Progress Tests Flashcards

1
Q

what vasculitis is this describing: Small vessel vasculitis; targets upper airways (epistaxis, nasal crusting, sinusitis, deafness), eyes (diplopia, proptosis, blindness), lungs (haemoptysis, nodules, infiltrates) and kidneys; strong association with c-ANCA positivity

A

Wegeners Granulomatosis (granulomatosis with polyangitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what vasculitis is this describing: Small vessel vasculitis; principal presentation is with palpable purpura over lower extremities, arthralgia and Raynaud’s phenomenon; may associate with hepatitis C viral infection and malignant B cell disease.

A

Cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what vasculitis is this describing: Small vessel vasculitis that targets venules; main clinical presentation is with recurrent oral and genital ulcers, anterior or posterior uveitis, and skin lesions.

A

Behcets disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are first line prophylaxis agents for migraines

A

beta blockers or topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the classification of hypovolaemic shock

A

Class 1 shock: Loss <15% blood volume (~750 ml)

Class 2 shock: Loss 15-30% blood volume (750 - 1500 ml)

Class 3 shock: Loss 30-40% blood volume (1500 - 2000 ml)

Class 4 shock: Loss >40% blood volume (>2000 ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a feature of chronic ischaemia

A

hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a sign of an acute aortic dissection on chest Xray

A

enlarged aortic knuckle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what antihypertensive drugs cause erectile dysfunction

A

beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what movement is affected in achilles ruptures

A

plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is flumazenil

A

cure for benzodiazepine overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is alcohol a risk factor for breast cancer development

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what cells are affected in motor neurone disease

A

anterior horn cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what cells are affected in multiple sclerosis

A

central myelinated axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tx for sigmoid volvulus in a patient that is not septic or hypercapnic

A

flatus tube insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what causes loss of power, pain and temperature sensation with preservation of proprioception and vibration sense

A

anterior spinal cord transection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Coeliacs disease associated with

A

subfertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what should you do if you see a lytic lesion on an XR + why

A

CT CAP - most likely a bone met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are poor prognostic indicators for pancreatitis

A
>55
WCC >15
PaO2 <8
serum LDH >600
Serum aspartate aminotransferase >200
serum albumin <32 
hypocalcaemia 
glucose >10
serum urea >16
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what should be done for knee OA before orthopaedic referral

A

regular analgesia, home exercises, steroid injections, physiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what should be done with a patient with OA that has rest pain on maximum conservative treatments

A

ortho referral for elective knee replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the radioopaque galstones made from

A

bile pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how long does amitriptyline take to work and what is recommended in the meantime

A

a few weeks so immediate release morphine may be a good bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the advice if a patient comes to primary care with delirium due to constipation

A

immediately refer to secondary care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What counts as delayed passage of meconium

A

> 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
next steps if a child with a suspected UTI has positive urine dip
send urine for MCS
26
HTN Tx for >55 with ankle swelling
indapimide
27
what medication for BPH causes urinary retention
Donepezil
28
what is a common feature of 'dry eye'
excessive tearing with symptoms worse at the end of the day
29
what causes sagging of an eyelid
entropions
30
what helps to distinguish between mild dementia and depressive pseudo-dementia
normal investigatory blood screen
31
what kind of limp is associated with perthes disease
painless
32
what causes delerium at therapeutic doses
oxybutynin
33
what is first line for sedation of delirium
low dose haloperidol
34
what condition can causes flaky dry skin around the eyes and nose and what is it called
tuberous sclerosis, adenoma sebaceaum
35
what is most likely in a woman with dysuria and a history of unprotected sex
chlamydia
36
how do you differentiate between gonorrhea and chlamydia as causes of acute PID
discharge
37
cause of a baby with progressive floppiness and recurrent severe respiratory infections
spinal muscular atrophy
38
hypotonia, feeding difficulty, tent shaped mouth, mild respiratory impairment, mother has developmental delay and myopic facies
congenital myotonic dystrophy
39
factors that increase risk of suicide
access to firearms delusional beliefs hopelessness psychomotor agitation
40
is epilepsy a risk for pre-eclampsia
no
41
midwife antenatal visits
10
42
where is the uterosacral ligament
Posterior to the uterus in a U shape
43
best imaging for intraocular foreign body
orbital CT
44
where in the brain are the earliest changes in alzheimers disease seen
temporal lobe
45
best advice to reduce risk of spina bifida
take prescribed high dose folic acid before conception
46
Tx for malignant spinal cord compression
Dexamethasone
47
what results are consistent with cranial diabetes insipidus
low urinary osmolality usually increased serum osmolality after water deprivation for 8 hours desmopressin administration = massive rise in urine osmolality
48
when is glucogel indicated in hypoglycaemia and what is indicated instead
when they cant swallow, ALWAYS GIVE ORAL GLUCOSE/FOOD IF POSSIBLE
49
first line medicine for PBC
Ursodeoxycholic acid
50
sign for achilles tendinitis
calcaneal tendon enlargement
51
test for meniscal tear
McMurray test
52
brown/rust coloured sputum organism in pneumonia
streptococcus
53
only medication that treats nausea and agitation
levopromazine
54
what scan should be done if there is an unprovoked DVT
CT abdo/pelvis for possible malignancy
55
where is de quervains tenosynvitis felt
radial aspect of wrist
56
best imaging modality for cervical spine fractures
CT scan neck
57
what causes intrinsic hand muscle wasting
T1 nerve lesions
58
what is the most common pathogen in leg cellulitis
strep pyogenes
59
histological findings consistent with small intestinal metaplasia
intestinal metaplasia
60
what investigation should be done for a non-functioning thyroid nodule
USS neck
61
what has to be done before doing a wells score/CTPA/D-dimers for ?PE
CXR
62
what is the initial tx of superior vena cava obstruction
Dexamethasone
63
what antidiabetic drugs should be omitted in a Type 2 diabetic treated medically in a minor surgery
gliclazide - metformin can continue
64
fluid requirements for adults with underlying cardiac disease
20-25ml/kg/day
65
best anasthesa for AP resection for low rectal carcinoma
epidural
66
what is a common trigger for vasovagal syncope
micturation
67
what CK levels are considered definite rhabdomyolysis
>10,000 , <1000 isnt necessarily that