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Programming + Analysis Flashcards

1
Q

Define catchment areas

A

It is the geographical region a population resides in

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2
Q

What are catchment areas used for?

A

They can be used to determine whether a catchment area will support the commercial development.

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3
Q

Boundaries of catchment areas are usually dependent on what?

A

Transportation in relation to commercial development (for example a convenience store that depends on neighborhood customers that walk). Other definers are physical features such as highways and rivers or artificial political boundaries.

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4
Q

What are 4 community influences on design

A

catchment areas, accessibility to transportation, neighborhoods, and public facilities

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5
Q

Who first developed the concept of the neighborhood and what did it look like?

A

Clarence Perry in 1929 developed the concept of the neighborhood with the elementary school in the center bordered by major streets with the elementary school being able to act as the community center and within a walk able distance.

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6
Q

Environmental Psychology takes into account what 6 concepts

A

Proxemics, Behavior Settings, Territoriality, Personalization, Group Interaction and Status

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7
Q

What is Proxemics?

A

“the interrelated observations and theories of man’s use of space as a specialized elaboration of culture” . It deals with the issues of spacing between people, territoriality, organization of space, and positioning of people in the space as related to the culture of which they are a part of.

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8
Q

What are the four types of roads?

A

Local, Collector, Arterial and Expressway

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9
Q

This type of road has the lowest capacity and provides direct access to the building site

A

Local Streets

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10
Q

This type of road connects local streets with large arterial streets.

A

Collector Streets.

It is not intended for through traffic and intersections are usually stop signs instead of traffic lights

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11
Q

This type of road is a major, continuous route that carries large amounts of traffic on two or three lanes

A

Arterial streets.
Usually connects collector to expressways. Parking is typically not allowed and direct access to the building site from this type of road should be avoided.

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12
Q

This type of road has limited access and is designed to move large volumes of traffic between, through and around population centers

A

Expressways

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13
Q

What are the four guidelines for road layout at intersections?

A
  1. Minimum 150’ distance from intersection to site access.
  2. Minimum 80 degree angle
  3. Avoid slight offsets
  4. Avoid Y intersections
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14
Q

A straight section of road is called?

A

A tangent

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15
Q

In a curved portion of road, what should be avoided

A

changing radius

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16
Q

For most streets the maximum grade ranges between what and what and depend on what 3 things?

A

Range between 3% and 10%

Depends on terrain, design speed, and function of street.

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17
Q

Service entrances should be about ___ to ____ ft wide, ___ft long and a turning radius of ___ ft

A

10-12 wide
40ft long
60ft radius

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18
Q

___ and ____ take precedence over all other utility lines. Why?

A

Stormwater and sanitary.

Because they require the flow of gravity.

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19
Q

Define Macro climate

A

It is the overall climate of a region (climate zones)

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20
Q

Define Micro climate

A

It is the land slope, trees, bodies of water, vegetation, and buildings

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21
Q

What is one way you can modify wind pattern?

A

Planting trees

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22
Q

In temperate climates, where is the best location and orientation to place a building when considering the wind?

A

Southfacing in the middle ground

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23
Q

Albedo is?

A

aka solar reflectance.
is the fraction of the radiant energy received on a surface that is reflected and is expressed as a number between zero and 1.0

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24
Q

A flat black surface has an albedo of ?

A

Zero as it absorbs all and reflects nothing.

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25
Q

A mirror has the albedo of?

A

1.0 as it absorbs nothing and reflects everything

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26
Q

Define Emissivity

A

the ability of a surface to emit stored energy.

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27
Q

Solar Reflectance Index (SRI)

A

is a measure of a roof’s ability to reject solar heat.
A black roof (with a reflectivity of .05 and emittance of .90) has an SRI of zero.
A white roof (with a reflectivity of .80 and emittance of .90) has an SRI of 100
A perfectly reflective surface would have an SRI of 122

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28
Q

What is and environmental impact statement (EIS)

A

It is a requirement by the federal agencies that is used to analyze and predict how development will affect the environment.

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29
Q

Define wetlands

A

is an area whose soil in inundated or saturated by surface water or groundwater frequently enough that is can support plants that are adapted to living in saturated soil.
Wetlands are protected by the federal government through the Clean Water Act of 1972

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30
Q

What is an agora?

A

An agora is a marketplace in Greek cities but was also a place for meeting people, exchanging news and conduction other business as well

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31
Q

Describe the medieval city layout

A

They are created at the crossroads of two main streets and grew outward in an irregular pattern. They were organized around the church and the market because these represented the two most important aspects of life.

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32
Q

Describe the star shaped city

A

With the invention of gun powder the star-shaped city allowed the defense of the city to be controlled by one point by have a central plaza with radiating streets leading to bastions.

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33
Q

Describe Renaissance city planning

A

It took on more of an interest on the aesthetics of urban design. The primary organization of the radial boulevards was overlaid on the grid of secondary streets or over an existing road system

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34
Q

How did Christopher Wren, propose to rebuild London after the great fire of 1666?

A

Wren suggested main avenues linking major religious and commercial facilities. These were to be superimposed on a gridiron plan for other streets.

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35
Q

What was Haussman’s proposal for the Paris city planning?

A

Advocated straight, arterial boulevards connecting principal historic buildings, monuments and open squares. This was designed to create vistas and work in conjunction with the major buildings that were part of the plan. This also helped to minimize riots.

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36
Q

What was Camillo Sitte opinion on city planning?

A

He proposed in 1889 that cities be laid out on the principles of medieval towns with a curving and irregular streets. he though this would provide a variety of views and be more interesting than the standard grid and radial city layouts.
Proposed T-intersections to reduce traffic conflicts and the turbine square.

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37
Q

What is the turbine square?

A

civic spaces around a pinwheel arrangement of streets

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38
Q

What is the garden city concept by Ebenezer Howard (1898)?

A

centralized civic and cultural center with a park and housing in the next ring, followed by a grand park and avenue, with industry as the next ring and the agricultural belt being the final ring.

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39
Q

What were the two garden cities built?

A

Letchworth and Welwyn Garden. They did not become independent towns but became satellite towns to larger towns nearby.

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40
Q

What is the cite industrielle proposed by Tony Garner in 1917?

A

the plan included separate zones for residential, public, industrial and agricultural uses linked by separated circulation paths for cars and people. It was one of the first to emphasize the idea of zoning.

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41
Q

Philadelphia is and example of what kind of city planning system?

A

Gridiron street system

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42
Q

Describe Washington’s urban plan designed by Charles L’Enfant

A

The design was based on Renaissance and Baroque planning concepts of diagonal and radial streets superimposed on a rectangular grid

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43
Q

What are the 5 types of structural systems?

A

Wood, Steel, Concrete, Masonry, and Composite

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44
Q

_____ and ______ are excellent for construction loads, drainage, sewage drain fields, but they are unsuitable for landscaping.

A

Gravels and sands.

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45
Q

What is an infiltration basin?

A

It is a closed depression in the earth from which water can escape only into the soil.

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46
Q

What is a catch basin?

A

It is an area that temporarily contains excessive runoff until it can flow at a controlled rate into the storm sewer system

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47
Q

The three types of two-way concrete structural systems are?

A

The flat plate, the flat slab, and the waffle slab.

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48
Q

The two primary types of structural concrete are?

A

Cast-in-place and Pre-cast

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49
Q

What are the five patterns of urban development

A 
Grid
Star
Field
Satellite
Megalopolis
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50
Q

The Fire Safety Code is known as?

A

NFPA 99

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51
Q

What is an infiltration basin?

A

It is a closed depression in the earth from which water can escape only into the soil.

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52
Q

What is a catch basin?

A

It is an area that temporarily contains excessive runoff until it can flow at a controlled rate into the storm sewer system

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53
Q

Model codes make use of industry standards that are developed by ______ associations. Name some examples

A

Trade Associations.

Gypsum Associations, government agencies, standards-writing organizations

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54
Q

Authority for adopting and enforcing building codes is one the police powers given to _____ government?

A

State

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55
Q

Architects are to practice lawfully in order to do what 3 things

A

protect health
protect safety
protect the welfare of the public

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56
Q

The Life Safety Code is published by who?

A

the National Fire Protection Association

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57
Q

The IBC code is _____ rather than ______ based

A

Prescriptive rather than performance based

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58
Q

The Nation Electrical Code is published by who?

A

The Nation Fire Protection Association (NFPA).

For uniformity in building regulations the ICC does not publish an electrical code but relies on the NEC.

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59
Q

Model codes make use of industry standards that are developed by ______ associations. Name some examples

A

Trade Associations.

Gypsum Associations, government agencies, standards-writing organizations

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60
Q

A ‘Listed Label’ means?

A

That the product is successfully tested by UL (The underwriters lab)

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61
Q

A Classified Label is for?

A

a product that was tested for certain types of uses only

label must list under what conditions it was tested for

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62
Q

Describe the ASTM E119 main goal

A

overall desire is to prevent the passage of fire, heat and hot gases for a given amount of time. This is done by building a sample of the assembly and setting a fire to the other side.

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63
Q

Describe the two parts of the ASTM E119 Test

A

Part 1:
Heat transfer through the assembly is measured to determine how long before the material on the other side will ignite
Part 2:
Is the hose stream test to test the assembly’s ability to maintain it’s integrity during a fire an to withstand impact from the fire hose + falling debris

64
Q

Which test is for the fire protection provided by glazing assemblies?

A

NFPA 257

65
Q

What test gives time ratings on an assemblies ability to resist fire without failing?

A

ASTM E119

66
Q

The NFPA 252 test what?

A

Test how well a door or other opening assembly resist the passage of flame, heat and gases.

67
Q

What are the two parts of the NFPA 252 test?

A

Part 1:
establishes the fire endurance
Part 2:
Test whether door will stay in frame when blasted

68
Q

Which of the NFPA regulations relate to Doors and Windows

A

Doors are covered by NFPA 252

Windows are covered under NFPA 257

69
Q

The flame spread index has how many classes? and which is most fire resistant and least?

A

Three classes
Class A - Index Range (0-25) Most Fire Resistant
Class B - Index Range (26-75)
Class C - Index Range (76-200)Least Fire Resistant

70
Q

What are the three test most often used for testing the flammability of finish materials in building constructions?

A

ASTM E84
NFPA 265
NFPA 286

71
Q

Flammability test for building and finish materials determine what three things

A
  1. Whether a material is flammable, and if so, whether it simply burns with applied heat or supports combustion.
  2. The material’s degree of flammability (how fast fire spreads across the material)
  3. How much smoke and toxic gas the material produces when ignited.
72
Q

What does ASTM E84 determine?

A

It rates the surface burning characteristics of interior finishes and other building materials

73
Q

The ASTM E84 gives materials a ____ _____ index

A

Flame Spread Index

74
Q

The flame spread index has how many classes? and which is most fire resistant and least?

A

Three classes
Class A - Index Range (0-25) Most Fire Resistant
Class B - Index Range (26-75)
Class C - Index Range (76-200)Least Fire Resistant

75
Q

What is the smoke-developed index (SDI)

A

A measure of the concentration of smoke emitted by a material as it burns

76
Q

What are the 10 different Occupancy classifications as defined by the IBC?

A 
Assembly
Business
Educational
Factory and Industrial
High Hazard
Institutional
Mercantile
Residential
Storage
Utility and Misc.
77
Q

What is a Model Building Code?

A

Codes that are generated and used as a base point for local jurisdictions to adopt or adapt.

78
Q

Of a designated wetland, a brownfield, a floodplain, or an endangered species habitat, which is the most likely site type for a new building?

A

A Brownfield

79
Q

What type of electrical service power is best for small commercial buildings?

A

120/208, three-phase

80
Q

Using the climate types of Cold, Temperate, Warm, Hot/Arid, place them from the valley to the top of the hill in order.

A

Hot/Arid > Cold > Temperate > Warm

81
Q

Residences most often utilize an electrical service of?

A

120/240, single phase

82
Q

What three questions must be answered before the building size and layout can begin?

A
  • What is the occupancy?
  • What type of fire suppression system will be required?
  • What type of construction will be used?
83
Q

Building Types I and II require that all materials be?

A

Noncombustible

84
Q

This is a written document that describes the boundaries of the property and includes information about the owner and the party the property was purchased from.

A

A deed

85
Q

Define a 100 year flood.

A

The maximum flood level with a 1% probability of occurring each year

86
Q

Building Efficiency is the ration of?

A

Net Area/Gross Area

87
Q

What are development Impact Fees?

A

Fees assessed to developers to offset costs required to public improvements.

88
Q

Define a Bioswale.

A

A grassy sloped ditch that filters storm runoff. Helps recharge Aquifers.

89
Q

What is a percolation test?

A

Measures the amount of time it takes water in a test hole to drop 1”.

90
Q

What are three things an architect should analyze in relation to climate

A

Solar Orientation
Design Strategies for climatic regions
Alternative energy systems

91
Q

What are the three aspects of site planning that the solar orientation influences?

A

The orientation of the building to control solar heat gain and heat loss
The location of outdoor spaces and activities
The location of building entries

92
Q

What is solar altitude

A

The angle above the horizon

93
Q

What is azimuth?

A

The angle north or south from an east-west line

94
Q

What is considered an ideal balance between maximizing heat gains in the winter and minimizing heat gains in the summer

A

somewhere between 5 and 25 degrees east of south

95
Q

In cold climates where is the best location to place an entry and why?

A

On the south side, so that the direct sun can melt ice and snow in the winter

96
Q

What are five strategies you should implement in cold climates?

A
  1. Use compact forms with the smallest surface area possible relative to the volume.
  2. Use large windows facing south, small windows facing east and west and minimal or no windows facing north.
  3. Use interior materials that have high thermal mass
  4. Includes summer shading for glazed areas
  5. Use dark or medium-dark colors for the building exterior
97
Q

5 strategies for temperate climates

A
  1. Plan rectangular buildings with the long direction oriented generally along the east - west axis and facing slightly to the east
  2. Provide shade in the summer and allow the sun to fall on glazing and the building in the winter.
  3. Use south-facing openings to capture winter sunlight
  4. Plan for the cooling effects of the wind in the summer; block the wind in the winter
  5. Use medium colors for the building exterior
98
Q

3 strategies for hot-humid climates

A
  1. Provide shade for all openings
  2. Maximize natural ventilation with large openings, high ceilings, and cross ventilation,
  3. Use light colors for the building exterior
99
Q

6 strategies for hot-arid climates

A
  1. Use compact forms with smallest surface area possible relative to the volume.
  2. Minimize opening sizes.
  3. Provide shade for openings
  4. Use light colors for the exterior of the building
  5. Use materials with high thermal mass
  6. Roof Ponds provide evaporative cooling and high thermal mass.
    Evaporative coolers work well in the arid climate because an increase in humidity with a decrease in air temperature is desirable.
100
Q

Solar Passive Heating should be paired with _____ design.

A

Daylighting design .

Both of these with result in a building that is long and relatively narrow.

101
Q

What orientation should a building have for solar passive heating

A

long axis of the building in the east-west direction so that southern collection surfaces face within 15 degrees of true south.

102
Q

Passive solar cooling utilizes what concepts?

A

Shading, natural ventilation, radiative cooling, evaporative cooling, and ground coupling.

103
Q

What is radiative cooling?

A

It uses thermal mass to store heat during the day and release heat to the outside at night

104
Q

What is ground coupling?

A

Used the stable coolness of the earth to cool a building, typically by using a ground-source heat pump

105
Q

East-west lines are called?

A

Parallels

106
Q

North-south lines are called?

A

Meridians

107
Q

Parallels and meridians are _____ miles apart and the squares they form are called ______

A

24 miles

Checks

108
Q

Each check is divided into _____ townships with ____ miles on a side

A

16 townships

Each Township is 6 Miles on each side

109
Q

The four treatment approaches relating to Historic projects are?

A

Preservation, Rehabilitation, Restoration, and Reconstruction

110
Q

Preservation focuses on ?

A

retaining all historical fabric through conservation, maintenance, and repair. It attempts to maintain the building’s continuum over time.

111
Q

The least historically accurate approach for a historical site is?

A

Reconstruction

112
Q

Restoration of a site is the most restrictive because?

A

It focuses on retention of materials from a particular time in the project’s history and prefers to remove renovations done during other periods.

113
Q

Rehabilitation is the least accurate due to what scenario?

A

The site is often significantly deteriorated.

114
Q

The Historic Preservation Service falls under which governmental agency?

A

The National Park Service

115
Q

When analyzing an existing building, what is the most important aspect?

A

Structure, it costs the most to repair and impacts use most directly going forward.

116
Q

Programming can be defined as?

A

Defines the problem and establishes guidelines and needs through the design process.

117
Q

The four major considerations during programming are?

A

Function, Form, Economy, and Time

118
Q

Classrooms require how much space?

A

15-20 sqft per student

119
Q

Mechanical Rooms should use how much of a building?

A

5% - 9%

120
Q

Typical Elevators should require two different space assignments, what are these and how much space is required?

A

The elevator’s physical space is approximately 7’4” x 6’0”

The lobby clear space is required to be at least 6’0” to enter an elevator.

121
Q

The establishment of common standards for rooms in programming is called?

A

Benchmarking

122
Q

Unassignable areas include?

A

mechanical rooms, circulation space, stairways, elevator and mechanical shafts, walls and structural thicknesses, and IT spaces.

123
Q

The primary method for determining rentable space in a building is provided by?

A

BOMA (Building Owners and Managers Association)

124
Q

Type IV construction utilizes what structural materials?

A

Heavy Timber. construction is making a comeback in the US in the commercial market due to it’s speed to market efficiency over steel.

125
Q

The plans call for CMU block walls with Metal Bar Joists supported by rows of columns. What type of construction should the Architect label the building?

A

Type II

126
Q

Type III Construction is often referred to as Ordinary construction. Why is this classification rarely used today?

A

Type III construction (Usually older buildings) generally refers to Masonry load bearing walls with wooden floors or trusses. These buildings present significant fire hazards.

127
Q

Describe typical Type I construction.

A

Concrete high-rises with reinforced, protected steel. Generally more than 75’ tall.

128
Q

A new three-story apartment complex is being constructed out of wood framing, floors, and trusses given 1HR ratings throughout. What type of construction is this?

A

Type V is the most common for residential construction in the US.

129
Q

There are five different classifications of Assembly spaces, what are some of them?

A

Indoor Theater, Outdoor Stadium, Churches, Meeting Halls

130
Q

An accessory occupancy is defined as?

A

an ancillary occupancy that does not exceed 10% of the floor area on which it is located.

131
Q

An incidental use area is different by what additional requirement?

A

It requires separation and/or a sprinkler system. It also cannot exceed 10% of the area of the story on which it is located.

132
Q

Personal Space is subdivided into these four categories.

A 
Intimate space (6-18")
Personal distance (18-30")
Social Space (4-12')
Public Space (12' and out)
133
Q

the primary condition of a fire partition is?

A

That it has a 1 hour rating.

134
Q

for most separations between different occupancies the correct wall is?

A

A Fire Barrier,

135
Q

What is the general requirement of a Fire Barrier?

A

Fire Barriers are usually required to extend from the floor to the ceiling/roof deck above. They can have various ratings based on the applied code.

136
Q

An HVAC duct that passes through a rated assembly must be equipped with?

A

A Smoke Damper, these are tied to the fire alarm and close to prevent air passage in the event of a fire.

137
Q

Openings in a fire rated assembly must carry at least a rating of how long?

A

3/4’s of an hour

138
Q

What is unique about the Fire Wall designation?

A

Fire Walls possess either a 2 or 4 hour rating, and must extend from the foundation and penetrate the roof assembly.

139
Q

the Occupancy of a space can help determine?

A
  • floors allowed
  • the separation requirements from other structures
  • occupant loads
  • egress design
  • fire detection and suppression systems
  • ventilation requirements
140
Q

Rated assemblies can often be reduced by one hour by providing what?

A

A sprinkler system

141
Q

The Allowable floor area of a building is based on what three criteria?

A
  • construction type
  • occupancy
  • whether or not there is a sprinkler system
142
Q

The allowable area of a mixed occupancy building is determined by which occupancy type?

A

The most restrictive allowance for the occupancy groups under consideration.

143
Q

what is the difference between the occupant load and the occupant load factor?

A

The occupant load is based on a space and the occupancy group. The occupant load factor is the amount of floor area presumed to be occupied by one person.

144
Q

The exit distance measured from the most remote point within a story is called the?

A

Common Path of Egress Travel

145
Q

What is the Maximum Distance for the Separation of Exits?

A
  • In a Non-sprinkled building with two exits, the Exits must be separated by at least half of the maximum diagonal distance of the building or area to be served.
  • In a sprinkled building, this distance can be reduced to one-third the diagonal distance of the space.
146
Q

What is the maximum length of a dead-end corridor?

A

In a building with a sprinkler system, the maximum length is 50’. Without a sprinkler it is 20’.

147
Q

What is the minimum width of an egress door?

A

An egress door must be sufficient to serve the occupant load, and the absolute minimum is 32” clear (36” door)

148
Q

Corridors are required to be rated unless they meet these criteria.

A
  • Occupant load less than 50.

- Sprinkler System installed.

149
Q

In a stair, Handrails must be between ___ and ___”, and headroom must be a minimum of ___’-___”.

A

34” and 38”, and 6’-8”

150
Q

Floor Area Ratio or FAR is?

A

The ratio of gross floor area in a structure to the area of the lot on which the structure is situated.

151
Q

Define a bulk plane restriction.

A

A zoning technique that establishes an imaginary plane that extends at an angle over the lot. The structure cannot pass through this plane.

152
Q

The four basic groups that are classified as soils are:

A
  • Sands (approx. .002” to .25” in size)
  • Gravels (3/4” to 3.5” in size)
  • Silts
  • Clays
153
Q

A 2” diameter sampler is driven into the bottom of a borehole by a 140 lb. hammer falling 30 Inches. What is this test?

A

Standard Penetration Test or SPT

154
Q

There are seven treatment types to help increase soil bearing capacity, decrease shifting or both. What are they?

A

1) drainage
2) fill
3) compaction
4) densification
5) surcharging
6) mixing
7) geotextiles

155
Q

grade beams are often used where the soil is?

A

Expansive. This is often the case with fine soils that hold a lot of water or have light weight sediment.

156
Q

Define the Water Table.

A

It is the level below which the soil is saturated.

ARE Practice Decks (3 decks)

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