Professional Code & patient Safety

Question 1

What is Autonomy?

Answer 1

Respect for the patient’s right to self determination

Question 2

What is Beneficence?

Answer 2

The Duty to “do good”

Question 3

What is Non-Maleficence?

Answer 3

The duty to “not do bad”

Question 4

What is Juctice?

Answer 4

Treat all people equally & equitably

Question 5

What guides CRNA practice?

Answer 5

Federal & State Laws

Question 6

CRNA’s are reimbursed by

Answer 6

Centers for Medical & Medicaid (CMS)

Question 7

What is the AANA?

Answer 7

A professional organization that represents CRNA’s & students; provides advocacy

Question 8

What is the COA?

Answer 8

Ensures the academic quality of nurse anesthesiology programs

Question 9

CRNAs need to follow

Answer 9

Scope of Practice

Provided with a state, region or other jurisdiction

Question 10

The Scope of Practice for CRNAs is determined by the

Answer 10

State laws that govern the practice

Question 11

Informed consent is grounded int he

Answer 11

Ethical principle of respect for patient Autonomy

Question 12

Autonomy means individuals should be

Answer 12

free to make choices without external interference

Question 13

The provider must obtain consent & also provide information about

Answer 13

Risk/alternatives

The procedure

Potential Consequences

Question 14

Autonomy relies on

Answer 14

Competence

Question 15

Competence is a

Answer 15

Legal Determination

Question 16

Capacity refers to the

Answer 16

Necessary skills & abilities required to participate in making medical decisions

Question 17

What is DNR full suspension?

Answer 17

All provisions of the advance directive are suspended during anesthesia & the procedure for a specified period of time

Question 18

The scope of an CRNA is determined by

Answer 18

Experience
Education
Local State/federal Laws

Question 19

An avoidable but Unintentional medical mistake is referred to as medical

Answer 19

Negligence

Question 20

medical malpractice is when a

Answer 20

Healthcare professional deviates from the accepted standard of care, resulting in harm/injury

Question 21

Respecting autonomy involves disclosing

Answer 21

Medical mistakes that harm the patient

Question 22

Documentation must be____________-, ensuring_______________

Answer 22

Timely, accurate, legible & comprehensive

Dignity, privacy & confidentiality

Question 23

__________is recognized as the gold standard in healthcare

Answer 23

Patient centered care

Question 24

Respect & responsiveness to health belief, practices & needs of a divers population is

Answer 24

Cultural Competence

Question 25

Transmission of an infectious agent involves what 3 things?

Answer 25

Reservoir of Infectious Agent Mode of Transmission Susceptible Host

Question 26

What makes a host susceptible?

Answer 26

Age Co-morbid conditions Medication Therapies Nutritional Status Preventive Actions

Question 27

What is the chain of Infection?

Answer 27

Infectious Agent Reservoir Portal of Exit Mode of Transmission Portal of Entry Susceptible host

Question 28

What are the components of Standard Precautions

Answer 28

Hand Hygiene Personal Protective Equipment

Question 29

What are the types of PPE?

Answer 29

Protective Clothing Gloves Masks Eye protection

Question 30

Frequent hand hygiene occurs every

Answer 30

5-10 min

Question 31

What is the purpose of High-Quality heat & Moisture Exchange Filters (HMEFs)

Answer 31

Trap pathogens & prevent them from reaching the anesthesia machine & gas sample line Filters out moisture & pathogens

Question 32

What filter is recommended for a COVID patient?

Answer 32

VFE of 99.99%

Question 33

When should an injection be prepared?

Answer 33

Close to the time of administration

Question 34

The AORN recommends disposing a drawn up medication in a syringe after

Answer 34

1 hour

Question 35

The ASA recommends medications be discarded within

Answer 35

24 hours

Question 36

What is a surgical site infection (SSI)?

Answer 36

Is acquired by a patient in a healthcare facility following a surgical procedure Not present at the time of admission Is preventable

Question 37

An SSI diagnosed at or =near the surgical site within

Answer 37

30 days of the procedure

Question 38

For procedures involving prosthetic implantation, an SSI may be diagnosed if occurrence happened within

Answer 38

90 days of the procedure

Question 39

What can contribute to SSI?

Answer 39

Anesthesia provider & their workspace

Question 40

What 4 dimensions should be considered with SSI?

Answer 40

Hand Hygiene Safe Injection Practices Airway Management Environmental disinfectant

Question 41

What is destroyed with the use of Ultraviolet sanitizers?

Answer 41

Airborne & static microorganisms (used with chemical disinfectants)

Question 42

When should cephalosporins be administered?

Answer 42

Within 30 min of incision

Question 43

When should vancomycin/fluoroquinolone be administered?

Answer 43

120min prior to incision

Question 44

Should weight based dosing be used?

Answer 44

Yes 2gm Ancef <120kg 3gm Ancef >120kg

Question 45

patient should maintain temp above

Answer 45

95 F 35 C

Question 46

Hypothermia can trigger

Answer 46

Vasoconstriction & tissue hypoxia Impairs function of neutrophils, reducing protection against infection

Question 47

Hyperglycemia is associated with

Answer 47

SSI

Question 48

What is the recommended BS range?

Answer 48

<200 <180 for cardiac patients

Question 49

There are reduced infections at a FIO2 of

Answer 49

>.80

Question 50

Administering blood is associated with

Answer 50

Reduced Immune Function

Question 51

What procedures require Aseptic technique?

Answer 51

Central/Arterial Lines Regional Blocks Neuraxial Procedures (spinals/epidurals)

Question 52

Volatile Anesthetics can cause

Answer 52

Neurodevelopment in younger children Post-Op cognitive dysfunction Immune system suppression in all ages Reproductive health

Question 53

Volatile exposure limits should not exceed Nitrous Oxide?

Answer 53

2ppm 25ppm

Question 54

Surgical smoke from electrocautery may contain

Answer 54

Infectious & malignant cells Carcinogenic compounds

Question 55

What helps reduce exposure risks of surgical smoke?

Answer 55

Proper evacuation & filtration equipment

Question 56

What should be used with lasers are being used?

Answer 56

Laser-specific surgical masks

Question 57

What is the Fire Triad?

Answer 57

Fuel (alcohol prep) Oxidizer (open source of O2) Ignition source (electrocautery)

Question 58

What should always be available when laser/electrocautery is in use?

Answer 58

Saline & fire extinguishers

Question 59

What is the annual exposure of ionizing radiation?

Answer 59

5,000 mrem/year

Question 60

What is the calculation of lifetime exposure to ionizing radiation?

Answer 60

A person's age x 1,000 millirems

Question 61

What are the core Crisis Resource Management components?

Answer 61

Team Management Resource Allocation Situational Awareness Dynamic Decision Making

Question 62

Cognitive aids can reduce errors by up to

Answer 62

75% during crisis situations

Question 63

What are the 8 elements of core cognitive process

Answer 63

Observation Verification Problem recognition Prediction Decision Making Action Evaluation Start again at 1

Question 64

What are the 5 steps on attention management

Answer 64

Attention Sharing Dynamic Attention Allocation Developing Rhythms & patterns Balancing Focus Offloading Tasks