property Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following would most likely NOT create a fee simple?

A

“To P”

“To P and his heirs”

Correct Answer: “To P for life”

“To P in hopes that she gives the land to F upon her death”

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2
Q

FILL IN THE BLANKS. A future interest in a third party that divests a prior vested interest in a grantor is a ____________. A future interest in a third party that divests a prior vested interest in a grantee is a __________.

A

vested remainder, shifting executory interest

vested remainder, springing executory interest

Correct Answer: springing executory interest, shifting executory interest

shifting executory interest, springing executory interest

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT required to establish an implied reciprocal servitude?

A

You Selected: Negative restriction

Correct Answer: Writing

Notice

Common plan or scheme

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4
Q

Which of the following statements regarding an equitable servitude is FALSE?

A

An equitable servitude may be unenforceable when there has been a drastic change in circumstances.

An equitable servitude can be terminated the same ways as an easement can be terminated.

Equitable servitudes and implied reciprocal servitudes can be terminated upon merger of title.

Correct Answer: The remedy for breach of an equitable servitude is damages.

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5
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a real covenant is FALSE?

A

A covenant must be in writing.

A covenant is subject to state recording statutes.

Correct Answer: To be bound by the covenant, a successor party must intend that the benefit or burden run with the land.

You Selected: To bind a successor to the promise, the original parties must intend that the covenant run with the land.

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6
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the running of benefits and burdens with the land is FALSE?

A

Correct Answer: For the benefit to run with the land, both horizontal and vertical privity are required.

For the benefit to run with the land, “relaxed” vertical privity is required.

For the burden to run with the land, both horizontal and vertical privity are required.

For the burden to run with the land, both horizontal and vertical privity are required and the vertical privity must be strict vertical privity.

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7
Q

Which of the following statements regarding privity is FALSE?

A

In order for the burden to run, the original parties must have been in horizontal privity.

Correct Answer: In order for the benefit to run, the original parties must have been in horizontal privity.

For the successor to property to be burdened by the covenant, the successor must take the original party’s entire interest.

The relationship between an original party to a conveyance agreement and his successor to the property is one of strict vertical privity if the successor takes the original party’s entire interest.

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8
Q

Regarding vertical privity, which of the following will run when the successor takes less than the original party’s entire interest in the property?

A

You Selected: The burden

Correct Answer: The benefit

Both the burden and the benefit

Neither the burden nor the benefit

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9
Q

Which of the following statements regarding termination of easements is FALSE?

A

You Selected: A written statement by the holder of the easement to the effect that he is releasing the easement is sufficient to terminate the easement.

Correct Answer: An easement may be terminated by non-use coupled with detrimental reliance by the holder.

An easement is terminated if the owner of the easement acquired fee title to the underlying estate.

An easement by prescription can be terminated if the easement holder fails to protect his easement against the servient estate owner for a statutory length of time.

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10
Q

Which of the following statements regarding express easements is FALSE?

A

A negative easement must be express, but an express easement need not be a negative easement.

An express easement may be recorded.

You Selected: An express easement is subject to the Statute of Frauds.

Correct Answer: An easement by prescription is a type of express easement that is subject to the Statute of Frauds.

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11
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the effect of foreclosure on various parties is FALSE?

A

In some states, a mortgagor can reclaim the property after a foreclosure sale.

Absent assertion of a statutory right of redemption by the mortgagor, the purchaser of property at a foreclosure sale takes the property free and clear of any junior mortgage and subject to any senior mortgage.

You Selected: A statutory redemption nullifies the foreclosure sale and restores title to the mortgagor.

Correct Answer: A purchaser who buys property at a foreclosure sale takes the property subject to any junior mortgage.

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12
Q

Which of the following statements regarding lien states and title states is FALSE?

A

In a minority of states, granting a mortgage converts a joint tenancy into a tenancy-in-common.

You Selected: A mortgage is treated as a lien that does not sever a joint tenancy in the majority of states.

In the majority of states, the mortgagee is treated as the holder of lien on the real property interest that is security for the debt.

Correct Answer: In a “title state,” granting a mortgage interest has no effect on a joint tenancy.

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13
Q

FILL IN THE BLANKS. A(n) __________ operates like a mortgage, but uses a trustee to hold title for the benefit of the lender. A(n) __________ is when the mortgagor transfers the deed to the property instead of conveying a security interest in exchange for the loan.

A

absolute deed; deed of trust

deed of trust; installment land contract

installment land contract; absolute deed

Correct Answer: deed of trust; absolute deed

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14
Q

Which of the following statements regarding liability of a subsequent transferee is TRUE?

A

If the buyer assumes the mortgage, the lender may seek payment only from the buyer for payment of the debt.

Correct Answer: If the buyer assumes the mortgage, the lender may seek payment from both the original debtor and the buyer for payment of the debt.

You Selected: If the buyer takes “subject to” an existing mortgage, then the buyer is personally liable upon default.

If the deed is silent as to liability, then the transferee is considered to have assumed the mortgage.

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15
Q

Which of the following statements about the transfer of real property by a decedent is FALSE?

A

Correct Answer: Property that is transferred by will is said to be devised to the testator’s heirs.

You Selected: To be an heir, a person must take by intestate succession.

Property of one who dies without a will is distributed pursuant to applicable state law.

If the decedent dies without a will and without heirs, his property escheats to the state.

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16
Q

If a testator’s will provides for a gift of property, but the testator sells that property before she dies, the devise is invalidated by which of the following?

A

Doctrine of lapse

Correct Answer: Doctrine of ademption

Anti-lapse statute

Satisfaction

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17
Q

FILL IN THE BLANKS. The _________ holds legal title to the trust property. The ___________ holds equitable title to the property held in trust.

A

settlor, beneficiary

Correct Answer: trustee, beneficiary

beneficiary, settlor

beneficiary, trustee

18
Q

In a jurisdiction with a race-notice statute, which of the following purchasers is entitled to retain the property?

A

You Selected: A subsequent purchaser who bought the property with notice of the prior purchase, but who records her deed before the prior purchaser

A subsequent purchaser who bought the property with notice of the prior purchase, regardless of when she records her deed

Correct Answer: A subsequent purchaser who bought the property without notice of the prior purchase, provided that the subsequent purchaser records first

A subsequent purchaser who bought the property without notice of the prior purchase, even if the prior purchaser records first

19
Q

“No conveyance or mortgage of real property shall be good against subsequent purchasers for value and without notice who shall first record” is an example of language that would be seen in which of the following types of statute?

A

Inquiry notice statute

You Selected: Notice statute

Correct Answer: Race-notice statute

Race statute

20
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the special rules applied to deeds is FALSE?

A

The doctrine of estoppel by deed prevents someone who knowingly transfers land by deed before they have good title from trying to reclaim land based on that defect.

Correct Answer: The doctrine of estoppel by deed arises when a person takes from a bona fide purchaser protected by the recording act.

Under the Shelter Rule, the rights of a person who takes from a bona fide purchaser protected by the recording act are sheltered by his grantor’s rights.

In a notice statute state, a subsequent purchaser with notice of a prior conveyance will still be protected by the state’s recording act if his grantor was a bona fide purchaser protected by the recording act.

21
Q

Which of the following statements regarding adverse possession is TRUE?

A

Correct Answer: Government-owned land cannot be adversely possessed.

An adverse possessor who enters property with permission of the owner can constructively possess a portion of the land.

To be hostile, an adverse possessor’s use of the property must be disruptive and unpleasant to the true owner.

A hidden use of the property by an adverse possessor is sufficient to satisfy the open and notorious requirement.

22
Q

In most jurisdictions, which of the following statements regarding the hostility requirement for adverse possession is TRUE?

A

The adverse possessor must act in bad faith.

The adverse possessor must act in good faith.

The adverse possessor must believe the land is unowned.

Correct Answer: The adverse possessor’s state of mind is not considered.

23
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the transfer of a deed is TRUE?

A

The grantor or his agent must physically deliver the deed to the grantee.

Correct Answer: The grantee is generally presumed to have accepted the deed, provided the transfer is for value.

You Selected: A grantor must intend to make a future transfer of a property interest to the grantee at the time of transfer.

The grantor’s intent must be explicit.

24
Q

Which of the following statements regarding contingent and vested remainders is FALSE?

A

Correct Answer: The Rule Against Perpetuities does not apply to contingent remainders.

The Rule Against Perpetuities applies to a vested remainder subject to open.

A remainder is contingent if it is subject to a condition precedent.

A remainder is contingent if it is created in a grantee that is not ascertained.

25
Under the Doctrine of Worthier Title, a conveyance by a grantor of “to A for life, then to my heirs” creates what type of interest in the grantor’s heirs?
Executory interest Contingent remainder You Selected: Vested remainder Correct Answer: No interest
26
Which of the following statements regarding the Rule Against Perpetuities is FALSE?
The Rule Against Perpetuities does not apply to a property interest that passes from one charity to another charity. Correct Answer: The Rule Against Perpetuities does not apply to a property interest that passes from one charity to a non-charity. The Rule Against Perpetuities does not apply to an option held by a current tenant to purchase a fee interest in leasehold property. The Rule Against Perpetuities does not apply to right of first refusal in a commercial transaction.
27
Which of the following statements regarding a joint tenancy is FALSE?
Joint tenants each have the right to use the whole property. Correct Answer: Joint tenancy is the default concurrent interest. A surviving joint tenant automatically takes a deceased joint tenant’s interest. You Selected: If a living joint tenant transfers all or part of his joint tenancy interest, then the right of survivorship to that interest is destroyed.
28
Which of the following statements regarding a tenancy in common is TRUE?
The maximum number of tenants in common is three. Tenants in common cannot possess unequal shares of the property. Correct Answer: Any conveyance to more than one person is presumed to be a tenancy in common. A tenancy in common is freely transferable during the tenant-in-common’s life, but cannot be transferred at death.
29
Which unity is NOT unique to a joint tenancy, but instead is also a characteristic of a tenancy in common?
Unity of time Unity of title You Selected: Unity of interest Correct Answer: Unity of possession
30
Which of the following statements regarding tenancy by the entirety is FALSE?
Ownership of property through a tenancy by the entirety is restricted to married couples. You Selected: Joint tenants by the entirety must be married when the conveyance occurs. Neither party to a tenancy by the entirety can encumber the property without the consent of the other. Correct Answer: Tenancy by the entirety is a joint tenancy between married persons with no right of survivorship.
31
Which of the following statements regarding partition is TRUE?
Correct Answer: Tenants in common as well as joint tenants generally have a right to compel partition. Agreements by co-tenants not to partition are not enforceable. Tenants by the entirety have the unilateral right to partition. You Selected: Property may be partitioned in kind (i.e., physical division) if a partition by sale is not practical or not fair to all parties.
32
In a real property transaction, the baseline choice of law rule to be applied is based upon which of the following?
The state where the transaction was negotiated. Correct Answer: The state where the property is located. The state where the dispute arose. The state where the parties reside.
33
Which of the following would NOT end a tenancy at will?
The death of the landlord The death of the tenant Correct Answer: The expiration of a reasonable time You Selected: The tenant gives a termination notice to the landlord without good cause
34
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the tenant to be relieved of the duty to pay rent due to constructive eviction?
Correct Answer: The lease premises must be residential. The property must be wholly or substantially unusable. The tenant must inform the landlord of the problem and give the landlord an opportunity to correct it. The tenant must leave the premises within a reasonable time.
35
Which of the following statements regarding the implied warranty of habitability is TRUE?
The implied warranty of habitability can be waived by the tenant. Correct Answer: In order for the implied warranty of habitability to constitute a basis for withholding rent, the tenant must notify the landlord of the problem. The implied warranty of habitability applies to commercial as well as residential leases. If the premises are not habitable, then the tenant may withhold rent, but must vacate the premises.
36
FILL IN THE BLANKS. Only the _________ tenant is responsible to the landlord for the payment of rent when the original tenant has _________ the premises to the current tenant.
Correct Answer: original, sublet current, sublet original, assigned current, assigned
37
Which of the following statements regarding land sale contracts is TRUE?
Correct Answer: After property is conveyed by deed, the transferee cannot enforce a provision in the contract of sale. A buyer, but not a seller, can seek specific performance of a contract to sell real property. You Selected: To be enforceable, a land sale contract must always be in writing, signed by either party, and contain all of the essential terms. The price of the property is not an essential term that must be included in the land sale contract.
38
Which of the following would NOT constitute an encumbrance that would prevent a seller from delivering marketable title to a buyer?
Easement Mortgage Zoning violation Correct Answer: Title acquired by adverse possession that has been quieted
39
Which of the following statements regarding the covenant of marketable title is TRUE?
The seller must provide the buyer with a title that is free from any risk of litigation. Correct Answer: The seller must cure the defective title before closing. There is a subjective standard applied to determine whether a title is marketable. The implied covenant of marketable title only applies to some land sale contracts.
40
Which of the following statements regarding “nuisance” is FALSE?
The usual remedy for a nuisance is damages. Correct Answer: In a private nuisance, a substantial interference is more than merely offensive or annoying to the average person in the community. To recover for a public nuisance, a plaintiff must show that she suffered a different kind of harm than that suffered by the rest of the community. You Selected: In a private nuisance, the interference is unreasonable if the injury caused outweighs the usefulness of the defendant’s actions.
41
Which of the following statements regarding water rights is FALSE?
Correct Answer: Under the riparian rights doctrine, the first to use the water has the rights to the water. Under the riparian rights doctrine, water belongs to the landowner bordering the waterway. Under prior appropriation, rights can be obtained by beneficial use of water on another’s land. Under prior appropriation, any productive use is a beneficial use.
42
Which of the following statements regarding lateral support rights is TRUE?
The owner of land is strictly liable for subsidence on a neighbor’s land caused by excavating on his own land if the neighbor’s surface buildings contribute to the subsidence. The owner of land may be liable in negligence for subsidence on a neighbor’s land caused by excavating on his own land if the neighbor’s surface buildings do not contribute to the subsidence. Correct Answer: The owner of land may be liable in negligence when the owner’s actions cause a cave in on a neighbor’s land if the neighbor’s surface buildings contributed to the cave in. Lateral support rights are those of the owner of the mineral rights to the land.