while performing a precision approach, without having an outside visual reference.”
Decision HEIGHT
62
Hvernig approach er þetta? "Uses azimuth, elevation and distance information."
Precision approach
63
What SSR trandsponder code should a pilot set in the absence of any specific code instruction from ATC, when flying in airspace where a radar service is available?
2000.
64
An aircraft is performing an instrument approach. What is the most significant factor?
1. Power/thrust
2. speed
2. speed
65
The purpose of altimeter settings:
a) provide vertical seperation and input for SSR ground facilities during all phases of flight
b) provide vertical seperation during all phases of flight.
b) provide vertical seperation during all phases of flight.
66
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
a) the state territory indicator, followed by the letters P, R, D, followed by an ID figure
b) the letters P, R or D, followed by an ID figure
a) the state territory indicator, followed by the letters P, R, D, followed by an ID figure
67
When designing taxiways for aeroplanes, the designer of a taxiway curve assumes that:
a) the pilot will oversteer and NOT follow the centerline
b) the cockpit of the aeroplane will remain overhead the centerline
b) the cockpit of the aeroplane will remain overhead the centerline
68
The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called: __ ___ Doc 8168
Pan Ops
69
Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is called Minimum ___ ____
Descent altitude, MDA
| OCA: Obstacle Clearance Altitude
70
Precision approach: Uses azimuth, elevation and ___ information.
distance
71
A radial is a ___ bearing to/from a VOR station.
magnetic, from
72
Hver sér um þetta? "Contingency procedures in case of engine failure during instrument departure after V1".
Operator of the aircraft.
73
Instrument departure (SID): procedure design gradient (PDG): __% all engines operating
3.3
74
Main factor in design of a departure procedure: ___ surrounding the airport.
Terrain
75
Instrument departure: Minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway on an instrument departure: _ ft.
0
76
PDG (Procedure design gradient): Samansett af __% gradient of obstacle identification plus __% increasing obstacle clearance.
2.5, 0.8
77
Aerodrome operating minima: When establishing aerodrome operating minima, these things are considered:
a) Competence and experience of flight crews
b) dimensions and characteristics of runways
c) adequacy and provision of ground aids
d) frequency of meteorological reports.
a) Competence and experience of flight crews
b) dimensions and characteristics of runways
c) adequacy and provision of ground aids
78
___ segment: Segment in which alignment and descent for landing is made.
Final
79
One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: the required visual references have been established and..
can be maintained
80
Farðu yfir approach procedurinn (þau eru fimm)
1. Arrival
2. Initial
3. Intermediate
4. Final
5. missed approach
81
Arrival procedure: Width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: +/- _ NM.
5
82
In an instrument approach initial approach starts at IAF and ends at __.
IF (Intermediate Fix)
83
The descent gradient is kept as low as possible in the ___ approach segment because: this is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted.
intermediate
84
Minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach is: __m
150 metrar (ca 500')
85
For a precision apprach the final approach segment starts at FAP/FAF
FAP
86
Normally the maximum descent gradient in a final approach is __%
6.5
87
Hvað er þetta? "Term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach."
Circling approach
88
During a circling approach (with or without prescribed flight track), the maximum allowed airspeed for category C aeroplane, in order to remain within the protected airspace is: __ kts. Þegar um Category B er að ræða þá er þetta __ kts.
180, 135
89
For a non-precision or circling approach, MDH cannot/can be lower than the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH).
cannot
90
Hvað þýðir DA/H?
Decision Altitude Height
91
Hvað þýðir DH?
Decision height
92
DME/DME RNAV approach is a precision or non-precision approach?
Non precision
93
Normally the missed approach procedure are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: __% The climb gradient of a missed approach can be reduced to _% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority.
2.5, 2.0
94
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? At the point where the __ is established.
climb
95
The initial missed approach segment: Begins at the __ and ends where the climb is established.
MAPt (Missed approach point)
96
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is: _ m.
50
97
The minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least: __ m.
300
98
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: __ NM.
25
99
If we add a margin to the OCH we get Minimum __ ___.
Descent Height
100
Within how many degrees of the published inbound approach track would the aircraft be considered “established” for an NDB procedure? +/- _°
5
101
Concerning the arrival segment and protection of the arrival segment. The arrival route normally ends at the __.
IAF
102
The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around: make an initial ___ turn towards/away from the runway and initiate the missed approach.
climbing, towards
103
When determining the OCA for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to a) MSL b) AAL, ___ elevation.
a) MSL
| threshold elevation
104
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established, the Obstacle Clearance Altitude / Height (OCA/H) is determined:
a) for each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.
b) The same for all aircraft.
a) for each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.
105
For a non-precision approach, the elevation of the relevant runway threshold is used for OCH reference if: the threshold elevation is more than _ m below the aerodrome elevation.
2
106
Normally, a procedure will be designed to provide protected airspace and obstacle clearance for aircraft up to and including: Category _.
D
107
The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centerline more than __ of scale deflection after being established on the track.
½
108
You would be regarded as being “established” on the localizer of an ILS approach if you are: within __ scale deflection of the CDI.
½
109
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than (Category B aircraft): __ m
6
110
Who is establishing the lowest aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?
The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome.
111
Base turn: A turn executed by the aircraft during the __ approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track (the tracks are not reciprocal).
initial
112
For the construction of precision approaches, what is the operationally preferred (optimum) glide path angle? _°.
3
113
Glide path in excess of _° would be used where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable.
3
114
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from: __ to __.
300 m (984 ft) to 900 m (2955 ft).
115
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: _ minutes and _ seconds. and for A and B category airplanes the time is...
```
1 mínúta 15 sek
A og B class er 1 mínúta slétt.
```
116
___ area of an instrument approach segment is a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the Minimum Obstacle Clearance is provided.
Primary
117
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descent below the OCA? When in visual contact with the ground and with the runway ___ in sight.
lights or markings
118
Accuracy depends on:
1. ___ system tolerance
2. airborne receiving system tolerance
3. flight technical tolerance
4. system ____ tolerance
5. Distance from the reference facility
Ground, computation
119
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made so as to: pass the fix not below the specified ___ altitude.
crossing
120
For an en-route surveillance radar (PSR), overall fix tolerance within 40 NM of the radar is assumed to be: +/- a) 3.1 km
b) 5 km
a) 3.1 km
121
During an ILS/MLS approach, the point in space on the final approach track where the intermediate approach altitude/height intercepts the nominal glide path/microwave landing system (MLS) elevation angle is called ___.
FAP
122
Where a final approach (FAF) is specified for a non-precision approach procedure, what is the Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC) fixed margin that is applied for all aircraft? __ m
75 m (246 ft).
123
Non-standard holding FIX: turns are to the ___ if no instruction from ATC is received.
right
| (Held að non-standard holding PATTERN sé right). “Holding fix” er þá væntanlega standard left.
124
The buffer area extends _ NM beyond the boundary of the holding area.
5
125
To remain in the holding pattern the ___ does adjustments on: heading and timing.
pilot
126
Three entry sectors; The type of entry into the holding pattern is determined according to: magnetic ___..
heading
127
Three entry sectors; The zone of flexibility on either side of the sector boundaries is _°.
5
128
After initial entry into a holding pattern, turns are to the __.
right
129
The minimum permissible holding level provides a minimum obstacle clearance of at least ___ft in the holding area.
300m (984 ft)
130
A pre-flight altimeter check should be carried out:
a) by a flight mechanic
b) at a known elevation on the aerodrome.
b) at a known elevation on the aerodrome.
131
The No-Transgression Zone (NTZ) extends from the threshold of the nearer runway to the point at which__ ft vertical separation is reduced between aircraft.
1000
132
When the transponder appears to be unservicable prior to departure and a repair is not possible, then: departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be made is/is not, allowed. (Þetta á líka við um SSR transponder).
is
133
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode:
a) unless otherwise directed by ATC.
b) only on approach and when requested.
a) unless otherwise directed by ATC.
134
The transition level:
a) Shall be the highest flight level below the transition altitude
b) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
b) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
135
A standard instrument arrival (STAR) called EELDE A ends at a waypoint called ARTIP, which is the
a) FAP
b) IAF
b) IAF
136
What is the maximum distance the FAP (Final Approach Point) can be from the threshold in an instrument runway?
a) 19 km (10 NM)
b) 9 km (5 NM)
c) 28 km (15 NM)
a) 19 km (10 NM)
137
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures assume turns are made at a bank angle of __°, __° for circlign-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and __° for missed approach procedures.
25°, 20°, 15°
138
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track. This is a definition of a ___ turn.
procedure
139
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of
a) 2.5%
b) 3.3%
c) 0.8%
a) 2.5%
140
where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure start and end?
a) IAF to IF
b) IAF to FAF
a) IAF to IF
141
Concerning the arrival segment and protection of the arrival segment. The arrival route normally ends at the IAF. Omnidirectional or sector arrivals can be provided taking into account minimum ___ ___
sector altitudes (MSA)
142
During an ILS/MLS approach, the point in space on the final approach track where the intermediate approach altitude/height intercepts the nominal glide parth/microwave landing system (MLS) elevation angle is called:
a) FAP
b) FAF
a) FAP
143
The purpose of altimeter settings is
a) provide vertical separation during all phases of flight
b) provide vertical separation and input for SSR ground facilities during all phases of flight
a) provide vertical separation during all phases of flight
144
What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement for the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? __, reducing to __.
300m (984 ft), reducing to 150m (492 ft).
145
Hvað er minimum obstacle clearance mikið á departure end of runway á instrument departure?
0 ft.
146
Describe where the outbound timing begins in a holding pattern:
a) over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later
b) abeam the fix only
c) over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs earlier
a) over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later
147
How can you recognize that the edges or shoulders of an apron are non-load bearing surfaces? Two lines are in the colour of the ___ centre line.
TWY
148
Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location indicators"?
a) ENR b) AD c) GEN
c) GEN
149
The volcano alert code used in field E of an ASHTAM is
a) a colour code & ID
b) a colour code
b) a colour code
150
In which part of the AIP will you find information about special lights during landing: (communication failure):
a) AD b) ENR
b) ENR
151
What is the standard colour code for an safety document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?
a) white b) pink c) yellow
b) pink
152
Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the services responsible for search and rescue?
a) GEN b) AD c) ENR
a) GEN
