Protein Synthesis Chap 39,40 Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

What is tRNA?

A

tRNA molecules are all different, but similar.
All are a single RNA strand that folds into defined tertiary structure.
tRNA contain 4 base-paired regions and three loops well define loops.

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2
Q

What does the 3’-terminus have?

A

A 5’-CCA-3’ sequence.

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3
Q

What codes for the amino acid in the protein?

A

Each triplet of bases on the mRNA strand codes for an amino acid.

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4
Q

Why is protein synthesis called translation?

A

because the four letter alphabet of nucleic acids is translated into the entirely different 20-letter alphabet of proteins.

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5
Q

What is the genetic code and what does it do?

A

It is the relation between the sequence of bases in DNA, or in its RNA transcripts, and the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of the genetic code?

A

1.Three nucleotides encode an amino acid- an amino acid is encoded by a group of three bases, a codon
2. The codon is nonoverlapping
3. The code has no punctuation.
4. The code has directionality- Code is read from the 5’ end on the mRNA to 3’ end.
5. The genetic code is degenerate, there is more than one codon that codes for an amino acid.

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7
Q

Why do we need the genetic code to be degenerate?

A

Because if not, there would be 20 codons that designated amino acids and 44 would lead to chain termination. This also increases the probability of mutating to chain termination, leading to inactive proteins.

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8
Q

Is the genetic code universal?

A

No, it is nearly but not absolutely universal. The genetic code of mitochondria can differ from that of the rest of the cell because mitochondrial DNA encodes a distinct set of transfer RNAs.

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9
Q

WHat is a transfer RNA and what does it do?

A

tRNA serves as the adapter molecule between the codon and its specified amino acid. It binds to a specific codon and brings it with an amino acid for incorporation into the polypeptide chain.
All tRNA molecules must be able to interact in nearly the same way with the ribosomes, mRNAs, and protein factors that participate in translation.

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10
Q

What features must a tRNA have?

A
  1. Must be a single strain containing between 73 and 93 ribonucleotides
  2. The 3D molecule is L shaped
  3. Contain many unusual bases. Some are methylated or dimethylated derivatives if A, U, G, and C.
  4. All tRNA molecules can be arranged in a cloverleaf pattern.
  5. The 5’ end of a tRNA is phosphorylated
  6. The activated amino acid is attached to a hydroxyl group of the adenosine residue at the end of the 3’ end of the acceptor stem.
  7. The anticodon is present in a loop near the center if the sequence.
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11
Q

What does the methylation of a base do?

A

Methylation prevents the formation of certain base pairs, rendering some of the bases accessible for interactions with other components of the translation machinery, Methylation also imparts a hydrophobic chatacter to some region sof tRNAs, which may be important for their interaction with proteins required for protein synthesis.

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12
Q

Why do tRNAs arrange in cloverleaf patterns

A

Half of the nucleotides in tRNA base pair to form double helixes. There are five groups of bases that do not do this, the 3’ CCA terminal region, which apart of the acceptor stem, the TyC loop: the extra arm which contains a variable number of residues, the DHU loop, which contains several UH2 residues, and the anticodon loop.
This structural diversity allows all tRNAs to be unique but structurally similar overall.

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13
Q

Why can some tRNA molecules recognize more than one codon?

A

Because the steric criteria might be less stringent for pairing of the third base than for the other two. Meaning there is some steric freedom, wobble, in the pairing of the third base of the codon.

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14
Q

What generalizations can be made concerning the codon-anticodon interaction?

A
  1. Codons that differ in either of their first two bases must be recognized by different tRNAs.
  2. Part of the degeneracy of the genetic code arises from imprecision in the pairing of the third base of the codon with the first base of the anticodon, Inosine, I, maximizes the number of codons that can be read by a particular tRNA.
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15
Q

What must first happen before the codon and anticodon meet?

A

The amino acids that are required for protein synthesis must be attached to specific tRNA molecules.

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16
Q

Why is the linkage of the amino acids to the tRNAs so crucial?

A

The attachment of a given amino acid to a particulat tRNA establishes the genetic code. The amino acid will then be incorporated into a growing polypeptide chain at a position dictated by the anticodon of the tRNA. The formation of a peptide bond between free amino acids is not thermodynamically favorable so the amino acid must be activated in order for protein synthesis to proceed.
The amino acid links to the 3’ hydroxyl group.

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17
Q

What activates the amino acids?

A

The activation is catalyzed by specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.

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18
Q

What are the steps of the activation of amino acids?

A
  1. The formation of aminoacyl adenylate from an amino acid and ATP
  2. The transfer of the aminoacyl group of aminoacyl adenylate (aminoacyl-AMP) to a particular tRNA molecule to form amoniacyl-tRNA.
    The reaction is driven by the hydrolysis of pyrophosphate and the sum of the reactions is highly exergonic.
    The activation and transfer steps are catalyzed by the same aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
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19
Q

What is consumed in the synthesis of each aminoacyl-tRNA?

A

the equivalent of two ATP molecules

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20
Q

How do synthetases choose their tRNA partners?

A

In a sense, aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases “know” the genetic code and their precise recognition of tRNAs is as important for high-fidelity protein synthesis as is the accurate selection of amino acids. Some synthetases recognize their tRNAs partners primarily on the basis of their anticodons, although they may also recognize other aspects of tRNA structure.

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21
Q

What do ribosomes do?

A

They coordinate the interplay of aminoacyl-tRNAs, mRNA, and proteins that results in protein synthesis.

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22
Q

What are the components of a ribosome?

A

A large subunit (50S) and a small subunit (30S). These can be further dissociated into their constituent proteins and RNAs.

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23
Q

What are the three RNAs present in ribosomes and why are they present?

A

5S, 16S, and 23S and they are crucial for ribosomal architecture and function. These ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs) are folded into complex structures with many short duplex regions.

24
Q

What are the key catalytic sites in the ribosome composed of?

A

Almost entirely of RNA. This concludes that the ribosome initially consisted only of RNA and that the proteins were added later to fine tune its functional properties.

25
In which direction is mRNA translated?
The sequence of amino acids in a protein is translated from the nuclotide sequence in mRNA in the direction of 5' to 3'. Transcription is also in the 5' to 3' direction. Because they are the same direction, mRNA can be translated while its being synthesized.
26
What is an expressome?
a transcribing and translating complex consisting of RNA polymerase and the 60S ribosome.
27
What is a polysome?
The group of ribosomes bound to an mRNA molecule. also called a polyribosome
28
What are the three parts of the synthesis of proteins?
Initiation, elongation, and termination.
29
What happens in initiation?
in initiation, the translation machinery must locate the correct Start codon. Initiation requires the cooperation of the ribosome, tRNA, mRNA, and various protein factors.
30
What happens in elongation?
In elongation, the codons are read sequentially in the 5' to 3' direction as the protein is synthesized from the amino end to the carboxyl end.
31
What happens in termination?
When a termination codon is reached, special proteins hydrolyze the polypeptide from the last tRNA, releasing the completed protein.
32
WHat are the three binding sites on ribosomes?
The A site (for aminoacyl), the P site (for peptidyl) and the E site (for exit).
33
Where does protein synthesis start?
Translation in bacteria does not begin immediately at the 5' end of mRNA. The first translated codon is nearly always more than 25 nucleotides away from the end.
34
polycistronic def
mRNA molecules in bacteria are polycistronic, meaning they encode two or more polypeptide chains.
35
What are untranslated regions and what do they do?
Untranslated regions are nucleotide sequences in mRNA that are not translated. Example, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence. They may be at the 3' or 5' end. They usually function to regulate the usage of mRNA molecules.
36
What are the two kinds of interactions that determine where protein synthesis starts in bacteria?
1. The pairing of mRNA bases with the 3' end of the 16S rRNA. 2. The pairing of the initiator codon on mRNA with the anticodon of an initiator tRNA molecule.
37
What is special about the first amino acid in E. Coli proteins
The methionine residue found at the amino-terminal end of E. coli proteins is usually modified. The modified methionine is called formylmethionine and it is what starts protein synthesis. A special tRNA brings fMet to the ribosome and the initiator tRNA differs from the tRNA that inserts methionine in internal positions.
38
how are mRNA and formylmethionyl-tRNAf brought to the ribosome to begin protein synthesis?
Three protein initiation factors are essential- IF1, IF2 and IF3. The 30S ribosomal unit first forms a complex with IF1 and IF3, this prevents the subunit from prematurely joining the 50S subunit to form a dead end 70S complex. IF2, a GTPase, binds GTP, and the conformational change allows IF2 to associate with firmylmethionyl-tRNAf. The IF2 complex then binds with mRNA and the 30S subunit to form the 30S initiation complex. IF1 and IF3 are then released and IF2 stimulates the association of the 50S subunit to the complex. The GTP on IF2 is hydrolyzed and IF2 is released. The result is a 70S initiation complex.
39
What is the rate limiting step in protein synthesis?
The formation of the 70S complex. Where the 30S initiation complex releases IF1 and IF3. IF2 stimulates the association of the 50S subunits to the complex anf GTP is hydrolyzed and IF2 is released.
40
How is the reading frame established?
The fMet-tRNAf molecule occupies the P site on the ribosome positioned so that its anticodon pairs with the unutiating codon on mRNA. The other two sites A and E are empty.
41
What decided what species will be inserted into the A site of the ribosome?
it depends on the mRNA codon in the A site.
42
How does the appropriate aminoacyl-tRNA get to the A site?
It doesnt leave the synthetase and diffuse to the A site. It is delivered to the A site in association with an elongation factor Tu (EF-Tu)., which requires GTP for activity. The EF-Tu binds aminoacyl-tRNA only in the GTP form.
43
What are the two functions of the binding of EF-Tu to aminoacyl-tRNA?
1. EF-Tu protects the delicate ester linkage in aminoacyl-tRNA from hydrolysis. 2. EF-Tu contributes to the accuracy of protein synthesis because GTP hydrolysis and expulsion of the EF-Tu interacts with the 16S RNA.
44
What is the sarcin-ricin loop (SRL)?
A highly conserved site in the 23S RNA in the 50S subunit. Correct codon recognition induces structural changes in the 30S subunit that move the EF-Tu to the SRL.
44
What does the interaction with the SR and the 50S subunit do?
It activates the GTPase activity of EF-Tu, releasing EF-Tu-GDP from the ribosome.
45
What is the process of accommodation? and what does it do?
Rotation of the aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site so that the amino acid is brought into proximity with the aminoacyl-tRNA in the P site on the 50S subunit. Accommodation aligns the amino acids for peptide bond formation.
46
What does the released EF-Tu then do?
The released EF-Tu is then reset to its GTP form by a second elongation factor EF-Ts, which induces the dissociation of GDP. GTP binds to EF-Tu and EF-Ts is released.
47
What is the peptidyl transferase center and what does it do?
it is a site on the 23S rRNA of the 50S subunit that catalyzes the formation of the peptide bond, which is a spontaneous reaction.
48
How does the formation of a peptide bond reaction start?
The reaction begins when the amino group of the aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site makes a nucleophilic attack on the ester linkage between the initiator tRNA and the formylmethionine molecule in the P site.
49
AFter the formation of the peptide bond, what must happen so that protein synthesis can continue?
the translocation of the mRNA and the tRNAs within the ribosome. The mRNA must move by a distance of three nucleotides so that the next codon is positioned in the A site for interaction with the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA. The peptidyl-tRNA moves out of the A site into the P site and at the same time, the deacylated tRNA moves out of the P site into the E site and is released.
50
What is Elongation factor G and what does it do?
EF-G is a protein factor that accelerates the process of translocation. EF-G in the GTP form binds near the A site, interactingwith the 23S rRNA of the 50S subunit. The binding of EF-G to the ribosome stimulates the GTPase activity of EF-G. On GTP hydrolysis, EF-G undergoes a conformational change that displaces the peptidyl-tRNA in the A site to the Psite, which carries the mRNA and deacylated tRNA with it.
51
What happens to the peptide chain during translocation?
It remains in the P site on the 50S subunit throughotu the cycle, growing into the exit tunnel. The polypeptide is synthesized in the amino terminal to carboxyl terminal direction.
52
What do release factors do?
The recognize stop codons. They are needed because there arent any tRNAs with anticodons complimentary to the stop codons.
53
WHat are the three release factors and what do they do?
RF1 recognizes UAA, and UAG. RF2 recognizes UAA or UGA and RF3 is a GTPase that catalyzes the removal of RF1 or 2 from the ribosome upon release of the protein.
54
What is a signal sequence?
It is a sequence of 9 to 12 hydrophobic amino acid residues, sometimes containing positively charged amino acids. The presence of this sequence identifies the nascent peptide as one that must cross the ER membrane.