prostate cancer Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

what is the most common malignancy in men?

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 4 zones of the prostate?

A
  • 4 main zones: peripheral (posterior), fibromuscular (anterior), central (central) and transitional zone (surrounding urethra)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the RF for prostate cancer?

A
  • Age >50
  • Black
  • Family history of prostate cancer
  • Family history of heritable cancers eg breast or colorectal
  • High levels of dietary fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what symptoms can be seen with prostate cancer?

A

asymptomatic - incidentally picked up
lower urinary tract symptoms
: haematuria, haematospermia, weight loss, weakness, fatigue, bone pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why might bone pain occur with prostate cancer?

A

likely to met in bones especially hip/ pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are lower urinary tract symptoms?

A

frequency, uregency, nocturia and hesitancy, dysuria and post void dribbling are most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are important aspects of history to ask about?

A
  • Past medical history including hospitalisation, surgical procedures and history of pelvic radiation
  • Medications
  • Family history: prostate cancer in a first degree relative under 65 and breast cancer  BRCA2 gene
  • Social: alcohol intake, smoking (affects prognosis) and recreational drug use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what would a DRE examination reveal to indicate PC?

A

asymmetrical prostate, nodular and indurated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what regions of the prostate can a DRE palpate?

A

may only detect in posterior and lateral aspects due to be only palpable regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are differentials of PC?

A

BPH
chronic prostatitis
urethral instrumentation
UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how would you differentiate between BPH and PC?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia: DRE  enlarged but symmetrical
- Biopsy would differentiate between

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how would you differentiate chronic prostatitis and PC?

A

Chronic prostatitis: symptoms develop over 3mths to a 1yr
- Microscopy of prostate secretions reveal leukocytes and inflammation
- PSA mildly elevated
- Will resolve with antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what would point more towards urethral instrumentation?

A

history of recent intervention will temporary elevate PSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what can elevate PSA?

A

cancer, BPH, prostatitis, UTI (avoid testing for 6weeks after0, VIGROUS EXERCISE, sexual activity (avoid ejaculation for 48hrs before test), DRE- avoid for 7days prior to test, catheter – avoid 6weeks before test, biopsy – avoid for 6weeks prior to test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can U&Es show while investigating PC?

A

cancer may obstruct ureters leading to hydronephrosis and kidney dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what scale is used for a multiparametric MRI?

A
  • Multiparametric MRI: if PSA indicates, gives a 5point likert scale  biopsy required in those with 3+
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why would you do a DEZA scan?

18
Q

why would you do a CT abdo, pelvis?

19
Q

what is a PSMA PET used for?

A
  • PSMA PET for detecting mets in those with low PSA
20
Q

what methods can be used for a prostate biopsy?

A
  • Template transperineally biopsy under GA
  • Transperineal biopsy under LA
  • Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) guided needle biopsy
  • MRI- TRUS fusion guided needle biopsy
  • PSA -membrane PET scan is most sensitive for detecting recurrent disease
21
Q

how is PC graded?

A

gleason grading

22
Q

can biopsy miss diagnosis of PC?

23
Q

what are the advantages of PSA screening?

A
  • Improved prognosis by early detection
  • Less radical treatment due to early curing
  • Reassurance to those with negative results
24
Q

what are the disadvantages of screening?

A
  • Anxiety and morbidity with false positives
  • Unnecessary intervention with false positives
  • ## Hazards of screening eg radiation
25
what is normal PSA levels?
0-4ng/ml
26
how would you manage low risk PC?
watchful waiting active surveillance
27
what is watchful waiting?
no treatment but regular DRE and PSA tests  any significant changes, palliative care may be initiated
28
what is active surveillance?
surveillance (intent for curative treatment but delayed): regular DRE, PSA tests and often prostate biopsies  any change hormonal, radiotherapy, surgery may be initiated
29
what management options are available for intermediate risk of PC?
active surveillance surgery
30
what are the surgical options of PC?
radical prostateectomy external beam radiotherapy brachytherapy
31
what occurs during a radical prostatectomy?
removal of prostate through open, laproscopic or robot assisted approaches
32
what is external beam radiotherapy?
beams of radiation are targeted to cancer cell sin prostate and therapy is given for 7-8weeks
33
what is brachytherapy?
permanent implantation of small beads of radiation into prostate gland  shrinks tumours
34
what management options are available for high risk PC?
- Active surveillance - Radical prostatectomy - External beam radiation + hormone therapy
35
what options can be used in hormone therapy?
- Gonadotrophin releasing hormone: GnRH antagonist  less testosterone (shrink gland and associated malignancy) - Androgen receptor antagonists: bicalutamide and flutamide  less androgen driven malignancy growth
36
what side effects can occur with hormone therapy?
hot flushes, decreased bone density, fractures, low libido, erectile dsyfucntion, altered lipids and more
37
how can a bilateral orchiectomy be used to manage PC?
removal of testicles which starves prostate of testosterone
38
why is oestrogen therapy not used in practice alot?
not used as frequently  decreases testosterone ( side effects: breast enlargement and venous thromboembolism)
39
what are the side effects of radical therapy?
- Dysuria - Urinary frequency - Urinary incontinence - Rectal bleeding/ proctitis (mainly with radiotherapy) - Erectile dysfunction  may be caused surgery or androgen deprivation therapy
40