Prostate Cancer Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

What is the key enzyme involved in biosynthesis of testosterone?

A

CYP17A1

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2
Q

List the risk factors for prostate cancer. (3)

A

age > 60; african-american; family history

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3
Q

What are the two screening modalities used for prostate cancer?

A

Digital rectal exam (DRE) & prostate specific antigen (PSA)

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4
Q

What PSA level is highly suspicious for malignancy?

A

> 10 ng/mL

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5
Q

What PSA velocity is highly suspicious for malignancy?

A

> 0.75 ng/mL increase over the course of a year

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6
Q

At what age should men begin annual prostate screenings?

A

50

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7
Q

How do most patients with prostate cancer present?

A

asymptomatic

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8
Q

Where does prostate cancer metasasize to? (3)

A

bone (most common); lung; liver

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9
Q

A high gleason score signifies ______.

A

more poorly differentiated tumor with higher risk of recurrence

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10
Q

What are the treatment options for localized prostate cancer? (4)

A

observation; active surveillance; radiation therapy; prostatectomy

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11
Q

What does observation entail? Is the therapy palliative or curative?

A

monitor PSA and DRE every 6 months; palliative therapy

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12
Q

What does active surveillance entail? Is the therapy palliative or curative?

A

monitor PSA, DRE, & symptoms; curative therapy

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13
Q

What is external beam radiation?

A

radiation from the outside coming in

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14
Q

What is brachytherapy radiation?

A

a radiation implant that is placed near the prostate

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15
Q

In what patient population would you recommend radiation therapy?

A

patients with a high Gleason score (higher risk of recurrence)

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16
Q

What are the guidelines for ADT in patients getting radiation therapy?

A

start ADT prior to radiation therapy, then continue during and for 1-3 years after

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17
Q

What is the only definitive curative surgery for prostate cancer?

A

radical prostatectomy

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18
Q

When would you initiate ADT in M0-HSPC?

A

if PSA doubling time is less than 6 months

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19
Q

What surgical procedure can be done in M0-HSPC?

A

orchiectomy (removal of testes)

20
Q

What are the LHRH agonists? (4)

A

leuprolide; goserelin; triptorelin; hiterelin

21
Q

List the acute toxicities of LHRH antagonists. (5)

A

tumor flare; gynecomastia; hot flashes; erectile dysfunction; edema

22
Q

List the two main chronic toxicities of LHRH antagonists.

A

osteoporosis; cardiovascular events

23
Q

Definition: toxicity that occurs in metastatic patients where their symptoms worsen during initial treatment with LHRH agonist

24
Q

What can be administered during the first week of LHRH agonist treatment to prevent tumor flare?

A

an anti-androgen

25
How does intermittent ADT work?
PSA is constantly monitored; ADT is discontinued once PSA drops to desired baseline; ADT is restarted at a pre-defined PSA level
26
What is the advantage of intermittent ADT? (2)
decreased cost; decreased side effects
27
What is the LHRH antagonist?
degarelix
28
Does tumor flare occur with LHRH antagnonists?
no
29
How long does it take to see the drop in testosterone with LHRH antagonists?
7 days
30
What therapy is included in an M0CRPC regimen?
LHRH agonist + anti-androgen
31
What are the anti-androgen options? (3)
enzalutamide; apalutamide; darolutamide
32
What drug should not be given with enzalutamide?
prednisone
33
What are two main toxicities of enzalutamide?
seizures; enzalutamide syndrome
34
What is enzalutamide syndrome? (3)
foggy; unclear thinking; fatigue
35
What are two main toxicities of apalutamide?
seizures; QT prolongation
36
What is a benefit of using darolutamide?
less toxicities
37
What regimen is used in low volume M1HSPC?
LHRH antagonists; abiraterone + prednisone
38
Why must abiraterone be administered with prednisone?
to prevent renal insufficiency
39
How does abiraterone work?
it selectively and irreversibly inhibits CYP17
40
What regimen is used in high volume M1HSPC?
docetaxel + ADT
41
What is first line for M1CRPC?
docetaxel + prednisode
42
What is second line for M1CRPC?
cabazitaxel + prednisone
43
What is used to treat bone metastases?
radium 223 chloride
44
How does radium 223 chloride work?
it forms complexes with bone mineral in areas with increased bone turnover, leading to DNA strand breaks and an antitumor effect on bone mets
45
What drugs are used for palliation of pain due to bone mets? (2)
bisphosphonates; RANK-L inhibitors
46
What drug is used for cancers which express dMMR or MSI-H characteristics?
pembrolizumab