Prometric Flashcards
1
Q
Hyphae of which fungi branch at 45-degree angle?
A
Aspergillus spp.
2
Q
Hyphae of which fungi branch at 90-degree angle?
A
Mucor spp.
3
Q
What simple test is used for differentiation between S. aureus and micrococcus?
A
Oxidative/fermentative media (O/F)
4
Q
What virus causes sandy spots on cells?
A
Arenavirus
5
Q
What virus is suspected in a patient with splenomegaly and positive mono-spot test?
A
EBV (Epstein Barr virus)
6
Q
What special stain is used for amyloid?
A
Congo red stain
7
Q
What virus causes swelling of salivary and parotid glands?
A
Mumps virus
8
Q
Which virus causes eye irritation and conjunctivitis after swimming?
A
Adenovirus
9
Q
Negri bodies are eosinophilic inclusion bodies caused by which virus?
A
Rabies virus
10
Q
Which organism cultured on blood agar produces a swarming phenomenon?
A
Proteus spp.
11
Q
What is the characteristic of capsulated highly mucoid bacteria?
A
Klebsiella spp.
12
Q
What color indicates a positive urease test for Brucella spp.?
A
Red color
13
Q
What is the special medium used for Mycobacterium?
A
Löwenstein—jensen medium (Lj)
14
Q
Which type of Plasmodium causes malignant malaria?
A
Plasmodium falciparum
15
Q
What culture media is used for fungi?
A
Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA)
16
Q
What causes yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharges?
A
Trichomonas vaginalis
17
Q
What is creatinine clearance used for?
A
Estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
18
Q
What type of bilirubin increases in hemolytic anemia?
A
Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin
19
Q
What is the prozone in Ag-Ab reaction?
A
Zone of excess Abs
20
Q
What is the optimum temperature for the complement fixation test (CFT)?
A
56 C°
21
Q
What does the glycated Hb (hemoglobin) test measure?
A
HbA1c (average of glucose in 2-3 months)
22
Q
Auer rods are found in which type of leukemia?
A
Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
23
Q
In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with?
A
Picric acid in alkaline media
24
Q
When a test is truly negative, what does this indicate?
A
Specificity
25
What is the function of a primer in DNA replication?
Provides 3'OH end needed to grow nucleotide chain
26
What is the germ tube test used for?
Candida albicans
27
What does a wet preparation of stool show when it contains eggs with bipolar plugs?
Egg of Trichuris trichura
28
What is the function of a microtome?
Produce sections (cutting)
29
What must a patient provide before using their samples in research?
Informed consent
30
What do RACE & PASS check refer to in lab safety?
Fire safety procedures
31
Who performs the gross examination (Grossing) in histopathology?
Pathologists
32
What is the confirmatory test for VDRL?
Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)
33
What is the use of tumor markers?
Cancer monitoring
34
What is the deferral period for a donor visiting a malaria area?
1 year
35
What blood product is most appropriate for preventing GVHD?
Irradiated blood (RBCs)
36
What is the minimum ICT for autologous donation?
33%
37
If both parents are A blood group, what is the possible offspring blood group?
75% group A, 25% group O
38
What is the double dose (homozygous) expression of jK (a+) antigen?
jK (a+b-)
39
What is the most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens?
D antigen
40
On which chromosome are the ABO genes located?
Chromosome 9
41
On which chromosome are the Rh genes located?
Chromosome 1
42
Define directed donation.
Donation for a specific recipient
43
What antibodies cause HDFN?
Anti-D, anti-C, anti-E, anti-c, anti-e and anti-K
44
What is one of the applications of the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)?
Antibody screening
45
What type of antibodies causes transfusion reactions?
Clinically significant antibodies
46
Which antibodies are IgG?
Anti-e, anti-P, anti-S, anti-s, anti-U, anti-K, anti-jK(a,b)
47
What is the normal sperm count?
20 million to 250 million
48
What is the time limit for a fresh semen sample?
2 hours
49
What bacteria is suspected in a gram stain of CSF showing kidney-shaped gram-negative bacteria?
N. meningitidis (meningococcal infection)
50
What condition is indicated by a patient with 3 days of vomiting and a distinctive smell of breath like nail polish?
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
51
What causes the dark yellow color of amniotic fluid?
Bilirubin
52
What is the diagnosis when a chemical strip of urinalysis shows positive bilirubin and decreased urobilinogen?
Biliary obstruction (post-hepatic jaundice)
53
What non-pathological condition shows a high blood albumin level?
Dehydration
54
If a blood tube is left for 5 hours, which test is not affected?
Uric acid
55
What specific enzyme is elevated in biliary obstruction?
GGT
56
What is the confirmatory test for suspected acute myocardial infarction?
Troponin T
57
What is the special test for evaluating congenital hypothyroidism?
TSH
58
What is the tumor marker for colon cancer?
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
59
What specific enzyme is associated with hepatobiliary diseases?
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
60
What blood product is suitable for treating von Willebrand disease?
Cryoprecipitate
61
What is the specific enzyme for acute pancreatitis?
Lipase
62
What diagnosis is indicated by a protein electrophoresis showing normal fractions except for an elevated gamma fraction?
Monoclonal gammopathy
63
What is the diagnosis for a patient with bleeding after dental extraction, factor assay shows factor VIII deficiency?
Hemophilia A
64
What medication acts as a vitamin K antagonist?
Warfarin
65
What test is used for differentiation between factor deficiency and factor inhibitor?
Mixing studies
66
What is a common finding in a patient with a high level of ADH?
Hyponatremia
67
What test differentiates von Willebrand disease from hemophilia?
Bleeding time
68
What condition is indicated by peripheral smear showing rouleaux formation?
Multiple myeloma (MM)
69
Howell-jolly bodies are seen in which conditions?
Hemolytic anemia, splenectomy, megaloblastic anemia
70
What type of anemia is G6PD anemia classified as?
Hemolytic anemia
71
What part in reticulocytes stained with new methylene blue represents?
RNA
72
What type of WBCs are elevated in E. vermicularis infection?
Eosinophils
73
What are the CD markers for T lymphocytes?
CD3, CD4
74
What mutation is associated with polycythemia vera and essential thrombocythemia?
JAK2 V617F
75
What mutation is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?
t(9:22)
76
What anticoagulant can cause pseudothrombocytopenia?
EDTA
77
What lab finding is associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
Low PLTs count
78
What is the chemical movement of neutrophils called?
Chemotaxis
79
What are liver macrophages called?
Kupffer cells
80
Which organ's macrophages are responsible for the elimination of bacteria?
Liver and spleen
81
What condition is indicated by severe menorrhagia, low PLTs, and normal PT and APTT?
Von Willebrand disease
82
What clinical condition is associated with autoantibodies against thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase?
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
83
What protein is produced by activated macrophages?
Interleukins
84
What can cause rashes and fever after the administration of intravenous penicillin?
IgE
85
What condition is indicated by a patient with dry mouth, gritty feeling eyes, high ANA, and anti SS Abs?
Sjogren syndrome
86
What is indicated by high sugar levels with normal insulin?
Insulin independent diabetes mellitus
87
What histopathology finding indicates contamination?
A section of liver found on a section of lung
88
What causes hematuria?
S. hematobium
89
In a gram stain, how is S. aureus arranged?
Clusters
90
What acids are used for urine preservation?
Hydrochloric acid, boric acid
91
What special technique is used for treponema and spirochetes?
Dark field microscope
92
What endocrine disorder is characterized by weight gain and cold intolerance?
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
93
What endocrine disorder is characterized by weight loss and heat intolerance?
Graves disease
94
What causes meningitis in infants when caused by gram-positive rods with tumbling motility?
Listeria monocytogenes
95
What test differentiates M. tuberculosis from other mycobacteria?
Production of niacin (nicotinic acid)
96
What gram-positive rods can infect fetuses and pregnant women and can grow at 4 C?
Listeria monocytogenes
97
What virus causes infant diarrhea and can be prevented by the national immunization program?
Rota virus
98
What is the biosafety level (BSL) for MERS-CoV/SARS-CoV-2?
BSL 3
99
What allows influenza virus to attach to epithelial cells?
Hemagglutinin
100
What does an electron microscope show when examining a virus with crown-like projections?
Corona virus
101
What is used to detect fungi in a skin sample?
10% KOH
102
What causes ringworm?
Trichophyton
103
What is the suitable mask for MERS-CoV?
N95
104
What state describes access to patient information, results, and diagnosis?
Patient confidentiality
105
What does Hb-electrophoresis show when normal HbA and high HbA2 are present?
Thalassemia minor
106
What is called when treatment is provided regardless of age, sex, or religion?
Access to care
107
What is the only lipoprotein synthesized and secreted in the intestine?
Chylomicron
108
What protocol is followed for a positive malaria case in Saudi Arabia?
Inform the infectious disease department
109
What findings indicate pancreatitis?
High lipase and amylase
110
What is the method used for centrifugation of pleural fluid?
Centrifugation
111
How do you differentiate Staphylococci from Streptococci?
By catalase test
112
What stain is used for reticulocyte count?
Supravital stain (new methylene blue)
113
What hormone causes glucose in urine (renal glycosuria) to be normal in blood?
Glucagon hormone
114
What should be done if creatinine is 5.9 (critical)?
Call physician
115
What conditions are considered for donation in HIV, BBV, sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait?
Sickle trait
116
What is the abnormal chromosome associated with CML?
Philadelphia chromosome
117
What is the best test for iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?
Ferritin
118
What causes low ESR?
Low fibrinogen
119
What do PT: 20 sec, APTT: 50 sec, TT: 18 sec indicate?
Hypofibrinogenemia
120
What can cause a false positive DAT?
Clotted sample
121
What result is seen in factor X deficiency?
Prolonged PT & APTT
122
What factor is not measured by PT & APTT?
Factor XIII
123
What occurs when PT is prolonged and IV vitamin K normalizes it after 24 hours?
Obstructive jaundice
124
What is indicated if prolonged APTT is corrected with factor VIII deficient plasma but not with factor IX deficient plasma?
Factor VIII deficiency
125
What indicates PT: prolonged, APTT: prolonged, low PLTs count?
DIC
126
What is factor XII deficiency associated with?
Increased risk of thrombosis
127
In a factor VIII assay, a patient's plasma is mixed with?
Factor VIII deficient plasma
128
What is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system (plasmin)?
Alpha 2-antiplasmin
129
What is plasminogen deficiency associated with?
Thrombosis
130
What condition is indicated when a baby develops petechiae and purpura with PLTs count of 18 x 10 *9/L?
Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
131
What is the suitable blood product when PT and APTT are prolonged, and PLTs count is 100 x 10*9/L with fibrinogen at 40 mg/dL?
Cryoprecipitate
132
What condition is indicated by normal PT, prolonged APTT, increased bleeding time, and normal platelet count?
Von Willebrand disease
133
What is the correct ratio of anticoagulant to blood for coagulation procedures?
1:9
134
What is the function of vitamin K in coagulation?
Required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation factors
135
The APTT is sensitive to deficiency of which factor?
Factor X
136
What test is used for heparin monitoring?
APTT
137
What indicates normal fasting blood sugar and high 2-hour postprandial glucose?
Isolated postprandial hyperglycemia
138
What causes amber color of urine?
Presence of bilirubin
139
What is bilirubin's characteristic regarding photosensitivity?
Photosensitive
140
What does the osmolality of urine depend on?
Na + specific gravity
141
What is phenylketonuria caused by?
Lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase
142
What is used to detect ketones in urine?
Sodium nitroprusside
143
What is the principle of ELISA?
Antigen-Antibody complex
144
What type of hypersensitivity is Type 4?
Delayed hypersensitivity (takes 24-72 hours)
145
Define autoimmune disease.
An autoimmune disease occurs when an individual produces antibody or a T cell response to own antigens.
146
What causes hemolytic uremic syndrome?
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli 0157:H7, Shigella dysenteriae
147
What parasite causes acute diarrhea?
Giardia
148
What is the selective media for vibrio?
TCBS
149
What anticoagulant is used in PT?
Warfarin
150
What causes gas gangrene?
C. perfringens
151
What media contains vancomycin, colistin, and nystatin?
Thayer Martin media
152
What is the bile solubility test used for?
Special test for S. pneumoniae
153
What virus causes intranuclear giant cytopathic effect as owl eyes?
Cytomegalovirus
154
What indicates viral meningitis?
Normal glucose with high protein
155
What produces neurotoxins?
C. tetani, C. botulinum, S. aureus, B. cereus
156
What stains are used for fungi?
Grocott methamine silver, periodic acid Schiff, lactophenol cotton blue
157
What does the Wood lamp test diagnose?
Hair skin infected by dermatophytes
158
What condition is indicated by acromegaly?
Test of growth hormone (GH)
159
What deficiencies cause niacin (nicotinic acid/vitamin B3) and tryptophan deficiency?
Pellagra
160
What is Cushing syndrome characterized by?
High cortisol, Hyperaldosteronism, high ACTH
161
What does double zone of beta hemolysis indicate?
C. perfringens
162
What does HbA1c measure?
Sugar for the last 3 months
163
What causes hypoalbuminemia?
Acute or chronic inflammation, nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis, heart failure, malnutrition, allergy
164
What is INR used for?
PT
165
Define MCV.
Measure of average volume of RBC
166
In what conditions are Heinz bodies seen?
G6PD anemia
167
What deficiency causes Pellagra?
Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency
## Footnote
Pellagra is characterized by the three D's: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.
168
What is Cushing syndrome characterized by?
High cortisol, hyperaldosteronism, high ACTH
## Footnote
Cushing syndrome results from prolonged exposure to elevated levels of cortisol.
169
What organism displays a double zone of beta hemolysis?
C. perfringens
## Footnote
This bacterium is known for causing gas gangrene.
170
What does HbA1C measure?
Average blood sugar levels over the last 3 months
## Footnote
HbA1C is used to diagnose and monitor diabetes.
171
What causes hypoalbuminemia?
Acute or chronic inflammation, nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis, heart failure, malnutrition, allergy
## Footnote
Hypoalbuminemia can indicate various underlying health issues.
172
What does INR stand for and what is it for?
International Normalized Ratio, used for monitoring PT (Prothrombin Time)
## Footnote
INR is crucial in managing patients on anticoagulants.
173
Define MCV.
Mean Corpuscular Volume, a measure of the average volume of red blood cells
## Footnote
MCV helps classify anemias.
174
In which conditions are Heinz bodies seen?
G6PD anemia, denatured hemoglobin
## Footnote
Heinz bodies indicate oxidative damage to red blood cells.
175
What are Coomb control cells?
RBCs coated with IgG
## Footnote
These are used in the Coombs test to detect antibodies against red blood cells.
176
What is a common cause of hypercalcemia?
Hyperparathyroidism
## Footnote
Hypercalcemia can also result from malignancies or vitamin D disorders.
177
What are cell blocks?
Microbiopsies embedded in paraffin wax for cytology specimens
## Footnote
These are used to analyze small tissue fragments from fine needle aspiration (FNA).
178
What special stain is used for the stomach?
PAS (Periodic Acid-Schiff)
## Footnote
This stain helps visualize carbohydrates in tissue.
179
What is Wilson's disease characterized by?
Low ceruloplasmin and high copper levels in urine
## Footnote
Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder leading to copper accumulation.
180
What causes Hemophilia A?
Deficiency of factor VIII
## Footnote
Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder.
181
What is the lifespan of red blood cells?
120 days
## Footnote
RBCs are continuously produced in the bone marrow.
182
What does the Kleihauer-Betke test detect?
Fetal red blood cells in maternal circulation
## Footnote
This test is used in cases of suspected fetal-maternal hemorrhage.
183
What bacterium is associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea?
C. difficile
## Footnote
C. difficile infection can occur after antibiotic use.
184
Which bacteria are transmitted by cat bites?
Pasteurella multocida
## Footnote
This bacterium can cause serious infections if not treated promptly.
185
How is LDL calculated?
LDL = total cholesterol - HDL - TG/5
## Footnote
This formula estimates low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels.
186
What media inhibits the swarming of Proteus species?
CLED (Cystine-Lactose-Electrolyte-Deficient) agar
## Footnote
CLED agar is used for urinary cultures.
187
Which bacteria can grow at 42-43°C?
Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Borkholderia
## Footnote
These bacteria are thermophilic.
188
Which bacteria can grow at 4-43°C?
Listeria monocytogenes & Yersinia
## Footnote
These bacteria are psychrotrophic and can grow in refrigerated foods.
189
What is the labeled material in ELISA?
Antibody labeled with an enzyme
## Footnote
ELISA is used for detecting antigens or antibodies.
190
What factors affect tissue processing machines?
Solution viscosity, agitation, heat, vacuum & pressure
## Footnote
These factors ensure adequate infiltration and embedding of tissues.
191
What is the proper thickness for tissue samples?
2-4 mm, 3-5 microns
## Footnote
Proper thickness is crucial for effective processing and analysis.
192
What is tissue infiltration or embedding done with?
Paraffin wax, resin, agar, gelatin, celloidin
## Footnote
These materials are used to preserve tissue morphology.
193
What causes ice artifacts in frozen sections?
Slow freezing of tissue
## Footnote
Rapid freezing techniques are used to avoid these artifacts.
194
What is an exchange transfusion used for?
Patients with ABO antibodies, HDFN, to remove bilirubin and maternal antibodies
## Footnote
This procedure is critical for managing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN).
195
What is intrauterine transfusion (IUT) used for?
HDFN due to Rh incompatibility
## Footnote
IUT is performed using the umbilical vein to maintain fetal hemoglobin levels.
196
What type of antibodies are Lewis antibodies?
Cold antibodies
## Footnote
These antibodies are typically IgM and can react at lower temperatures.
197
What special stain is used for parasites?
Giemsa stain, H&E
## Footnote
These stains help visualize various parasites in tissue samples.
198
Where are Reed-Sternberg cells found?
Hodgkin lymphoma
## Footnote
These cells are characteristic of this type of cancer.
199
What is the special stain for amoeba?
Best carmine, PAS
## Footnote
These stains help identify amoebic infections in tissue.
200
What enzyme is responsible for glycolysis?
Pyruvate kinase
## Footnote
This enzyme catalyzes the final step of glycolysis.
201
What are the differences between hyaline and waxy casts?
Hyaline cast: colorless, translucent, seen in normal individuals & renal disease; Waxy cast: yellow, high refractive index, seen in chronic renal failure
## Footnote
Casts are indicative of different types of renal pathology.
202
What is the giant intranuclear inclusion like owl eyes indicative of?
CMV (cytomegalovirus)
## Footnote
This cytopathic effect is typical in infected cells.
203
What color do gram-negative bacteria appear?
Pink or red
## Footnote
This is due to the thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls.
204
What test is used for monitoring HIV?
CD4 count
## Footnote
This test helps assess immune function in HIV-positive patients.
205
What does RT-PCR do?
Produces DNA from RNA
## Footnote
RT-PCR is used for amplifying RNA sequences.
206
How is embedding done in tissue processing?
Filling of tissue with paraffin wax using suitable molds or tissue cassettes
## Footnote
This process preserves tissue for sectioning and analysis.
207
What happens if a tissue cassette is not closed?
Cut the tissue into a proper size
## Footnote
Proper closure is essential for maintaining tissue integrity during processing.
208
What disease is characterized by a barking cough?
Croup caused by parainfluenza virus
## Footnote
Croup typically affects young children.
209
What enzyme is affected by alcohol consumption?
GGT (Gamma-glutamyl transferase)
## Footnote
Elevated GGT levels can indicate liver disease.
210
Which hormone controls the adrenal gland?
ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
## Footnote
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol.
211
What test differentiates group B from group A streptococci?
CAMP test
## Footnote
The CAMP test detects the synergistic hemolytic activity of group B strep.
212
In which condition is Bence Jones protein found?
Multiple myeloma
## Footnote
Bence Jones proteins are free light chains of immunoglobulins excreted in the urine.
213
Which bacterium causes gas gangrene?
C. perfringens
## Footnote
Gas gangrene occurs due to the production of gas in tissues by this organism.
214
What is the concentration of sodium citrate used for coagulation studies?
3.2%
## Footnote
Sodium citrate acts as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes.
215
What device is used to obtain sediments?
Centrifuge
## Footnote
Centrifuges separate components of blood or other fluids based on density.
216
What enzyme is elevated in obstructive jaundice?
ALP (Alkaline Phosphatase)
## Footnote
ALP levels rise due to bile duct obstruction.
217
What is Indian ink used for?
Detection of capsule and Cryptococcus neoformans
## Footnote
The Indian ink preparation is a classic method for visualizing the capsule of this yeast.
218
What bacterium causes peptic ulcers and is urease positive?
H. pylori
## Footnote
H. pylori is a common cause of chronic gastritis and peptic ulcers.
219
What anticoagulant is used for blood cultures?
Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
## Footnote
This anticoagulant prevents clotting while allowing the growth of bacteria.
220
What are cylindrical larvae classified as?
Nematodes (e.g., Ascaris, hookworm)
## Footnote
Nematodes are a type of parasitic worm.
221
What is the main difference between fungi and bacteria in terms of ribosomes?
Fungi have 80S ribosomes, bacteria have 70S ribosomes
## Footnote
This difference is important for antibiotic targeting.
222
What do eukaryotes lack?
Mesosomes
## Footnote
Mesosomes are structures found in prokaryotes.
223
What parasite causes hematuria?
S. haematobium
## Footnote
This trematode is associated with urinary schistosomiasis.
224
Which cell type is predominant in parasitic infections?
Eosinophil
## Footnote
Eosinophils respond to parasitic infections and allergic reactions.
225
Which cell type is predominant in bacterial infections?
Neutrophil
## Footnote
Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections.
226
How long can CPD-stored blood be used?
14-21 days
## Footnote
CPD (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose) is an anticoagulant used in blood storage.
227
How long can CPDA-stored blood be used?
35 days
## Footnote
CPDA (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose Adenine) extends blood storage time.
228
What is the difference between plasma and serum?
Plasma contains fibrinogen
## Footnote
Serum is the liquid that remains after blood has clotted.
229
What causes hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
Anti-D, anti-K antibodies
## Footnote
HDN occurs when maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells.
230
What color does Shigella appear on XLD agar?
Red
## Footnote
Shigella does not ferment xylose, leading to a red colony appearance.
231
What color do platelets need to be stored at?
22-27°C for 5 days
## Footnote
Proper storage conditions are critical for platelet viability.
232
Where are nucleated RBCs found?
Hemolytic anemia and megaloblastic anemia
## Footnote
Nucleated RBCs indicate a response to anemia or stress on the bone marrow.
233
Which anemias are characterized by anemia with thrombocytopenia?
Megaloblastic anemia and aplastic anemia
## Footnote
These conditions can affect multiple blood cell lines.
234
Which bacteria is associated with a fishy smell?
Proteus spp.
## Footnote
This smell can be indicative of urinary tract infections.
235
What is the life cycle duration of Plasmodium malariae?
72 hours
## Footnote
This parasite causes malaria and has a cyclical pattern of symptoms.
236
What causes visceral leishmaniasis?
Leishmania donovani
## Footnote
This protozoan parasite is transmitted by sandflies.
237
What bacteria is indole positive, lactose fermenter, and motile in UTI cases?
E. coli
## Footnote
E. coli is a common cause of urinary tract infections.
238
What type of anemia is G6PD deficiency classified as?
Hemolytic anemia
## Footnote
This condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
239
What bacteria are oxidase positive?
Pseudomonas, Vibrio, Neisseria, H. influenzae
## Footnote
Oxidase tests help identify specific bacterial species.
240
Where does the maturation of B lymphocytes occur?
In the bone marrow
## Footnote
B cells are central to the adaptive immune response.
241
Where does the maturation of T lymphocytes occur?
In the thymus gland
## Footnote
T cells are crucial for cell-mediated immunity.
242
What is the indirect Coombs test (IAT) used for?
Detect antibodies in vitro
## Footnote
This test is often used in blood typing and prenatal testing.
243
What is the direct Coombs test used for?
Detect sensitized RBCs with antibodies in vivo
## Footnote
This test helps diagnose hemolytic anemia.
244
What condition is associated with high growth hormone in children?
Gigantism
## Footnote
Excess growth hormone leads to abnormal growth in children.
245
What condition is associated with high growth hormone in adults?
Acromegaly
## Footnote
Acromegaly results in enlarged bones and tissues.
246
How can HbSS be differentiated from HbAS?
By Hb electrophoresis
## Footnote
This test separates different hemoglobin types.
247
What is the appearance of Shigella on MacConkey agar?
Colorless
## Footnote
Shigella does not ferment lactose, resulting in no color change.
248
What is the appearance of Salmonella on XLD agar?
Pink color with a black center
## Footnote
The black center indicates hydrogen sulfide production.
249
What is the appearance of Salmonella on MacConkey agar?
Colorless or pale yellow
## Footnote
Similar to Shigella, Salmonella does not ferment lactose.
250
What is meant by autosomal recessive inheritance?
Two copies of a defective gene must be inherited from both parents
## Footnote
Many genetic disorders follow this inheritance pattern.
251
What is the CA-125 marker used for?
Ovarian and breast cancer
## Footnote
CA-125 is a tumor marker often elevated in these cancers.
252
What should be done after a fire alarm is activated?
Continue the fire drill and close the door
## Footnote
Following safety protocols is essential in emergency situations.
253
What disinfectant kills microorganisms and spores?
Glutaraldehyde
## Footnote
Glutaraldehyde is a potent sterilizing agent.
254
What indicates pancreatic cancer in laboratory results?
High CA 19-9 and high lipase and amylase
## Footnote
These markers can suggest pancreatic pathology.
255
What color code indicates a spill emergency?
Orange
## Footnote
Color codes are used to quickly communicate the type of emergency.
256
Who is considered a primary health care provider?
Person who directly contacts patients and provides care
## Footnote
This role is crucial in the healthcare system.
257
What is type 1 hypersensitivity?
An allergic reaction mediated by IgE antibodies
## Footnote
This type of hypersensitivity leads to immediate allergic responses.
258
What media can affect the indole test?
Any media containing dyes, MacConkey, EMB, and Mueller Hinton agar
## Footnote
These media can alter the results of the indole test.
259
Where are Howell-Jolly bodies found?
In patients who have undergone splenectomy
## Footnote
These bodies are remnants of red blood cell nuclei.
260
What is the result of normal Hb and normal MCV?
Normocytic normochromic red blood cells
## Footnote
This indicates a normal red blood cell size and hemoglobin content.
261
What is the suitable time and temperature for autoclaving at 15 lbs?
121°C for 15 minutes
## Footnote
This standard ensures sterilization of materials.
262
What should be used for a patient needing 4 units of blood with an unknown blood group?
0 negative blood group
## Footnote
O negative is the universal donor type for emergencies.
263
What bacterium gives a blue-green colony with a positive fried egg appearance?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
## Footnote
This organism is known for its distinctive colony morphology.
264
How is BUN calculated?
Urea/2.14
## Footnote
BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) is an important marker for kidney function.
265
What is the heterozygous JK reaction?
JK(a+b+)
## Footnote
This refers to the Kidd blood group system.
266
What is protein S a cofactor for?
Protein C
## Footnote
Protein S is crucial for the regulation of coagulation.
267
How do you differentiate fibrinogenolysis from DIC?
D-dimer positive in DIC
## Footnote
DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) is characterized by elevated D-dimer levels.
268
What are phenotypes?
The morphology and properties of an organism
## Footnote
Phenotypes result from the interaction of genotype and environment.
269
What is genotype?
The genetic makeup of an organism (DNA) and hereditary information
## Footnote
Genotype determines potential traits of an organism.
270
What blood component is suitable for a patient with vWF deficiency?
Cryoprecipitate
## Footnote
Cryoprecipitate contains factor VIII and fibrinogen.
271
What is a laboratory reagents system?
Inventory system
## Footnote
This system manages the stock of laboratory reagents.
272
What type of food poisoning is caused by gram-positive bacilli?
C. perfringens
## Footnote
This bacterium is associated with improperly stored foods.
273
What methods are used for leukemia diagnosis?
Flow cytometry, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, cytogenetics (FISH, PCR), immunohistochemistry, CBC, blood films, MRI
## Footnote
These methods help confirm the diagnosis and subtype of leukemia.
274
What is the function of the primer in PCR?
RNA primer to detect genetic expression
## Footnote
Primers are essential for initiating DNA synthesis in PCR.
275
What color do gram-negative bacteria appear after Gram staining?
Pink or red
## Footnote
This is due to the structure of their cell walls.
276
What urine cast is found in cases of sickle cell anemia?
Hemosiderin (hemoglobin) cast
## Footnote
These casts indicate hemolysis and renal involvement.
277
What condition is familial hypercholesterolemia associated with?
High LDL
## Footnote
This genetic disorder leads to elevated levels of low-density lipoprotein cholesterol.
278
What lipid is affected by meals?
Triglycerides
## Footnote
Triglyceride levels can spike after eating.
279
Complete the template for AAGCAT for DNA and RNA.
DNA: TTCGTA, RNA: UUCGUA
## Footnote
This demonstrates the base pairing rules in nucleic acids.
280
Which virus is HDV associated with?
HBV (Hepatitis B virus)
## Footnote
HDV requires HBV for its replication.
281
What are the symptoms associated with EBV infection?
Atypical lymphocytes, heterophile tests, monospot test, lymphadenopathy, nasopharyngeal carcinoma
## Footnote
EBV is linked to infectious mononucleosis and certain cancers.
282
What are common cases of traveler-related hepatitis?
NAV (Non-A, Non-B hepatitis)
## Footnote
This includes various viral hepatitis types not traditionally classified.
283
What controls unfractionated heparin?
APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)
## Footnote
APTT is used to monitor anticoagulation therapy.
284
What is the role of crystal violet in MacConkey agar?
Inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria
## Footnote
Crystal violet helps select for gram-negative organisms in culture.
285
What does high WBCs in urine indicate?
UTI & pyelonephritis
## Footnote
Elevated white blood cells suggest infection in the urinary tract.
286
Define proficiency tests.
External quality control evaluating laboratory testing results by comparison
## Footnote
Proficiency testing ensures accuracy and reliability in lab results.
287
What does elution mean in a laboratory context?
Removal of antibodies attached to the surface of a red blood cell
## Footnote
Elution is used in identifying specific antibodies.
288
What are missing epitopes of the D antigen referred to as?
Partial D antigen
## Footnote
This can complicate blood typing and transfusion compatibility.
289
What are the features of iron deficiency anemia?
Microcytosis (microcytic hypochromic anemia)
## Footnote
This is characterized by smaller and paler red blood cells.
290
Where is the Philadelphia chromosome seen?
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
## Footnote
This chromosomal abnormality is a hallmark of CML.
291
What enzyme is specific for osteoporosis?
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
## Footnote
Elevated ALP can indicate increased bone turnover.
292
What is the risk associated with HPV-18?
High risk of cervical cancer
## Footnote
HPV-18 is one of the high-risk types linked to cervical carcinogenesis.
293
If PT and PTT results are normal, which factor is likely deficient?
Factor XI
## Footnote
Factor XI deficiency often does not affect PT or PTT significantly.
294
What media does Vibrio cholerae grow on?
TCBS media (Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts Sucrose)
## Footnote
This selective media supports the growth of Vibrio species.
295
What is the characteristic of Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic bacteria that are optochin sensitive?
S. pneumoniae
## Footnote
This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and other infections.
296
What type of bacteria has a drumstick-like appearance?
C. tetani
## Footnote
This appearance is characteristic of the bacterium that causes tetanus.
297
What stain is used for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
Albert stain
## Footnote
This stain highlights the metachromatic granules of the bacteria.
298
What conditions lead to high urea, creatinine, and ammonia levels?
Due to high protein consumption
## Footnote
These levels can indicate kidney function or dietary intake.
299
What type of crystal is found in renal tubular acidosis (RTA)?
Calcium salts (Calcium phosphate, calcium carbonate)
## Footnote
These crystals can indicate disturbed calcium metabolism.
300
What bacterium causes pharyngitis?
S. pyogenes
## Footnote
This bacterium is responsible for strep throat.
301
What parasite is associated with vaginal discharge and itching?
Trichomonas vaginalis
## Footnote
This protozoan causes trichomoniasis.
302
What are examples of X-linked diseases?
Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency), Hemophilia B (factor IX deficiency)
## Footnote
Hemophilia C is autosomal recessive (factor XI deficiency).
303
What is the predominant type of white blood cell?
Neutrophil
## Footnote
Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cells in the human body.
304
What is the predominant complement component?
C3, C3b
## Footnote
C3 is central to the complement system and immune response.
305
What type of anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?
Megaloblastic anemia
## Footnote
This type of anemia results from impaired DNA synthesis.
306
What is associated with hypersegmented neutrophils?
Megaloblastic anemia
## Footnote
Hypersegmented neutrophils are a classic finding in this condition.
307
Where should safety data sheets be located?
In an area available for all staff
## Footnote
Accessibility is essential for safety compliance.
308
What is the color code for abduction?
Pink
## Footnote
Color codes are used for various emergency protocols in healthcare settings.
309
What test differentiates between alpha and beta thalassemia?
Hb electrophoresis
## Footnote
This test analyzes the types of hemoglobin present.
310
Which hormones increase blood glucose levels?
Cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine, T3, T4, ACTH, growth hormone
## Footnote
These hormones play roles in glucose metabolism.
311
What do beta cells of the pancreas secrete?
Insulin
## Footnote
Insulin regulates blood glucose levels.
312
What do alpha cells of the pancreas secrete?
Glucagon
## Footnote
Glucagon raises blood glucose levels during fasting.
313
Which organ produces erythropoietin?
Kidney
## Footnote
Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
314
What hormone is responsible for sodium, potassium, and water reabsorption?
Aldosterone
## Footnote
Aldosterone plays a key role in fluid and electrolyte balance.
315
What condition is indicated by high liver enzymes, specifically GGT?
Cholestasis
## Footnote
Elevated GGT can indicate liver dysfunction or bile duct obstruction.
316
What does polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) detect?
IgG and C3 coated RBCs
## Footnote
This test is used in blood banking to detect antibodies.
317
What does monospecific AHG detect?
Either IgG or C3
## Footnote
This allows for more specific identification of antibodies.
318
What does high ALP indicate?
Paget disease
## Footnote
Elevated ALP levels can also indicate liver disease or bone disorders.
319
From which DNA strand can RNA be made?
Positive strand DNA (+ve sense)
## Footnote
This is the strand used as a template for RNA synthesis.
320
What is the normal urine pH?
Acidic (4 to 8), average (5-6)
## Footnote
Urine pH can vary based on diet and metabolic state.
321
What does a positive ANA and positive RF indicate?
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
## Footnote
These tests are used to screen for autoimmune disorders.
322
What symptoms are associated with polyuria, weight loss, and high glucose?
Diabetes Mellitus (DM)
## Footnote
These are classic signs of uncontrolled diabetes.
323
What type of tube is used for coagulation studies?
Sodium citrate (Na citrate)
## Footnote
This anticoagulant is essential for accurate coagulation testing.
324
What is the value of MCV in macrocytic anemia?
High
## Footnote
Macrocytic anemia is characterized by larger than normal red blood cells.
325
What elevated hemoglobin is seen in beta thalassemia major?
HbF (Fetal Hemoglobin)
## Footnote
HbF levels are often elevated as a compensatory mechanism.
326
What abnormal hemoglobin is found in alpha thalassemia?
Hb Bart, Hb H
## Footnote
These hemoglobins are indicative of severe forms of alpha thalassemia.
327
What does the sickle solubility test depend on?
HbS (Sickle Hemoglobin)
## Footnote
This test helps screen for sickle cell disease.
328
What conditions show reticulocytosis?
Hemolytic anemia, hemorrhage, blood loss, leukemia, sickle cell anemia, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, treatment of vitamin B12, IDA, folate deficiency
## Footnote
Reticulocytosis indicates an increased production of red blood cells.
329
What causes paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
Anti-P antibodies
## Footnote
PCH is a rare form of hemolytic anemia.
330
What cells are part of the innate immunity?
Neutrophil, monocyte, basophil, eosinophil, macrophage, dendritic cell
## Footnote
These cells play critical roles in the immediate immune response.
331
If a patient has blood group A2 with anti-A1, what blood group is suitable for transfusion?
A2 or O
## Footnote
Compatibility is essential to avoid transfusion reactions.
332
What blood group should a patient with anti-E receive?
Same Rh phenotype (blood with no E antigen)
## Footnote
This ensures compatibility and reduces the risk of hemolytic reactions.
333
What is the heterozygous reaction for Lutheran (Lu)?
Lu (a+b+)
## Footnote
This refers to the Lutheran blood group antigen system.
334
What is the homozygous reaction for Lutheran Lu (a)?
Lu (a+b-)
## Footnote
This indicates a lack of the b antigen in homozygous individuals.
335
What are the Duffy group antigens?
Fy (a), Fy (b)
## Footnote
Duffy antigens are significant in blood transfusion and malaria susceptibility.
336
Where do T lymphocytes mature?
In the thymus
## Footnote
The thymus is essential for the development of T cells.
337
What are the signs of low CSF glucose, high lactate, and high protein?
Bacterial or fungal meningitis
## Footnote
These findings indicate an infection in the central nervous system.
338
What test is used for H. pylori detection?
Urea breath test
## Footnote
This non-invasive test detects H. pylori by measuring carbon dioxide in breath.
339
What is the normal highest electrolyte level in the body?
Sodium (Na 135-145)
## Footnote
Sodium is crucial for fluid balance and nerve function.
340
What is the major cation of intracellular fluid?
Potassium (K)
## Footnote
Potassium is vital for cellular function and muscle contraction.
341
What causes high prolactin levels?
Infertility
## Footnote
Elevated prolactin can inhibit ovulation and contribute to infertility.
342
What medium is used for electrophoresis?
Agarose gel
## Footnote
Agarose gel electrophoresis separates nucleic acids and proteins based on size.
343
What are ghost cells?
RBCs in hypotonic urine
## Footnote
Ghost cells appear when red blood cells are lysed in dilute urine.
344
What is the main corticosteroid hormone?
Cortisol
## Footnote
Cortisol is involved in stress response and metabolism regulation.
345
What does a positive CEA indicate?
Carcinomas of the colorectal (colon), pancreas, breast, and stomach
## Footnote
CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen) is a tumor marker used in cancer diagnosis.
346
What type of bacteria are gram-negative coccobacilli that grow on chocolate agar?
H. influenzae
## Footnote
This bacterium can cause respiratory infections and meningitis.
347
How do bacteria move?
By flagellum
## Footnote
Flagella are whip-like structures that enable motility.
348
What concentration technique is used to look for parasites?
Sediment
## Footnote
This technique helps concentrate parasites in a sample.
349
What is a characteristic of pleural fluid sample exudate?
High protein
## Footnote
Exudate indicates inflammation or infection in the pleural space.
350
What is the most common type of laboratory error?
Preanalytical errors
## Footnote
These errors occur before the analysis of samples.
351
What causes air bubbles in tissue artifacts?
Poor floatation technique
## Footnote
This can lead to inadequate adherence of tissue to slides.
352
What is the temperature of the water bath during tissue processing?
10°C below the melting point of paraffin wax
## Footnote
This temperature is critical for effective embedding.
353
What is the most common type of urine cast?
Hyaline cast
## Footnote
Hyaline casts can be seen in normal and pathological conditions.
354
What cleaves C3 in the complement system?
C3 convertase
## Footnote
C3 convertase is essential for the activation of the complement pathway.
355
What condition is indicated by high thyroid hormone levels?
Hyperthyroidism
## Footnote
Hyperthyroidism leads to increased metabolism and various systemic effects.
356
What should a lab technician do after a needlestick injury?
Wash the wound
## Footnote
Immediate washing reduces the risk of infection.
357
What bacteria are catalase positive and coagulase positive?
S. aureus
## Footnote
S. aureus is a common pathogen responsible for various infections.
358
What methods are used for detecting chromosomal translocations?
FISH, cytogenetic analysis, karyotyping, DNA microarray, PCR, and immunohistochemistry (IHC)
## Footnote
These methods are essential in oncology for diagnosing specific cancers.
359
What blood group will a child have if the mother is blood group O and the father is blood group A?
Codominant expression
## Footnote
The child can inherit either A or O blood group alleles.
360
What is enriched media?
Medium containing natural proteins like blood, hemoglobin, serum, growth factors
## Footnote
Enriched media supports the growth of fastidious organisms.
361
What is the term for an overactive thyroid condition?
Hyperthyroidism
362
What should be done immediately after a lab technician sustains a needlestick injury?
Wash the wound
363
What bacteria is catalase positive and coagulase positive?
S. aureus
364
What methods are used to detect chromosomal translocations?
* FISH
* Cytogenetic analysis
* Karyotyping
* DNA microarray
* PCR
* Immunohistochemistry (IHC)
365
If a mother has blood group O and a father has blood group A, what is the inheritance pattern for their child?
Codominant
366
What is enriched media?
Medium containing natural proteins like blood, hemoglobin, serum, and growth factors
367
Which bacteria is known to cause bacillary dysentery?
Shigella
368
If a fresh blood sample is sent for a PT test and an APTT test is requested later, what should the technologist do?
Request a new sample for APTT
369
What test should be performed next for a 12-year-old girl with fatigue and positive RPR?
HIV test by ELISA
370
What is the primary hemoglobin in patients with thalassemia major?
Hgb F
371
How is the interaction strength between an antigen and antibody characterized?
Affinity
372
Which statement about urine collection for routine bacteriologic culture is inappropriate?
The sample may be held at 2°C—8°C for up to 48 hours prior to plating
373
Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?
Samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours
374
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?
Perform additional testing such as typing with anti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B
375
What can cause a brown or black pigment in urine?
* Gantrisin (Pyridium)
* Phenolsulfonphthalein
* Rifampin
* Melanin
376
What condition is suggested by a 1-year-old infant with recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising?
von Willebrand’s disease
377
Which typing results are most likely to occur when a patient has an acquired B antigen?
* Anti-A 4+
* Anti-B 3+
* A1 cells neg
* B cells neg
378
What does the Fc receptor bind?
Fc portion of antibody heavy chain
379
What is the critical cytotoxic lymphocyte in innate immunity?
Natural killer cell (NK cell)
380
What is anisocytosis?
High RDW
381
What is the structure of IgM?
Pentameric
382
Which immunoglobulin has the highest concentration in the serum?
IgG
383
Which bacteria are known to cause abortion?
* C. perfringens
* Bacteroides fragilis
* Brucella
* G. vaginalis
* N. gonorrhea
* L. monocytogenes
384
What is the Ag binding site of an antibody called?
Fab (paratop)
385
What are the steps of PCR?
* Denaturation
* Annealing
* Extension
386
What is the function of plasmin?
Fibrinolysis, removing fibrin deposits
387
What is a common marker of immature B and T cells?
tdt
388
What stains are used for sperm viability?
* Eosin
* Eosin-nigrosin
389
What condition is indicated by a patient with an 88-year-old history of ABO discrepancy?
Weak antibody reaction
390
What is the term for transplantation of cartilage from one person to another?
Allograft transplantation
391
How can one differentiate S. aureus from other staphylococci?
Coagulase test
392
What is the most suitable blood component for a patient with coagulation factors deficiency?
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
393
What is the reagent used in the indole test?
Kovacs reagent
394
Which type of leukemia is associated with basophilia?
CML
395
What enzyme catalyzes the cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b?
C3 convertase
396
What parasitic infection shows eosinophilia and larvae in stool without eggs?
Strongyloides stercoralis infection
397
What type of globulin is immunoglobulin?
Gamma globulin
398
What antibody is produced in the secondary immune response?
IgG
399
What antibody is produced in the primary immune response?
IgM
400
What is the most nitrogenous product in the body?
BUN, urea
401
What condition is characterized by proteinuria?
Nephrotic syndrome
402
Which coagulation factors are involved in contact activation?
* Factor XII
* PK
* HMWK
403
What is synovial fluid?
Fluid from the joints
404
What metabolic processes are involved in catabolism and anabolism?
Citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle)
405
What is Bence Jones protein tested for?
Heat test at 40-60 C
406
What is the primary method of differentiating between hyaline and waxy casts?
Refractivity
407
What stain is used for DNA?
Ethidium bromide
408
What is the last step in an ELISA?
Add substrate or stop solution
409
What is the second most common cause of fungal infection after Candida?
Aspergillus
410
What type of gloves are used for handling chemical bottles?
Nitrile gloves
411
What condition is indicated by a patient with lockjaw?
Tetanus
412
What protein is responsible for iron binding in the body?
Transferrin
413
What does CBAHI stand for?
Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Healthcare Institutions
414
What is the most common type of urine sample collected?
Random urine sample
415
What is the method for quantifying electrolytes?
Ion selective electrode (ISE)
416
What is the aeration requirement for Enterobacteriaceae?
Aerobic and anaerobic
417
What condition is Glanzmann disease associated with?
Defect in platelet aggregation
418
What are Kell antigens?
K, k antigens
419
What causes turbid semen?
Presence of WBCs
420
Which antigens show dosage effects?
* C, c
* E, e
* Fya, Fyb
* M, N
* S, s
* Ka, Kb
421
What is the most common type of H. influenzae?
Type B
422
What is the color of amorphous phosphate?
White, gray, colorless
423
What is the marker for alcoholic liver disease?
GGT
424
What is the marker of thyroid cancer?
Calcitonin
425
What is indicated by normal hemoglobin and normal MCV?
Normocytic/normochromic RBCs
426
Which organism is known to have no cell wall?
Mycoplasma
427
What should be done if a sample shows cold agglutination?
Warm at 37 C and rerun
428
What are the steps in tissue processing?
* Fixation
* Dehydration
* Clearing
* Impregnation
* Embedding and blocking
* Sectioning
* Staining
429
What is a potential cause of a wound that does not heal?
Factor XIII deficiency
430
What can cause gray patches around the cornea?
High cholesterol (familial hypercholesterolemia)
431
What extra abnormality might be seen in a vegetarian with ovalocytes and target cells?
Hypersegmented neutrophils
432
What condition is indicated by cottage cheese vaginal discharges?
Candida infection
433
What bacteria are associated with drinking raw sheep milk?
Brucella
434
What bacteria can cause a bacterial infection from uncooked rice?
Bacillus cereus
435
What is urease positive and found in stool?
Proteus
436
What test is prolonged in a patient treated with heparin?
APTT
437
What is the procedure for minor cross matching?
Patient cell + donor plasma
438
What is the procedure for major cross matching?
Patient plasma + donor cells
439
What is the RF marker in autoimmune diseases?
Rheumatoid arthritis
440
What are the age categories for children according to WHO?
* Neonate: birth to 1 month
* Infant: 1 month to 2 years
* Children: 2 to 12 years
441
What is required for AB negative blood type to receive FFP?
AB negative/positive
442
What type of bilirubin is elevated in obstructive jaundice?
Direct bilirubin
443
What is the confirmatory test for HIV?
Western Blot (WB)
444
What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid?
Na
445
What markers are associated with Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?
* CD5
* CD19
* CD23
446
What condition is characterized by the presence of giant platelets?
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
447
What is the primary function of neutrophils?
Phagocytosis
448
What does a positive catalase test indicate?
Positive in staphylococci, negative in streptococci
449
What are the three main steps in urine formation?
* Filtration
* Reabsorption
* Secretion
450
What is the immediate action after rescuing and activating an alarm in case of fire?
Contain fire + close doors
451
What is the null Duffy phenotype?
Fy(a-,b-)
452
What is the expected increase in hematocrit after a blood transfusion?
3%
453
What is prohibited from patient reports?
Intern students
454
What is the primary cause of atherosclerosis?
High LDL
455
What causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis?
Naegleria fowleri
456
What is the function of von Willebrand factor (vWF)?
Binds platelets to promote adhesion and stabilizes factor VIII
457
What condition is rickets associated with?
Vitamin D deficiency
458
What test is used for Group A and D streptococci?
PYR test
459
What is a sign of pinworm infection?
Perianal itching
460
What does the herpes simplex virus cause?
Painful lesions
461
What are the types of crossmatch?
* 2
* Minor
* Major
462
What is the age range for T cells in whole blood?
80%
463
What condition is characterized by a moon face or buffalo hump?
Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome)
464
What is the genotype for blood group A?
A0 or AA
465
What are the genes associated with genetic breast cancer?
* BRCA 1
* BRCA 2
* HER2
466
What causes Chicago disease?
Blastomyces (blastomycosis)
467
What is nitrocellulose used for?
Southern blotting
468
What represents the characteristic normal range?
Characteristic of 95% of values from a normal population
469
What is the practice of maintaining patient record confidentiality called?
Medical privacy
470
What does a positive D-dimer indicate?
DIC
471
How is the CK-MB index calculated?
CK-MB/CK x 100
472
What unit is used for reporting enzyme activity?
Activity unit
473
What is the method for bacterial identification and sensitivity testing?
Micro scan walk way
474
What components are found in Coombs reagent?
Anti-human globulin antibody against IgG and C3d
475
What type of filter is used in laboratories?
HEPA filter
476
What is the basal brain gland?
Pituitary gland
477
What parameter is used for measuring erythropoiesis?
Reticulocyte count
478
What organism is identified by a trophozoite with ingested RBCs?
E. histolytica
479
What is the marker for T-helper cells?
CD4
480
What immunohistochemistry test is performed for adenocarcinoma from breast tissue?
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
481
What condition is indicated by abdominal pain and diarrhea with a positive string test?
Giardia
482
What test should be performed for a woman with joint pain and deformity?
Rheumatoid Factor (RF)
483
What condition is indicated by the presence of ketone bodies?
Ketoacidosis
484
What is associated with lupus anticoagulant?
Prolonged APTT
485
What does the Elek test detect?
C. diphtheriae
486
What causes a fruity odor in urine?
Acetone
487
What does GVHD stand for?
Graft-versus-host disease
488
What stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol and aldosterone?
ACTH
489
What is the function of PCO in the body?
Maintain pH
490
What organ uses the most glucose in the body?
Brain
491
What enzyme indicates hepatocellular disease?
ALT
492
What are the needle tip crystals indicative of alkaline urine?
Calcium phosphate
493
What bacteria causes green pigment on MacConkey agar?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
494
What is the most common bacteria causing food poisoning?
* S. saprophyticus
* S. epidermidis
* S. aureus
* Micrococcus
495
What should be the doctor's action if a patient has a positive RPR and unprotected sex?
Screening test should be followed by a confirmatory test
496
What bacteria is responsible for whooping cough?
Bordetella pertussis
497
Which fungus can be seen by dark field microscopy and Indian ink?
C. neoformans
498
What process is used for dehydrating tissue?
Alcohol
499
What is the purpose of the trypsin and Giemsa staining?
Chromosomal studies
500
What condition is indicated by three missing alpha genes?
Hb-H disease
501
PCR for HIV?
RNA amplification.
502
Patient with null kidd he has what Ab
Anti-k3.
503
Blood group system destroyed by routine Blood bank enzymes
Duffy (Fya, Fyb).
504
In the room temperature there is 2+ reaction but in 37C and AHG phases there is no reaction what anti-body is suspected to present?
Cold Ab.
505
Urine type for culture?
Mid clean catch MSU.
506
T P H A principle?
Sheep RBCs or gel particles sensitized with Tpallidum sonicate.
507
How to solve rouleaux formation problem?
Saline replacement technique.
508
if patent has respiratory acidosis what is the urine pH
Below 5.5, acidic.
509
Bacteria cause endocarditis?
Viridans (vancomycin sensitive), enterococci (vancomycin resistance).
510
Sickle cell anemia substitution?
A to T
511
Women with first child and has a cat
Toxoplasmosis.
512
Confirmatory test for pheochromorcytoma?
Catecholamine in urine (24h).
513
Microaerophilic organism?
Campylobacter jejuni, Helicobacter pylori
514
Smallest amount that cause death?
Poison
515
Usually seen in the female urine, young sexually a c t i v e females?
S. saprophyticus
516
Sterilization?
Autoclave
517
Correct about PT?
Stable for 24 h if capped
518
Acquired B found in?
A and AB group
519
CD marker during the first stage of T cell?
CD2
520
Spiral hyphae?
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
521
Nocturnal parasite?
• W. bancrofti, B. malayi, B. timori
• Note loa loa with diurnal periodicity
• M. perstans and M. ozzardi are nocturnal and diurnal (no periodicity)
522
Stain for trypanosoma?
Giemsa stain
523
Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody?
Duffy, M. N, S
524
Wood lamp
Fungal examination.
525
White Piedra?
• Trichosporon spp
• Note that black Piedra caused by Piedraia hortae
526
Neutralizing acidic spill?
Backing soda
527
Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by activation of factor VI ?
Tissue factor
528
Which of the following clotting factors plays a role in clot formation in vitro, but not in vivo? in vitro clot formation and not in vivo coagulation?
Xlla
529
Which results would be expected for the prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) in a patient with polycythemia?
Both prolonged
530
What reagents are used in the PT test?
Thromboplastin and calcium
531
A modification of which procedure can be used to measure fibrinogen?
Thrombin time
532
Which of the following characterizes vitamin K?
It is required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of some coagulation
factors
533
Which statement about the fibrinogen/fibrin degradation product test is correct?
It detects late degradation products (D and E)
534
Which of the following clotting factors are measured by the APTT test?
XlI, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, Il, l
535
Which coagulation tests) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-deficient patient?
PT and APTT.
536
Which of the following is correct regarding the international normalized ratio (INR)?
It standardizes PT results
537
Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous activator of
plasminogen?
Tissue plasminogen activator
538
A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is?
Factor I
539
In primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity results in response to?
Spontaneous activation of fibrinolysis
540
Which of the following clotting factors are activated by thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF-VIla)?
V and Vlll
541
Which of the following antibodies is used in the D-dimer assay?
Monoclonal against D-dimer
542
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by?
Increased platelet aggregation
543
Thrombocytopenia may be associated with?
Hypersplenism
544
Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which
enzyme?
Cyclo-oxygenase
545
Normal platelet adhesion depends upon?
Glycoprotein Ib
546
Which of the following test results is normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand's disease?
Platelet count
547
Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with?
Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets
548
When performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggregation results would most likely be associated with Bernard-Soulier syndrome?
Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine; decreased aggregation to Ristocetin
549
Which set of platelet responses would be most likely associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?
Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine
550
Which of the following is a characteristic of acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura?
Spontaneous remission within a few weeks
551
TTP differs from DIC in that?
APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC
552
Which of the following is associated with post-transfusion purpura (PTP)?
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia/ alloantibodies
553
Storage pool deficiencies are defects of
Platelet granules
554
Lumi-aggregation measures?
Platelet aggregation and ATP release
555
Neurological findings may be commonly associated with which of the
following disorders?
TTP
556
Which of the following is correct regarding acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Autoimmune disease
557
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of?
Connective tissue
558
Which of the following prevents platelet aggregation?
Prostacyclin
559
Which defect characterizes Gray's syndrome?
Alpha granule defect
560
The P2Y12 ADP receptor agonist assay may be used to monitor platelet aggregation inhibition to which of the following drugs?
Clopidogrel (Plavix).
561
Which of the following instruments can be used to evaluate platelet function
A. Platelet aggregometer B. VerifyNow C. PFA-100 D. Al of the above.
562
Which of the following platelet aggregating agents demonstrates a monophasic aggregation curve when used in optimal concentration?
Collagen
563
Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?
Immunologic fibrinogen level.
564
Which of the following is a characteristic of classic hemophilia A?
Mild to severe bleeding episodes.
565
Refer to the following results: PT = prolonged APTT = prolonged, Platelet
count = decreased. Which disorder may be indicated?
DIC
566
Which of the following is a predisposing condition for the development of DIC?
Adenocarcinoma
567
The following results were obtained on a patient: normal platelet count and function, normal PT, and prolonged APTT. Which of the following disorders si most consistent with these results?
Hemophilia A.
568
The following laboratory results were obtained from a 40-year-old woman: PT = 20 sec; APTT = 50 sec; thrombin time = 18 sec. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
Hypofibrinogenemia
569
The most suitable product for treatment of factor VI deficiency is?
• Factor VIII concentrate
570
Which of the following is associated with an abnormal platelet aggregation test
Afibrinogenemia.
571
Refer to the following results: PT =normal APTT =prolonged, Bleeding time= increased, Platelet count = normal Platelet aggregation to ristocetin = abnormal Which of the following disorders may be indicated?
von Willebrand's disease
572
Which results are associated with hemophilia A?
Prolonged APTT, normal PT
573
Patient History A3-year-old male was admitted to a hospital with scattered petechiae and epistaxis. The patient had normal growth and had no other medical problems except for chickenpox 3 weeks earlier. His family history was unremarkable. PT: 1 sec, PTT: 32 sec, platelets count: 18x103⁄4L.
ІТР
574
Patient History A 12-year-old white male has the following symptoms: visible bruising on arms and legs, bruising after sports activities, and excessive postoperative hemorrhage following tonsillectomy 3 months ago. His family history revealed that his mother suffers from heavy menstrual bleeding, and his maternal grandfather had recurrent nosebleeds and bruising.
Von Willebrand disease
575
The following laboratory results were obtained on a 25-year-old woman with menorrhagia after delivery of her second son. The patient has no previous bleeding history. Normal platelet count; normal bleeding time; normal PT;
prolonged APTT Mixing of the patient's plasma with normal plasma corrected the prolonged APTT on immediate testing. However, mixing followed by 2-hour incubation at 37°C caused a prolonged APTT. What is the most probable cause of these laboratory results?
Factor VIll inhibitor
576
A62-year-old female presents with jaundice and the following laboratory data: Peripheral blood smear: macrocytosis, target cells, Platelet count: 355 x 109/L PT: 25 sec (reference range =10-14) APTT: 65 sec (reference range = 28-
36) Transaminases: elevated (AST:ALT> 1) Total and direct bilirubin: elevated. These clinical presentations and laboratory results are consistent with?
Cirrhosis of the liver
577
Aplasma sample submitted to the lab for PT testing has been stored for 25 hours at 4°C. The PT result is shortened. What is the most probable cause?
Activation of factor VIll due to exposure to cold temperature
578
The APTT results are not elevated in a patient receiving heparin. Which of the following factors may be associated with the lack of response to heparin therapy in this patient?
Antithrombin deficiency
579
A50-year-old patient was admitted to the emergency department complaining of pain in her right leg. Her leg was red, swollen, and warm to the touch. Deep venous thrombosis was suspected, and the patient was started on heparin therapy. Which of the following is (are) the proper protocol to evaluate patients receiving heparin therapy?
A baseline APTT and platelet count; APTT testing every 6 hours until the target is reached.
580
A30-year-old female was referred to the hospital for evaluation for multiple spontaneous abortions and current complaint of pain and swelling in her right leg. Her family history is unremarkable.
Lupus anticoagulant.
581
A60-year-old patient was admitted to a hospital for a liver biopsy. The biopsy was scheduled for 11:00 a.m. The coagulation results performed at the time of admission revealed a prolonged PT with an INR of 4.5. What is the physician's most appropriate course of action?
Cancel the procedure and start the patient on vitamin K therapy
582
Which of the following clotting factors are measured by the APTT test
Xll Xl lX Vlll X V ll l
583
Normal platelets count and function, normal PT, prolonged APTT ?
Hemophilia A
584
Which drug may be associated with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Oral contraceptives.
585
Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c
r ‘ ry
586
What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C antibody
rr
587
AAA (acetoacetic acid is detected in urine by reaction with?
Sodium nitroprusside.
588
Which of the following statements regarding the dry reagent strip test for bilirubin is true?
The test detects only conjugated bilirubin
589
Which of the following conditions is associated with a high level of S-type amylase?
Mumps
590
What is the most likely cause of the following CSF results?
Glucose: 20 mg/dL, protein: 200 mg/dL, lactate: 50 mg/dL (normal 5-25 mg/dL
Acute bacterial meningitis
591
Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following except?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
592
Four units of packed RBCs were brought to the nurses' station at 10:20 a.m. Two units were transfused immediately, and 1 unit was transfused at 10:40 a.m. The remaining unit was returned to the blood bank at 11:00 a.m. The units were
not refrigerated after leaving the blood bank. What problem(s) is (are) present in this situation?
The only problem is with the returned unit; the 30-minute limit has expired, and the unit cannot be used
593
What should be done fi all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?
Wash the cells with warm saline,autoadsorb the serum at 4°C
594
Which laboratory test is affected by heparin therapy
Thrombin time
595
Apatient's red cells forward as group O, serum agglutinates Bcells (4+) only. Your next step would be:
Incubate washed red cells with anti-A1 and anti-A,B for 30 minutes at room
temperature
596
Al of the following are characteristic findings in a patient with iron deficiency anemia except
Increased RBC protoporphyrin
597
Which antibodies to a component of complement are contained in the rabbit polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent for detection of in vivo sensitization?
Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
598
Plasma or serum treatment with DT (dithiothreitol/thiol reagent) for?
• Dissolves and eliminate the activity of IgM antibody, so testing of IgM will
be negative.
• And eliminate Kel antigen, LW, Lutheran, JMH and Yta antigen.
599
Howell-Jolly Bodies seen in?
Splenectomy or in hyposplenism/Asplenia (non-functioning spleen).
600
Immunoglobulin with shortest half-life?
IgE ( 1 to 5 days)
601
Which o the following not related to liver enzymes
Ck
602
Increase in which electrolyte will leads to cardiac arrest?
Hyperkalemia (K).
603
Increase in which electrolyte will leads to cardiac arrest?
Hyperkalemia (K).
