Protocols Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

What should be attempted if the rhythm appears to be amenable in narrow complex tachycardia?

A

Vagal maneuvers

This applies to rhythms like ‘regular narrow SVT’.

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2
Q

What is the systolic blood pressure threshold for unstable patients requiring cardioversion?

A

Less than 100 mm Hg

Signs of hypoperfusion must also be present.

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3
Q

What is the initial energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in Atrial Fibrillation?

A

200 J

This is for patients with unstable systolic blood pressure.

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4
Q

What is the starting energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in Atrial Flutter?

A

50 J

This is the initial setting for Atrial Flutter.

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5
Q

What should be checked between each attempted cardioversion?

A

Rhythm and pulse

Monitoring is essential to assess response.

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6
Q

What medication is used for stable Atrial Fibrillation with a heart rate greater than 150?

A

Diltiazem HCL

Administered as a slow IV/IO bolus.

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7
Q

What is the initial bolus dose of Diltiazem for symptomatic patients?

A

0.25 mg/kg

Administered slowly over two minutes.

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8
Q

What is the re-bolus dose of Diltiazem if there is an inadequate response after 15 minutes?

A

0.35 mg/kg

Administered slowly over two minutes.

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9
Q

What are the contraindications for using Diltiazem?

A
  • Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome
  • Second or third degree heart block
  • Sick sinus syndrome (without a ventricular pacemaker)
  • Severe hypotension
  • Cardiogenic shock

It’s important to avoid these conditions when administering Diltiazem.

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10
Q

What alternative medication can be used if the patient is already taking a Beta Blocker?

A

Metoprolol

This can be given as a bolus for heart rates above 150.

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11
Q

What is the bolus dose range for Metoprolol?

A

2.5-5 mg

Administered slowly over 2 minutes.

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12
Q

What is the maximum total dose of Metoprolol that can be administered?

A

15 mg

Dosing can be repeated in 5-minute intervals.

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13
Q

What should be done if the heart rate is less than 150 and the patient is stable but symptomatic?

A

Contact Medical Control

Further instructions or orders may be provided.

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14
Q

What additional medication may Medical Control order?

A

Amiodarone 150 mg

Administered slowly IV/IO over 10 minutes.

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15
Q

What is a caution regarding the use of IV Metoprolol?

A

Do not use with IV Ca Blockers

This combination can lead to adverse effects.

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16
Q

What should be done if a patient with Bradycardia is symptomatic?

A

Transcutaneous Pacing (TCP) should be initiated.

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17
Q

What medication can be administered while waiting for pacer set-up?

A

Atropine sulfate 0.5 mg IV/IO every three (3) to five (5) minutes up to a total dose of 3 mg may be considered.

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18
Q

What additional orders may medical control provide for Bradycardia?

A

Medical control may order additional doses of medications, norepinephrine infusion, dopamine, epinephrine infusion, glucagon, or calcium chloride.

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19
Q

What is the dopamine infusion dosage for Bradycardia?

A

Dopamine 2-20 mcg/kg/min IV/IO.

20
Q

What is the glucagon dosage for suspected beta-blocker or calcium-channel blocker toxicity?

A

Glucagon 1 - 5 mg IV/IO/IM.

21
Q

What is the calcium chloride dosage for suspected calcium channel blocker toxicity?

A

Calcium chloride 10% 20 mg/kg IV/IO administered slowly over 5 minutes to a maximum dose of 1 gram.

22
Q

What is the initial dose of Epinephrine for an adult allergic reaction/anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine auto-injector 0.3mg or IM check and inject (0.3 1:1,000).

23
Q

How soon can a second dose of Epinephrine be administered?

A

A 2nd dose may be administered in 5 minutes if necessary.

24
Q

What is the dosage of Albuterol for an adult allergic reaction?

A

Albuterol 2.5mg via nebulizer. Repeat every 5 minutes up to 4 doses.

25
What are the steroid options for an adult allergic reaction?
Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV/IO/IM, or methylprednisolone 125 mg IV/IO/IM.
26
What is the dosage of Diphenhydramine for mild distress?
Diphenhydramine 25-50 mg IV/IO/IM.
27
What additional medications may Medical Control order?
Additional doses of above medications and Epinephrine 1:10,000: 0.1 mg - 0.5 mg IV/O.
28
What is the systolic blood pressure threshold for administering Dopamine?
Systolic blood pressure of 90mmHg.
29
What is the dosage range for Dopamine infusion?
Dopamine infusion: 2-20 mcg/kg/min IV/IO.
30
What defines Mild Distress in an allergic reaction?
Mild Distress is defined by: itching, urticaria, nausea, and no respiratory distress.
31
What defines Severe Distress in an allergic reaction?
Severe Distress is defined by: stridor, bronchospasm, severe abdominal pain, respiratory distress, tachycardia, shock, edema of lips, tongue or face.
32
What is the epinephrine dosage for pediatric patients in anaphylaxis under 25 kg?
Administer epinephrine 15 mg via auto-injector or IM.
33
What is the epinephrine dosage for pediatric patients in anaphylaxis over 25 kg?
Administer epinephrine 0.3 mg via auto-injector or IM.
34
What should be done if a second dose of epinephrine is required?
Contact Medical Control if a second dose is required after 5 minutes.
35
What is the albuterol dosage for patients under 2 years old?
Administer 1.25 mg by nebulizer.
36
What is the albuterol dosage for patients 2 years or older?
Administer 2.5-3 mg by nebulizer.
37
What is the hydrocortisone dosage for pediatric patients?
Give hydrocortisone 2 mg/kg to a maximum of 100 mg IV/IO/IM.
38
What is the methylprednisolone dosage for pediatric patients?
Give methylprednisolone 2 mg/kg to a maximum of 125 mg IV/IO/IM.
39
What is the diphenhydramine dosage for pediatric patients?
1 mg/kg up to a maximum single dose of 50 mg IV/IO/IM.
40
What additional medications may Medical Control order?
Epinephrine infusion 1:1,000 (1 mg/mL) 0.1-1 mcg/kg/min IV/IO or epinephrine 1:10,000; 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO to a maximum single dose of 0.3 mg.
41
What is the preferred airway management for patients under 12 years old?
The airway is best managed with a BVM or SGA.
42
What may be preferred in some cases for airway management?
Intubation may be preferred at the discretion of the treating paramedic.
43
What is the first clinical criterion for anaphylaxis?
Acute onset of skin or mucosal involvement with at least one of the following: respiratory compromise or decreased SBP or evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion.
44
What is the second clinical criterion for anaphylaxis?
Two or more of these occurring rapidly after exposure to a likely antigen: skin or mucosal involvement, respiratory compromise, decreased SBP or evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion, or persistent GI symptoms.
45
What is the third clinical criterion for anaphylaxis?
Decreased BP after exposure to a known allergen for that patient.