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Professional Issues (12.5) Flashcards

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1
Q

A nurse anesthetist in middle management submits written complaints to a state board about several other nurse anesthetists that are false and defamatory. Which AANA document could be applied to this situation?
a. code of ethics
b. practice guidelines
c. practice standards
d. position statements

professional

A

a. code of ethics

(pre-lesson Q1)

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2
Q

The use of unnecessary invasive preoperative testing is most likely to put the provider in violation of the principle of:
a. respect for autonomy
b. nonmaleficence
c. beneficence
d. justice

professional

A

b. nonmaleficence

(pre-lesson Q2)

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3
Q

Informed consent for anesthesia should include a discussion of which topics? (Select 2)
a. description of the recommended type of anesthetic
b. agreement to undergo the scheduled surgery/procedure
c. risks and benefits of each type of appropriate anesthetic
d. patient preferences, questions, and fears

professional

A

c. risks and benefits of each type of appropriate anesthetic
d. patient preferences, questions, and fears

(pre-lesson Q3)

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4
Q

What must an anesthesia provider do to obtain informed consent for epidural placement in a parturient who recently received 50 mg of meperidine?
a. review the efficacy of current pain management
b. document the patient’s dilation, effacement, and station
c. determine that the patient has sufficient capacity
d. perform detailed obstetrical history and physical exam

professional

A

c. determine that the patient has sufficient capacity

(pre-lesson Q4)

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5
Q

A terminal cancer patient with a “do not rescucitate” order presents for a port-a-cath placement. Which standard of nurse anesthesia practice has the most immediate relevance to the anesthetist’s preoperative activities?
a. standard 2 on thorough preoperative assessment and evaluation
b. standard 3 on plan for anesthetic care
c. standard 4 on informed consent and related anesthesia services
d. standard 13 on wellness

professional

A

c. standard 4 on plan for anesthetic care

(pre-lesson Q5)

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6
Q

Identify the standards of care that have been published by the American Association of Nurse Anesthetists. (Select 3).
a. wellness
b. infection control and prevention
c. chronic pain management
d. latex allergy management
e. transfer of care
f. mass casualty incident preparedness

professional

A

a. wellness
b. infection control and prevention
e. transfer of care

(pre-lesson Q6)

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7
Q

A CRNA is relieved by another anesthesia provider four hours into a complex case. The outgoing CRNA provides a short report that results in a missed repeated antibiotic dose. The patient ultimately develops sepsis that results in an unexpected 3-day ICU stay. Which causes of action against the primary CRNA might apply to this scenario? (Select 2)
a. loss of chance of survival
b. malpractice violation of the AANA standards of care
c. abandonment
d. vicarious liability for relieving anesthetist

professional

A

b. malpractice violation of the AANA standards of care
c. abandonment

(pre-lesson Q7)

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8
Q

Which law requires citizens to give the government an individual shared responsibility payment?
a. Emergency in Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act
b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
c. Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act
d. Affordable Care Act

professional

A

d. Affordable Care act

(pre-lesson Q8)

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9
Q

Match each drug to its schedule based on the Controlled Substances Act.
1. Schedule I
2. Schedule 2
3. Schedule 3
4. Schedule IV
a. heroin
b. cocaine
c. ketamine
d. tramadol

professional

A

1a (schedule 1 heroin)
2b (schedule 2 cocaine)
3c (schedule 3 ketamine)
4d (schedule IV tramadol)

(pre-lesson Q9)

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10
Q

When a patient experiences a serious anesthetic complication, what information is most appropriate to offer to the patient’s relatives?
a. provide the names and roles of the party or parties at fault
b. disclose nothing until you are certain of the patient’s outcome
c. tell the family that risk management will contact them
d. describe the facts of the event while also expressing regret

professional

A

d. describe the facts of the event while also expressing regret

(pre-lesson Q10)

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11
Q

“Proof” in a juried malpractice case must include which components? (Select 2)
a. absolute certainty that the provider was negligent
b. the highest standards of care were not followed
c. evidence of duty, breach, cause, and harm
d. more likely than not that negligence occurred

professional

A

c. evidence of duty, breach, cause, and harm
d. more likely than not the negligence occurred

(pre-lesson Q11)

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12
Q

Rank the causes of anesthesia-related lawsuits from most common to least common. (1=most, 4=least)
a. death
b. nerve damage
c. permanent brain damage
d. awareness

professional

A

1a death
2b nerve damage
3c permanent brain damage
4d awareness

(pre-lesson Q12)

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13
Q

A 13-year-old Jehovah’s witness with a Cobb angle of 50 degrees presents for an elective spinal fusion. The parents refuse blood products for the child. What is the best approach for discussing the possible need for intraoperative transfusion?
a. agree, then perform an emergency transfusion if the need arises
b. delay surgery until the child is mature enough to join in the decision-making process
c. tell the parents they will be reported to Child Protective Services if they refuse
d. get a court order for transfusion despite the parent’s wishes

professional

A

b. delay surgery until the child is mature enough to join in the decision-making process

(pre-lesson Q13)

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14
Q

Which statements represent norms in a culture of safety? (Select 2)
a. providers are rewarded for erring on the side of caution even if wrong
b. a steep hierarchy exists so that junior personnel are excluded
c. explicit communication is frequent and ambiguity is challenged
d. workflow efficiency overrides patient safety concerns

professional

A

a. providers are rewarded for erring on the side of caution even if wrong
c. explicit communication is frequent and ambiguity is challenged

(pre-lesson Q14)

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15
Q

Which skill is central to and most essential for effective crisis resource management?
a. communication
b. decision making
c. situation awareness
d. task management

professional

A

a. communication

(pre-lesson Q15)

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16
Q

What proportion of anesthesia mishaps are estimated to occur as a result of human error?
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 90%

professional

A

c. 70%

(pre-lesson Q16)

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17
Q

The most effective method of maintaining vigilance during an anesthesia workday is to:
a. ingest caffeinated beverages every 3 hours
b. have a 60-minute workout right before bedtime
c. use a peripheral nerve stimulator on yourself when sleepy
d. get a consistent 8 hours of sleep each night

professional

A

d. get a consistent 8 hours of sleep each night

(pre-lesson Q17)

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18
Q

What is the annual OSHA limit for workplace exposure to ionizing radiation in a 38-year-old provider? (rem)

professional

A

5
lifetime = (age-18) x 5

(pre-lesson Q18)

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19
Q

Match the term with its definition.
1. withdrawal
2. tolerance
3. impairment
a. markedly diminished effects of the same drug amount
b. an inability to engage in activities of daily living
c. physical and emotional responses to very low drug levels

professional

A

1c
2a
3b

(pre-lesson Q19)

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20
Q

All of the following signs or symptoms are characteristic of substance abuse except:
a. intense emotional response to a medical error
b. difficult to locate after breaks
c. frequent requests to work late or take call
d. emotionally labile and moody

professional

A

a. intense emotional response to a medical error

(pre-lesson Q20)

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21
Q

Identify the major goals of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement Triple Aim’s broad conceptual approach to improving health outcomes. (Select 3)
a. avoid waste of supplies
b. improve patient experience
c. build an engaged leadership
d. improve population health
e. provide holistic care
f. reduce per capita costs

professional

A

b. improve patient experience
d. improve population health
f. reduce per capita costs

(pre-lesson Q21)

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22
Q

After a difficult intubation, a CRNA charts “no issues encountered during airway management.” In this situation, the CRNA has committed:
a. slander
b. medical malpractice
c. libel
d. battery

professional

A

b. medical malpractice

post-lesson quiz

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23
Q

Which concept asserts that an anesthesia provider has an obligation not to inflict harm?
a. justice
b. beneficence
c. autonomy
d. nonmaleficence

professional

A

d. nonmaleficence

post-lesson quiz

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24
Q

Which action violates a culture of safety?
a. calling for help is viewed as a sign of weakness
b. low ranking personnel are permitted to raise safety concerns
c. staff are rewarded for erring on the side of caution
d. explicit communication is frequent

professional

A

a. calling for help is viewed as a sign of weakness

post-lesson quiz

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25
The nurse in the preoperative holding area informs the CRNA that the next patient is a state senator. This act represents a violation of: a. justice b. beneficence c. autonomy d. nonmaleficence ## Footnote professional
a. justice ## Footnote post-lesson quiz
26
During induction, a child receives succinylcholine and later dies from hyperkalemic cardiac arrest. In this context, the "second victim" is the: a. parent b. anesthesia provider c. surgeon d. insurance provider ## Footnote professional
b. anesthesia provider ## Footnote post-lesson quiz
27
A patient who is undergoing a craniotomy in the sitting position becomes acutely hypotensive. The EtCO2 declines from 35 mmHg to 22 mmHg, and a mill-wheel murmur appears on the precordial Doppler. The CRNA treating the patient as though hypovolemia is the only possible explanation for this situation is committing a/an: a. overgeneralization bias b. sunk cost fallacy c. fixation error d. mental filtering cognitive distortion ## Footnote professional
c. fixation error ## Footnote post-lesson quiz
28
Which term describes how the burden of proof can be shifted from the plaintiff to the defendant? a. libel b. vicarious liability c. Res Ipsa Loquitur d. malpractice ## Footnote professional
c. Res Ipsa Loquitur ## Footnote post-lesson quiz
29
A characteristic syndrome that is the direct result of stopping the use of a drug is called: a. impairment b. addiction c. tolerance d. withdrawal ## Footnote professional
d. withdrawal ## Footnote post-lesson quiz
30
The Controlled Substances Act places ketamine on which schedule? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV ## Footnote professional
3. III ## Footnote post-lesson quiz
31
Which process is designed to identify opportunities for system improvement? a. quality assurance programs b. continuous quality improvement programs c. cultural competence d. error disclosure ## Footnote professional
b. continuous quality improvement programs ## Footnote post-lesson quiz
32
What is the purpose of the AANA Code of Ethics? ## Footnote professional
dictates the principles of conduct and professional integrity that guide the decion-making and behavior of nurse anesthetists ## Footnote lesson 1
33
What is the purpose of practice standards? ## Footnote professional
authoritative statements that describe minimum rules and responsibilities for which anesthetists are held accountable ## Footnote lesson 1
34
What is the purpose of practice guidelines? ## Footnote professional
systematically developed statements to assist providers in clinical decision-making that are commonly accepted within the anesthesia community ## Footnote lesson 1
35
What is the purpose of position statements? ## Footnote professional
-express the AANA's official positions or beliefs on practice-related topics. -may also define the knowledge, skills, and abilities considered necessary for a nurse anesthetist ## Footnote lesson 1
36
Define autonomy. ## Footnote professional
refers to the patient's ability to choose without controlling interference by others, and without limitations that prevent meaningful choices ## Footnote lesson 2
37
Define nonmaleficence. ## Footnote professional
the principle that a provider has an obligation not to inflict hurt or harm without distinction between intentional or unintentional harm ## Footnote lesson 2
38
Define beneficence. ## Footnote professional
the principle that providers should act for the benefit of others including preventing harm and actively helping their patients ## Footnote lesson 2
39
Define justice. ## Footnote professional
the principle that people under similar circumstances and conditions should be treated alike (also known as distributive justice) ## Footnote lesson 2
40
What are the 6 elements of informed consent? ## Footnote professional
1. competence 2. decision-making capacity 3. disclosure of information 4. understanding of disclosed information 5. voluntary consent 6. documentation ## Footnote lesson 3
41
Define assent. ## Footnote professional
a term used when minor children are included in the informed consent discussion and their agreement should be sought ## Footnote lesson 3
42
When is implied consent used? ## Footnote professional
-in an emergency when immediate treatment is required and the patient is unconscious or unable to consent -permits health care providers to provide lifesaving care ## Footnote lesson 3
43
Do OB patients who receive regional anesthetic need to be consented for a general anesthetic? ## Footnote professional
yes ## Footnote lesson 4
44
What should occur if there is a maternal-fetal conflict? ## Footnote professional
The anesthesia provider should keep communication with the mother open and non-coercive while procuring an ethics consultation, referencing hospital policy, and reviewing state law ## Footnote lesson 4
45
Who does the AANA recommend to be present when discussing changes in advance directives during the informed consent process? ## Footnote professional
the patient the family the health care team ## Footnote lesson 5
46
Are DNR orders automatically suspended during procedures in the OR? ## Footnote professional
no, should be patient-centered ## Footnote lesson 5
47
What 4 things must be proven to win a negligence or malpractice claim? ## Footnote professional
1. Duty 2. Breach of duty 3. Causation 4. Damages ## Footnote lesson 6
48
What does res ipsa loquitur mean? ## Footnote professional
"The thing speaks for itself" -can shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant ## Footnote lesson 6
49
What is slander? ## Footnote professional
defamation in the verbal form (ex. CRNA who knowingly says a false thing about a patient that results in defamation of the patient's character) ## Footnote lesson 6
50
What is libel? ## Footnote professional
defamation in the written form (ex. CRNA who knowingly writes a false statement in the patient's chart that results in defamation of the patient's character) ## Footnote lesson 6
51
Define battery. ## Footnote professional
the physical act of touching another person without either expressed or implied consent ## Footnote lesson 7
52
Define abandonment. ## Footnote professional
failure to provide continuity of care once duty to a patient is established ## Footnote lesson 7
53
Define assault. ## Footnote professional
making a person feel or perceive that battery is imminent ## Footnote lesson 7
54
Define vicarious liability. ## Footnote professional
a person or entity may be liable for the actions of another ## Footnote lesson 7
55
Define general damages. ## Footnote professional
Directly result from an injury (ex. pain and suffering) ## Footnote lesson 7
56
Define special damages. ## Footnote professional
actual damages that result from an injury (ex. medical expenses and lost income) ## Footnote lesson 7
57
Define punitive damages. ## Footnote professional
punishment for reckless behavior which is very rare in malpractice cases ## Footnote lesson 7
58
What benefits does the Affordable Care Act convey to adult children? ## Footnote professional
can remain on their parent's plan up until the age of 26 even if married, financially independent, or not in college ## Footnote lesson 8
59
Why was the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act created? ## Footnote professional
EMTALA ensures public access to emergency services regardless of their ability to pay ## Footnote lesson 8
60
Define Schedule I classification. ## Footnote professional
no currently accepted medical use with a high potential for abuse ex. marijuana, heroin, LSD ## Footnote lesson 9
61
Define Schedule II classification. ## Footnote professional
high potential for abuse leading to dependence ex. cocaine, methadone, oxycodone, hydrocodone, secobarbital ## Footnote lesson 9
62
Define Schedule III classification. ## Footnote professional
moderate to low potential for abuse and dependence ex. ketamine, anabolic steroids, tylenol w/codeine ## Footnote lesson 9
63
Define Schedule IV classification. ## Footnote professional
low potential for abuse and dependence ex. alprazolam, phenobarbitol, tramadol, darvocet ## Footnote lesson 9
64
Define Schedule V classification. ## Footnote professional
lowest potential for abuse ## Footnote lesson 9
65
A critical incident report is best recorded in what form? ## Footnote professional
narrative ## Footnote lesson 10
66
What 4 things should be extensively documented in a critical incident report? ## Footnote professional
1. What happened 2. What drugs and doses were given, and when they were given 3. The time sequence of events 4. Who was present (all parties, not just anesthesia) ## Footnote lesson 10
67
What is the first thing you should do when responding to a lawsuit? ## Footnote professional
contact your insurance carrier ## Footnote lesson 11
68
What are the initial actions you should take if you're named in a lawsuit? ## Footnote professional
1. notify your insurance carrier 2. do not discuss the case 3. do not alter any records 4. gather all records of the case 5. make notes 6. cooperate with your attorney ## Footnote lesson 11
69
According to data from the anesthesia closed claims project in 2000, what are the 4 leading causes of M/M leading to malpractice claims? ## Footnote professional
1. death (30%) 2. nerve damage (22%) 3. permanent brain damage (10%) 4. airway injury (6%) ## Footnote lesson 12
70
List 4 risks associated with increasing the odds of dying within 7 days of an anesthetic. ## Footnote professional
1. High ASA physical status 2. Emergency surgery 3. Major surgery 4. Old age ## Footnote lesson 12
71
What type of anesthetic procedures are experiencing an increase in malpractice claims? ## Footnote professional
chronic pain procedures ## Footnote lesson 12
72
What is the legal age of majority? ## Footnote professional
18 years (competent to make their own health care decisions unless legally deemed incapable) ## Footnote lesson 13
73
What are emancipated minors? ## Footnote professional
Patients younger than 18 years of age who are legally given the rights of an adult by a state court ## Footnote lesson 13
74
List 4 examples of when a minor may become legally emancipated. ## Footnote professional
1. married 2. is a parent or is pregnant 3. in the military 4. economically independent ## Footnote lesson 13
75
In a life-threatening situation, can an emergency transfusion be given to a child of a Jehovah's Witness without the parents' consent? ## Footnote professional
Yes. In a life-threatening crisis, an emergency transfusion should be given before obtaining a court order, even if a parent refuses the transfusion. ## Footnote lesson 13
76
What are the 3 elements of a culture of safety? ## Footnote professional
1. values 2. beliefs 3. norms ## Footnote lesson 14
77
What are 5 accepted norms included in a culture of safety? ## Footnote professional
1. anyone can raise safety issues 2. calling for help is encouraged 3. explicit communication is frequent 4. the hierarchy is flat 5. staff is rewarded for erring on the side of caution ## Footnote lesson 14
78
What are 6 reasons a medical provider may not disclose a mistake to a patient? ## Footnote professional
1. personal shame 2. fear of loss of prestige among their peers 3. fear of direct reprisal 4. lack of experience disclosing uncomfortable information 5. fear of causing further harm 6. fear of litigation ## Footnote lesson 14
79
Does a medical provider have an ethical obligation to disclose a medical error to a patient? ## Footnote professional
The AMA Code of Ethics implies that physicians have no duty to disclose medical errors that do no harm (near misses). But, there is a strong ethical argument in favor of disclosure. ## Footnote lesson 14
80
What are the 4 components of crisis resource management? ## Footnote professional
1. task management 2. teamwork 3. situation awareness 4. decision making ## Footnote lesson 15
81
List 4 qualities of a leader as it relates to CRM. ## Footnote professional
1. able to delegate 2. is decisive 3. communicates clearly 4. gathers information ## Footnote lesson 15
82
Why are cognitive aids important during CRM? ## Footnote professional
-memory and cognitive function are vulnerable to error, especially in stressful circumstances -promote best practices and reduce the risk of drug or dosing errors ## Footnote lesson 15
83
How much sleep should an adult receive each night? ## Footnote professional
7-9 hours ## Footnote lesson 16
84
Chronic sleep deprivation is associated with what disease states? ## Footnote professional
-obesity -HTN -DM -MI -CVA -depression -immune suppression ## Footnote lesson 16
85
How does CRNA fatigue put patients at risk? ## Footnote professional
-diminished reaction time -impaired decision-making -decreased situational awareness -impaired concentration or memory -periods of microsleep ## Footnote lesson 16
86
What are 6 methods to reduce fatigue? ## Footnote professional
-napping -caffeine -exercise -consistent sleep-wake pattern -medications -recovery between shifts ## Footnote leson 17
87
When is exercise counter-productive to a good nights rest? ## Footnote professional
exercising within 3 hours of bedtime can disrupt sleep ## Footnote lesson 17
88
What problems can arise when caffeine is used as a way of fighting fatigue? ## Footnote professional
Excessive caffeine intake can reduce vigilance and prohibit sleep if taken too close to bedtime ## Footnote lesson 17
89
What is OSHA's annual limit for exposure to ionizing radiation? ## Footnote professional
5 rem ## Footnote lesson 18
90
Define "second victim". ## Footnote professional
-The CRNA who is involved in a case with a bad outcome is considered a "second victim." -the provider's subsequent patients are possible "third victims" ## Footnote lesson 18
91
What types of symptoms can exposure to an MRI produce? ## Footnote professional
lower frequency electromagnetic fields from MRI can cause transient symptoms of nausea, dizziness, vertigo, or light flashes ## Footnote lesson 18
92
Define addiction. ## Footnote professional
a need (psychological or compulsive) for a substance; often associated with loss of self-control ## Footnote lesson 19
93
Define impairment. ## Footnote professional
the inability to safely participate in life or professional activities. ## Footnote lesson 19
94
Define tolerance. ## Footnote professional
More drug is needed to achieve a given effect or a lesser effect is produced by a given dose of a drug ## Footnote lesson 19
95
Define substance use disorder. ## Footnote professional
recurrent use of a substance that leads to clinical and functional impairment ## Footnote lesson 19
96
What are 4 workplace-specific risk factors that can lead to substance use disorder? ## Footnote professional
1. production pressure 2. fatigue/burnout 3. irregular work hours 4. poor work-life balance ## Footnote lesson 19
97
List behaviors associated with substance abuse. ## Footnote professional
-volunteers for overtime -severe mood swings -missing medications -administers more drugs than colleagues -patients report high pain scores -stays late at work -refuses drug testing ## Footnote lesson 20
98
What are the 6 domains of high-quality health care? ## Footnote professional
1. patient-centered 2. safe 3. effective 4. timely 5. efficient 6. equitable ## Footnote lesson 21
99
The Institute of Medicine defines patient-centered care as: ## Footnote professional
care that is respectful of, and responsive to, individual patient preferences, needs, and values, and ensuring that patient values guide all clinical decisions ## Footnote lesson 21
100
What 4 concepts describe patient-centered care? ## Footnote professional
1. dignity and respect 2. information sharing 3. participation 4. collaboration ## Footnote lesson 21
101
What is the goal of cultural competence? ## Footnote professional
Cultural competence is emphasized as a strategy to reduce health care disparities and improve equity ## Footnote lesson 21
102
An anesthetist's most important clinical responsibility to a patient is to adhere to: a. local standards of care b. state association position statements c. national practice standards d. professional association practice guidelines ## Footnote professional
c. national practice standards | AANA Practice Standards are highest standards ## Footnote review exam
103
Which types of risk must be disclosed as part of informed consent for a labor epidural? (Select 2) a. temporary effect with low morbidity b. significant effects on the fetus c. minimal morbidity and low incidence d. low incidence with high morbidity ## Footnote professional
b. significant effects on the fetus d. low incidence with high morbidity | must disclose: hi incidence, hi morbid, assoc. w/adverse fetal effects ## Footnote review exam
104
A preoperative patient refused an epidural, but you feel strongly that this is the best choice for the patient. You sedate the patient and place the epidural. The patient remains sedated during the surgical procedure, and the case finishes without incident. This is an example of a/an: (Select 2) a. res ipsa loquitur b. negligence c. intentional tort d. battery ## Footnote professional
c. intentional tort d. battery | battery & assault are intentional torts; others are negligence related ## Footnote review exam
105
A culture of safety does not include: a. keeping hierarchical lines of contact bidirectional b. communicating clearly and respectfully c. asking for assistance when managing an anesthetic complication d. accepting responsibility while concealing a medication error ## Footnote professional
d. accepting responsibility while concealing a medication error ## Footnote review exam
106
The use of cognitive aids during perioperative crisis management has which beneficial effect? a. reduces the need for listening to alternative views b. assists team leader in delegating tasks c. decreases the risk of making drug dose errors d. promotes the development of tunnel visions ## Footnote professional
c. decreases the risk of making drug dose errors ## Footnote review exam
107
Excessive work hours are associated with: (Select 2) a. workplace hostility b. enhanced situational awareness c. accurate self-assessment d. anxiety and depression ## Footnote professional
a. workplace hostility d. anxiety & depression ## Footnote review exam
108
If the room noise is 95 dB, then the auditory anesthesia alarms must be set to a minimum of: a. 125 dB b. 105 dB c. 110 dB d. 115 dB ## Footnote professional
d. 115 dB | audible monitoring must be at least 20 dB above background noise ## Footnote review exam
109
Which risk factors increase the liklihood of developing a substance abuse disorder? (Select 2) a. workplace production pressure b. pre-existing hormonal imbalance c. uncontrolled access to addictive drugs d. functional OR team dynamics ## Footnote professional
a. workplace production pressure c. uncontrolled access to addictive drugs ## Footnote review exam
110
What are the recommended criteria for considering re-entry to practice for an anesthetist with a substance abuse problem? (Select 2) a. a minimum of one year in recovery b. five years of monitoring with random drug testing c. at least six months in recovery d. one year of monitoring with random drug testing ## Footnote professional
a. a minimum of one year in recovery b five years of monitoring with random drug testing ## Footnote review exam
111
What is the most common cause of respiratory morbidity and mortality? a. difficult intubation b. esophageal intubation c. difficult extubation d. inadequate ventilation ## Footnote professional
d. inadequate ventilation (38%) | esophageal int: 18%; difficult intubate 17%; inadequate FiO2 11% ## Footnote review exam
112
Which of the following is associated with the greatest frequency of pain medicine malpractice claims? a. prescription medications b. lumbar epidural steroid injections c. implanted device d. cervical spine injection ## Footnote professional
d. cervical spine injection | >50% of cases = perm. spine inj. ## Footnote review exam
113
What step should you take after being served with a lawsuit? a. inform others who were involved in the case b. update the anesthesia record to fix missing information c. contact your insurance carrier d. avoid making notes about the case because they are discoverable ## Footnote professional
c. contact your insurance carrier | do not alter records; make notes about case; do not discuss case ## Footnote review exam
114

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