Protozoa Flashcards
(239 cards)
1
Q
Vectors of trypanosoma cruzi ?
- bedbugs
- soft ticks
- kissing bugs
- hard tick
A
Kissing bugs (Triatomae sp)
2
Q
What is characteristic of «dollar spots» ?
- Displacement
- Predilection site : genitalia
- 10-15cm diameter
- They always appear in dourine
A
Displacement
3
Q
What is the most frequent cause of death following the 4th phase of dourine?
- Collapse of circulation
- Decubitus
- Facial paralysis
- Pneumonia
A
Pneumonia
4
Q
Which Giardia genotype(s) is (are) zoonotic? (more than one answer maybe correct!
- A
- B
- C
- D
A
A et B
5
Q
In which of the following is Toxoplasma gondii highly foetopathogenic?
• Cattle
• Sheep
• Horse
• Pig
A
Sheep
6
Q
Which species will frequently cause haemorrhages?
• T. brucei brucei
• T. vivax
• T. congolense
• None of these
A
T.vivax
7
Q
What is the approx.. size of giardia cyst
• 10-20 micrometers
• Nearly 100 micrometers
• 30-40 micrometers
• 20-30 micrometers
A
10-20 micrometers
8
Q
Which Eimeria sp. is highly pathogenic in chicken?
• E. maxima
• E. intestinalis
• E. necatrix
• E. mitis
A
E.necatrix
9
Q
Of which Eimeria sp./spp. can the praepatent period be 4 days or shorter? (more than one answer may be right!)
• E. praecox
• E. maxima
• E. acervuline
• E. mitis
A
E. Praecox, E. Acervuline, E. Mitis
10
Q
Which of the following pair of Eimeria species has complementary location in the small intestine?
• E. intestinalis & E. magna
• E. duodenalis & E. media
• E. magna & E. magna
• E. exigua & E. intestinalis
A
• E. intestinalis & E. magna
11
Q
What is the characteristic lesion on the hepatic form of pigeon trichomonosis?
• Pea size necroses
• Fibrinous perihepatitis
• Abscess
• Pinpoint necroses
A
• Pea size necroses
12
Q
Which species will cause mucosal thickening distally in the small intestine?
• Eimeria ovinoidalis
• Eimeria crandallis
• Eimeria parva
• Eimeria bakuensis
A
Eimeria ovinoidalis
13
Q
Which Cryptosporidium sp./spp. occur(s) frequently in post-weaned or older calves? (more than one answer maybe correct!)
• C. baileyi
• C. bovis
• C. andersoni
• C. parvum
A
C. bovis And C. andersoni
14
Q
In which age group are bulls more susceptible to Tritrichomonas foetus?
• 1-2 years of age
• Below 3 years
• Above 3 years
• 2-4 years of age
A
Above 3 years
15
Q
How does Histomonas meleagridis spread to the liver?
• Haematogenously
• From the cloaca
• From the skin
• From the navel
A
Haematogenously
16
Q
Which Eimeria sp. is highly pathogenic in chicken?
• E. acervuline
• E. mitis
• E. tenella
• E. flavescens
A
E. tenella
17
Q
Which protozoon is frequently carried by nutria or coypu?
• Giardia
• Trichomonas
• Toxoplasma
• Babesia
A
Toxoplasma
18
Q
How does Trichomonas gallinae reach the liver?
• Spreading from heart apex
• Spreading from the navel
• Spreading from oesophagus
• Haematogenously
A
Spreading from the navel
19
Q
Which grographical region has serious problems with cattle tritrichomonosis?
• None of these
• Certain US states
• Europe
• Hungary
A
Certain US states
20
Q
Which dog breed is predisposed to subclinical babesiosis (carrier state)?
• Spaniel
• Irish setter
• German shepherd
• Dalmatiner
A
German shepherd
21
Q
In which “aberrant” host species is Sarcocystis neurona highly pathogenic?
• Cattle
• Sheep
• Pig
• Horse
A
Horse
22
Q
Please select the moderately pathogenic Eimeria sp./spp. for which the location is indicated properly?
• E. irresidua – duodenum
• E. intestinalis – ileum
• E. piriformis – colon
• E. magna – ileum
A
E. piriformis – colon
23
Q
Which of the following pair of Eimeria species has complementary location on the small intestine?
• E. brunetti & E. mitis
• E. maxima & E. necatrix
• E. acervulina & E. mitis
• E. acervulina & E. precox
A
E. acervulina & E. mitis
24
Q
There is no sporocyst in its sporulated oocyst (more than one answer maybe correct)
• Cryptosporidium
• Plasmodium
• Hepatozoon
• Isospora
A
Cryptosporidium and Plasmodium
25
What is the most pathogenic stage of Eimeria Tenella ?
• Second schizont
• Gamont
• First schizont
• Oocyst
Second schizont
26
Which are the predisposing factors of pigeon Trichomonosis? (more than one answer may be correct)
• A-vitamin deficiency
• Giardiasis
• Ammonia from litter
• Iron deficiency
A-vitamin deficiency and Ammonia from litter
27
What plays a central role in the pathogenesis of biliary coccidiosis?
• Cirrhosis
• Biliary hyperplasia
• Anaemia
• Hepatomegaly
Biliary hyperplasia
28
Which statement is true for Klossiellosis?
• Oocysts form, but are not shed
• There is no oocyst
• Oocysts are of the Isospora-type
• Oocysts pass with the urine
Oocysts form, but are not shed
29
What is not caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
• Meningoencephalitis
• Megalomania
• Myocarditis
• Oedema
Meningoencephalitis
30
Which plasmodium species is not human pathogenic?
• P. vivax
• P. simium
• P. knowlesi
• P. ovale
P. simium
31
Mostly where does the first schizogony of Leucocytozoon species take place?
• In liver parenchyma cells
• In endothelial cells
• In renal tubular epithelial cells
• In muscle
In liver parenchyma cells
32
What is the size range of Trypanosomes?
• 60-100 µm
• 30-50 µm
• 10-20 µm
• 10-40 µm
10-40 µm
33
How can infection with Encephalitozoon cuniculi typically be acquired?
• With coprophagy
• By vectors
• With eating transport hosts
• Prenatally
Prenatally
34
Where does exoerythrocytaer schizogony of Plasmodium species take place in mammals?
• Liver
• White blood cells
• Lymph node
• Skin
Liver
35
Which host has asymptomatic Trypanosoma brucei evansi infection?
• Cattle
• Horse
• Camel
• Dog
Cattle
36
What may predispose a dog to entamoebosis?
• Living together with cats which pass cysts in their faeces
• Eating raw pork
• Drinking from trophozoite-containing water
• Entamoebosis of the owner
Entamoebosis of the owner
37
The Hepatozoon canis gamont: what is the shape and what cell type is it in?
• Elliptic, neutrophilic grc.
• Oval, monocyte
• Onion-like, splenocyte
• Round, neutrophilic grc
Elliptic, neutrophilic grc.
38
Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen that is taxonomically a protozoon but not a member of phylum Apicomplexa?
• Cryptosporidium parvum • Toxoplasma gondii
• Acanthamoeba castellani • Encephalitozoon cuniculi
Acanthamoeba castellani
39
Which Eimeria sp. May have high pathogenicity similar to that of Eimeria zuernii?
• E. alabemensis
• E. ellipsoidalis
• E. subspherical
• E. auburnensis
E. alabemensis
40
What plays a central role in the background of waving parasitaemia in the case of nagana?
• Superinfection
• Exflaggellation
• VSG expression
• Immunosuppressio
VSG expression
41
How many Eimeria spp. May cause either haemorrhagic or fibrinous lesions in the caeca of chickens?
• Two
• One
• Four
• Three
One
42
How many Eimeria spp. Cause haemorrhagic lesions in the small intestine of the chicken?
• Five
• Four
• Two
• Three
Five
43
Which Eimeria sp. Has low pathogenicity in chickens?
• E. acervulina
• E. tenella
• E. duodenalis
• E. flavescents
E. Acervulina
44
How can we get infected with giardia from natural water in Central Europe (minimal infectious dose in 10 cysts)?
• There is no way, because beavers are rare
• Rarely by drinking natural water
• During swimming
• by washing food in natural water
Swimming
45
Which does not have cyst?
• Trichomonas gallinae
• Giardia duodenalis
• Acanthomoeba castellani
• Entamoeba histolytica
Trichomonas gallinae
46
Please select the highly pathogenic Eimeria sp. For which the location is indicated properly:
• E. irresidua – jejunum
• E. flavescens – caecum
• E. intestinalis – caecum
• E. magna – duodenum
E. flavescens – caecum
47
What is the characteristic lesion of Eimeria bakuensis infection, and in which part of the gut?
• Haemorrhages in duodenum
• Colon ulcers
• Foci in ileum
• Pseudomembrane in jejunum
Foci in ileum
48
Of which Eimeria sp. Is it characteristic to cause haemorrhages in a ladder-like pattern?
• E. tenella
• E. necatrix
• E. maxima
• E. brunetti
E. brunetti
49
What is the characteristic gestation period for neosporosis-related abortions in cows?
• 2-4 months
• 4-6 months
• 8-9 months
• 6-8 months
4-6 months
50
What is the main clinical type of cryptosporidiosis in the birds?
• Digestive
• Renal
• Respiratory
• Ocular
Respiratory
51
Which are the ways of attenuation in the case of Paracox, Livacox?
• Making subunits
• Selection for early maturation
• Gamma irradiation
• Adaptation to CAM
Selection for early maturation and Adaptation to CAM
52
Which Eimeria species occurs typically in breeding and replacement flocks, but less in broilers?
• E. acervulina
• E. mitis
• E. maxima
• E. brunetti
E. Maxima
53
Which Trypanosoma sp. Does the causative agent of dourine belong to?
• T. brucei
• T. equiperdum
• T. equinum
• T. evansi
• T. equiperdum
54
Which protozoon is frequently carried by beavers?
• Giardia
• Sarcocystis
• trichomonas
• Babesia
Giardia
55
What are the routes of infection with Leishmania spp.?
• All of these
• With biting
• Venereal, transplacental
• Vector borne
All of these
56
Which Eimeria sp./spp. Cause(s) typically coagulation necrosis?
• E. tenella
• E. brunetti
• E. maxima
• E. necatrix
E. brunetti
57
Which species will cause mucosal thickening in the colon?
• Eimeria bakuensis
• Eimeria arloingi
• Eimeria ellipsoidalis
• Entamoeba histolytica
• Eimeria ellipsoidalis
58
What is characteristic of the pathology of turkey Histomonosis?
• Generalized form
• Dry liver necrosis
• Bloody caecal contents
• Moist liver necrosis
Dry liver necrosis
59
Which is the staining method to distinguish Encephalitozoon cuniculi from protozoan parasites belonging to other groups?
• Ziehl-neelsen
• Kinyoun
• Gram
• PAS
PAS
60
Which Eimeria species does not occur behind the small intestine?
• E. meleagridis
• E. meleagrimitis
• E. gallopavonis
• E. adenoeides
E. meleagrimitis
61
Which phenotype is not characteristic of Trypanosoma cruzi?
• Amastigote
• Promastigote
• Epimastigote
• Trypomastigot
Promastigote
62
Which of the following lives intracellularly?
• Promastigote
• Amastigote
• Trypomastigote
• Epimastigote
Amastigote
63
Infection with which Eimeria species results in sunken eyes, vertigo?
• E. truncata
• E. anatis
• E. anseris
• E. danailovi
E. truncata
64
What should be demonstrated in blood smears in order to diagnose haemoproteosis?
• Spindle shape Gamont next to the nucleus of white blood cells • Spindle shape Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells
• Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells
• Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of white blood cells
Sausage-like Gamont next to the nucleus of red blood cells
65
What is the host of Eimeria kotlani?
• Pheasant
• Duck
• Goose
• Turkey
Goose
66
Which is the main zoonotic Babesia sp. (sensu stricto) in Europe?
• B. ovis
• B. bovis
• B. divergens
• B. microti
B. divergens
67
What is the main location of Eimeria maxima?
• Ileum
• Rectum
• Duodenum
• Jejunum
Jejunum
68
Which domestic animal is susceptible for the highest number of Cryptosporidium species?
• Sheep
• Cattle
• Pig
• Dog
Cattle
69
Which can shed oocysts of Eimeria coecicola?
• Rabbit
• Mouse
• Cat
• Dog
Rabbit
70
Which of the following species develops also extraintestinally?
• Eimeria ninakohlyakimovae
• Eimeria ovinoidalis
• Eimeria parva
• Eimeria crandallis
Eimeria ninakohlyakimovae
71
How can a dog become infected with Neospora caninum? (more than one answer may be correct!)
• From raw pork
• With oocysts
• Galactogenically
• Transplacentally
With oocysts & Transplacentally
72
Please select the Cryptosporidium sp./spp. For which the location is indicated properly:
• C. muris – small intestine
• C. parvum – stomach
• C. adnersoni – colon
• C. bovis – small intestine
C. bovis – small intestine
73
Which Eimeria sp./spp. Have 6 days of prepatent period (More than one may be right!)
• E. maxima
• E. brunetti
• E. necatrix
• E. tenella
E. necatrix & E. tenella
74
What is the incubation period of dourine?
• 1-2months
• 3-4 weeks
• 14-16 days
• Can be several years
Can be several years
75
Where do besnoitia cysts occur in cattle? (More than one may be right!)
• Respiratory mucosae
• Epidermis
• Sclera
• Genital mucosae
- Respiratory mucosae
- Epidermis
- Sclera
- Genital mucosae
76
Which Eimeria sp. Is highly pathogenic in cattle?
• E. necatrix
• E. ellipsoidalis
• E. zuernii
• E. bakuensis
E. zuernii
77
Which Sarcocystis sp. Has carnivores as intermediate hosts?
• S. rileyi
• S. procifelis
S. cruzi
• S. neurona
S. neurona
78
What is the main location of Eimeria tenella?
• Duodenum
• Caecum
• Rectum
• Jejunum
Caecum
79
What is the most frequent cause of death in the case of nagana?
• Heart failure
• Pneumonia
• Rupture of spleen
• Renal failure
Heart failure
80
What is the incubation period of canine babesiosis?
• 1 day (also peracute)
• 4-21 days
• 1-2 weeks
• 14-16 days
4-21 days
81
Which tick genus includes the main vector of the large babesia of the dog in Europe?
• Hyalomma
• Ixodes
• Haemaphysalis
• Dermacentor
Dermacentor
82
Which tick can be the carrier for small babesia in dogs?
• Rhipicephalus
• Dermacentor
• ixodes
Rhipicephalus
83
Breed disposition to Babesia: (more than one may be right)
• Dalmatian
• Spaniel
• German Shepherd
• Irish setter
Spaniel & Irish setter
84
Which Giardia genotype occurs frequently in cattle?
• C
• D
• E
• F
E
85
What is the end stage of Hepatozoon canis in ticks?
• Oocysts
• Syzygium
• Sporokinetes
• Free sporozoites
Oocysts
86
In what can Encephalitozoon spores be found? (more than one answer maybe correct)
• Faeces
• Urine
• Sweating
• Respiratory secretion
Urine, faeces, respiratory secretion
87
Which one is not a characteristic sign of surra?
• Anorexia
• Anaemia and haemorrhage
• Paralysis of hind quarters
• Diarrhoea
Paralysis of hind quarters
88
Which characteristic of Klossiella species is exceptional among haemogregarines?
• Development is not restricted to cells of the haemolymphatic system
• They are homoxenous
• There may be 40-60 sporocysts in the oocysts
• Klossiella species are not haemogregarines
They are homoxenous
89
What is the form Naegleria fowleri does not have?
• Provided with two flagella
• Amoebic
• Cyst
• Provided with one flagellum
Provided with one flagellum
90
In which animal does klossiellosis usually have pathogenic significance?
• Mouse
• Donkey
• Rat
• Horse
Horse
91
Which domestic animals do not have Eimeria species?
• Ducks
• Carnivores
• Horses
• Pigs
Carnivores
92
Which of the following does not cause haemorrhages?
• Eimeria anatis
• Tyzzeria perniciosa
• Eimeria danailovi
• Wenyonella philiplevinei
Eimeria anatis
93
Which clinical sign is not characteristic of encephalitozoonosis?
• Spasms
• Ataxy
• Posterior paralysis
• Torticollis
Spasms
94
What is the most frequent cause of death during leishmaniasis?
• Septicemia
• Asphyxia
• Heart failure
• Renal failure
Renal failure
95
What can typically result from the infection with cryptosporidium parvum?
• Crypt hypoplasia
• Fibrinous pseudomembranes
• Apoptosis
• Necrosis
Apoptosis
96
Which has flagellum, but no undulating membrane?
- Promastigote
- Amastigote
- Epimastigote
Promastigote
97
Which does not have flagellum?
- Epimastigote
- Amastigote
- promastigote
Amastigote
98
Which phenotype of trypanosomes has the kinetoplast anteriorly next to the nucleus, and is also provided with short undulating membrane?
- Amastigote
- Epimastigote
- Promastigote
- Epimastigote
99
What is the size range of trypanosomes?
- 10-30um
- 25-40um
- 8-39um
8-39um
100
The causative agent of Surra? (Multiple answers may be possible)
- T. Brucei evansi
- T. Vivax
- T. Equiperdum
- Has broad host spectrum
T. Brucei evansi & Has broad host spectrum
101
Which host has asymptomatic Trypanosoma evansi infection?
- eq
- dog
- cattle
- goat
Cattle
102
The amastigote of Trypanosoma cruzi occurs?
- in RBC
- in WBC
- in muscles cells
- in brain cells
muscles cells
103
How can dogs be infected with Trypanosoma cruzi?
– by eating infected organs/viscera
- by eating faeces
- by mating
- rubbing into wound
eating infected organs/viscera, faeces, rubbing into wound
104
Which phenotype is not characteristic of Trypanosoma cruzi?
- pro
- épi
- tri
- ama
Promastigote
105
Geographic locations and symptoms of Nagana :
- south and Central America « mega signs »
- Africa « leptomeningitis »
- Central Africa & Sahara « haemorrhage & heart failure »
Central Africa and Sahara
« Haemorrhage of mucosal surface and heart failure »
106
Geographic locations and symptoms of Surra (mal de caderas) :
- south and Central America « mega signs »
- Africa « leptomeningitis »
- EU, North Africa, Asia « oedema, anorexia »
- Central African & Sahara « haemorrhage & heart failure »
EU, North of Africa, Asia
“Oedema, anorexia, emication”
107
Geographic locations and symptoms of sleeping sickness :
- south and Central America « mega signs »
- Africa « leptomeningitis »
- EU, North Africa, Asia « oedema, anorexia »
- Central African & Sahara « haemorrhage & heart failure »
Africa « leptomeningitis »
108
Geographic locations and symptoms of Chagas’ disease:
- south and Central America « mega signs »
- Africa « leptomeningitis »
- EU, North Africa, Asia « oedema, anorexia »
- Central African & Sahara « haemorrhage & heart failure »
- south and Central America « mega signs »
109
Geographic locations and symptoms of Dourine :
- Third world countries “dollar spots” urticaria
- Africa « leptomeningitis »
- EU, North Africa, Asia « oedema, anorexia »
- Central African & Sahara « haemorrhage & heart failure »
Third world countries “dollar spots” urticaria
110
Which of the following is detected by Giemsa staining of blood smear? (More answers can be correct)
- theileria
- microfilaria
- trypanosoma
theileria & trypanosoma
111
Which trypanosoma species causes asymptomatic infection in dogs?
- T. cruzi
- T.evansi
- T.equinum
- none of them
T.equinum
112
What type of biological vector does Salivaria-type Trypanosoma have?
a) Glossina (Tsetse fly)
b) Tabanidae (blood sucking fly)
c) Triatomae (kissing bug)
Glossina (TseTse fly)
113
Which trypanosome stage is intracellular?
- promastigote
- epimastigote
- amastigote
- trophozoite
Amastigote
114
What isn’t caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
a. Megalomania
b. myocarditis
c. Meningoencephalitis
d. oedema
C
115
Which has the biggest kinetoplast or soma from 4 Trypanosoma?
- T. Evansi
- T. Cruzi
- T. Equiperdum
- T. Brucei
T. Cruzi
116
How can the kissing bugs inoculate Trypanosoma cruzi in a host?
- via urine
- via biting
- via faeces
- via saliva
Faeces
117
Which animal has asymptomatic T. brucei evansi infection?
- eq
- dog
- cattle
- water pig
Cattle & water pig
118
Which has the largest among the causative agents of Nagana?
a. T. vivax
b. T.brucei brucei
c. T.congolense
d. T.brucei evansi
B
119
Which species does the causative agent of dourine belong to?
a. T.brucei
b. T.equiperdum
c. T.evansi
d. T.equinum
B
120
In scientific terms, what is a dollar spot?
a. hyperpigmentation
b. hypotrichiosis
c. urtricaria
d.hyperperspiration
C
121
What is the most frequent cause of death in Nagana?
a. Heart failure
b. renal failure
c. pneumonia
d. spleen rupture
A
122
Which is causative agent of surra?
a. “T.equinum”
b. T. brucei evansi
c. T. brucei equiperdum
d. T. brucei gambiense
B
123
The vector of T. Brucei evansi plays a role as?
- mechanical vector
- biological vector
- no vector needed
mechanical
124
Surra has no clinical signs in what species?
a) Dog
b) Cattle
c) Horse
d) Pig
Pig
125
Vectors of Trypanosoma ?
- mechanical
- biological
- both
- none
Both
126
Trypanosoma cruzi amastigot form is in these cells?
- mesenchymal
- RBC
- lymph nodes
- WBC
mesenchymal & lymph nodes
127
Which ocular problem does dourine not cause?
- Nystagmus (strabism)
- lachrymation
- mydriasis
- all of them
All of them
128
What is not a clinical sign of Chagas disease (caused by trypanosoma cruzi)?
a) Myocarditis
b) Oedema
c) Several mega signs
d) Meningoencephalitis
D
129
Mal de caderas symptoms?
- tetraplegia
- oedema of limbs
- tenesmus
- All of them
All of them
130
Symptoms of leishmania?
- Cutaneous
- visceral forms
- both
- none of them
Both
131
Cause of death in leishmania?
- heart failure
- Renal insufficiency
- pneumonia
- spleen rupture
Renal insufficiency
132
Which country lacks autochthonous cases of leishmaniosis?
a. Austria
b. France
c. Germany
d. Greece
Germany
133
What is/are characteristic of pathogenesis of leishmaniosis? a. Amastigotes don’t harm RBC therefore no anemia
b. Hypoglobulinemia
c. MPS killing amastigotes
d. hyperglobulinemia
MPS killing amastigotes & hyperglobulinemia
134
Leishmanias vector is?
- Tsetse fly (glossinidae)
- Sandfly (phleobotomus)
- Kissing bugs (Triatomae)
- Mosquitos (Culicinae)
Sandfly (phleobotomus)
135
The sandflies can be the vector of the pathogens of which disease?
- Chagas’ disease
- Dourine
- Leishmaniosis
- Surra
Leishmaniosis
136
Incubation time for Leishmania ?
- 2 weeks
- 3-4 months
- several years
- 12-16 days
several years
137
Which of these trypanosome species is the smallest?
● T. Vivax
● T. Congolense
● T. Brucei
● T. cruzi
T. Congolense
138
Which Trypanosoma causes Surra ?
- T. Cruzi
- T. Brucei brucei
- T. Evansi
- T. Equiperdum
T. Evansi
139
Trypanosoma species that horses are susceptible ?
- T. vivax
- T. congolense
- T. b. brucei
- T. brucei evansi
- T. Equiperdum
- all of them
All of them
140
Which trypanosome species causes haemorrhages?
● T. Vivax
● T. Congolense
● T. Brucei
● None of them
T. Vivax
141
● Which eimeria species have the same location of pathogenicity ?
- E. Adénoïdes
- E. Dispersa
- E. Meleagrimitis
- E. Gallopavonis
E. Adénoïdes & E. Gallopavonis (caecum, distal ileum, rectum)
142
Which are the most pathogenic eimeria of chickens ?
- E. tenella
- E. necatrix
- E. brunetti
- E. maxima
E. tenella, E. necatrix, E. brunetti
143
How many Eimeria species cause lesions without haemorrhages ?
● 1
● 2
● 3
● 4
1 (E. anatis)
144
Which Eimeria species causes ladder pattern lesions?
- E. Truncata
- E. Brunetti
- E. Necatrix
- E. Maxima
E. Brunetti
145
Which Eimeria species causes salt and pepper lesions?
- E. Truncata
- E. Brunetti
- E. Necatrix
- E. Maxima
E. Necatrix
146
How can histomonas meleagridis be spread in chickens (one answer only)?
- Cloacal drinking (turkey only)
- Drinking water
- Heterakis larvae
- Earthworms
Earthworms
147
Which Emeria species occurs typically in breeding and replacement flocks, but less in broilers?
● E. acervulina
● E. imitis
● E. maxima
● E. brunetti
E. Maxima
148
Which trypanosome affects pig?
● T. vivax
● T. brucei brucei
● T. brucei evansi
● None of them
None of them
149
Which trypanosome infects the pig?
- T. simiae
- T. godfreyi
- T. vivax
- T. brucei brucei
T. Simiae & godfreyi
150
Some blood-sucking flies are ….. of Trypansoma brucei evensi:
a. biological vectors
b. mechanical vectors
c. intermediate hosts
d. final hosts
Mechanical vectors
151
The most characteristic clinical sign of mal de caderas is:
a. paralysis of hind quarters
b. tetraplegia
c. limb oedema
d. tenesmus
Limb oedema
152
What is the approx. size of Giardia cyst?
a. 20-30 micrometers
b. 30-40 micrometers
c. 10-20 micrometers
d. nearly 100 micrometers
10-20 um
153
What is the main location of lesions caused by Eimeria necatrix ?
a. jejunum
b. rectum
c. ileum
d. duodenum
Jéjunum & Ileum
154
How can we get infected with Giardia from natural water in Central Europe (minimal
inf. dose is 10 cysts)
a. by washing food in natural water
b. during swimming
c. there is no way, because beavers are rare
d. rarely by drinking natural water
a, b, d
155
Of which Eimeria sp. is it characteristic to cause haemorrhages in a ladder-like
pattern?
a. E. necatrix
b. E. maxima
c. E. tenella
d. E. brunetti
E. Brunetti
156
Which Eimeria sp./spp. cause(s) typically coagulation necrosis?
a. E. tenella
b. E. brunetti
c. E. maxima
d. E. Necatrix
E. Brunetti
157
What is the biological vector of Tripanosoma cruzi?
a. Triatoma spp.
b. Sromoxys calcitrans
c. Glossina spp.
d. Tabanus spp.
Triatomae spp (kissing bugs)
158
What is the biological vector of Tripanosoma vivax?
a. Ttriatoma spp.
b. Sromoxys calcitrans
c. Glossina spp.
d. Tabanus spp.
Glossina spp
159
What is the most pathogenic stage of Eimeria acervuliana?
a. second schizont
b. first schizont
c. oocyst
d. gamont
Oocysts
160
Eimeria Brunetti and Necatrix most pathogenic stage ?
- egg
- 1st schizogony
- 2nd schizogony
- oocysts
2nd schizogony
161
How many Eimeria spp. cause haemorrhagic lesions in small intestine of chicken?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
3 (E. necratrix, E. maxima, E. brunetti)
162
Which Eimeria in the small intestine does not cause haemorrhages?
- E. Acervulina
- E. Necatrix
- E. Maxima
- E. Mitis
E. Acervulina & Mitis
163
Which Eimeria causes ladder-like white bands?
- E. Maxima
- E. Acervulina
- E. Tenella
- E. Mitis
E. Acervulina
164
Which is most probably not found in chicken?
- E. Necatrix
- E. Duodenalis
- E. Maxima
- E. Flavescens
E. Duodenalis & E. Flavescens
165
Which Eimeria sp./spp. have 6-7 day prepatent period?
a.E. tenella
b. E. necatrix
c. E. brunetti
d. E. maxima
E. Tenella & E. Necatrix
166
How does piegeons aqquire trichomonas?
- Cyst in water
- from each other (returgation feeding)
- both
- none of them
Both
167
General trichomonas in pidgeons?
- penguin like posture
- brain oedema
- pneumonia
- paralysis
penguin like posture
168
Geographical region with tritrichomonas problems?
- Europe
- Certain states of america
- Asia
- Africa
Certain states of america
169
How does T. foetus live in the genital tract?
a. Intracellularly
b. epicellularly
c. causing paracellular defect d.Intercellularly
epicellularly
170
What is/are the worst consequences in trichomonosis in cows?
a. Croupous vestibulitis
b. abortion (1st trim)
c. abortion (last trim)
d. pyometra
B & d
171
How does T. gallinae reach the liver?
a.haematogenously
b. from navel
c. from oesophagus
d. from heart apex
From navel
172
Which clinical sign isn’t characteristic of turkey histomonosis?
a. Head cyanosis
b. yellow diarrhoea
c. drowsiness
d. lowering wings
Head cyanosis
173
Where does the skin abcess of entamoeba come from?
- abcess in spleen
- abcess in liver
- abcess in intestines
Abcess in the liver
174
Which of the following is/are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica trophoziotes?
a. Size max.100um
b. eccentric endosome
c. blunt chromatidal bars
d. phagocytosed RBCs
B & d
175
Chronic granulomatosus encephalitis is caused by?
- Acanthamoeba castellani
176
What causes anosmia (loss of smell)?
Entamoeba histolytica
177
Entamoeba attacks:
-WBCs
- RBCs
- muscles tissues
RBCs
178
How can a dog become infected with Acanthamoeba castellani?
- From water (Contact with still water and through skin lesions).
- Horse: By inhalation
179
Where is acanthocephalosis found ?
- Large intestines
- Small intestines
- Ceacum
- Liver
Small intestines
180
What is the form Naegleria fowleri does NOT have?
- 1 flagellum
- 2 flagellum
1 because it’s a Biflagellar form
181
What is the acute primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by?
- Naegleria fowleri
182
What is true for infection with Amoeba?
a) Large cyst
b) Large nucleus
c) both
d) none of them
Large cyst
183
What is shape and size of Naegleria cyst?
- Nucleated, oval, 15-20
- Uninucleated, osteolum, round, 10-12
- Uninucleated, triangle shape, 12-14
Uninucleated, osteolum, round, 10-12
184
What belongs to alveolata?
-Apicomplexa, Ciliophora
185
Which statement is NOT true for the development of Eimeria species ?
- Schizogony is initiated epithelially or subepithelially
- Sporulated oocysts are more resistant than unsporulated ones
- Schizogony occurs in gametogony
- Occurence of meronts with few merozoites is not characteristic
- Schizogony is initiated epithelially or subepithelially (Schizogony is initiated epithelially ONLY!)
186
What eimeria causes haemorrhagic or fibrinous leisons in the caeca?
- E. Tenella
- E. Maxima
- E. Brunetti
- E. Necatrix
E. Brunetti
187
Not causing neurological symptoms ?
- Eimeria of chicken
- Eimeria of turkey
- Eimeria of cattle
Eimeria of turkeys
188
Which turkey coccidium is at most forward ?
- E. meleagridis
- E. Duodenalis
- E. Adenoid
- E. Gallopavonis
E. Meleagridis
189
The most pathogenic turkey coccidium?
- E. meleagridis
- E. Duodenalis
- E. Adenoid
- E. Gallopavonis
E. Meleagritis
190
Which one is not found in turkey?
a) E.duodenalis
b) E. gallopavonis
c) E.adenoid
d) E.meleagridis
E. Duodenalis
191
Which Coccidia does NOT cause CNS signs in birds?
- chicken
- pigeon
- turkey
- duck
Chicken, pigeon, turkey
(In ducks: causes cerebellar lesions)
192
Goose kidney coccidium?
- E. Gallopavonis
- E.truncata
- E. Meleagritis
E. Truncata
193
Which Eimeria species have prepatent period of 5 days?
- Eimeria maxima
- Eimeria brunetti
- Eimeria Evansi
- Eimeria Tenella
E. Brunetti
194
If Eimeria oocysts are recognised in dog faeces, then;
a. faeces is surely fresh
b. belong to dogs as hosts, no patho significance
c. pseudoparasites
d. false diagnosis
B & C
195
Dog coccidiosis? -
- is host specific
- homoxenous parasite
- both
- none of them
Both
196
Whichspecies does not have Eimeria?
a) Carnivores
b) Cattle
c) Swine
d) Horse
Carnivores
197
Which of the following does NOT cause haemorrhages?
- E. Brunetti
- E.Truncata
- E. Tenella
- E. Necatrix
E. Truncata
198
Which eimeria spieces occurs in goat?
- E. Anatis
- E. Danailovi
- E. ninakohlyakimvae
- E. Aubernensis
E. ninakohlyakimvae
199
What is the characteristic colour of necrotic debris during adenoeides coccidiosis?
- black
- red
- white
- yellow
White
200
What is not characteristic during pig coccidiosis?
- Haemorrhagic enteritis
- Yellow diarrhea
- Lesions in SI mucosa
- epithelium destruction
Haemorrhagic enteritis
201
Where are the lesions caused by Isospora suis mostly situated?
- Jejunum
- ileum
- caecum
- duodenum
Jejunum
202
Which genus has sporulated oocysts with 2 sporocysts?
– Isospora
203
Which Eimeria sp. may have a high pathogenicity similar to E. zuernii?
a. E. alabamensis
b. E. aubernensis
c. E. ellipsoidalis
d. E. subspherica
E. alabamensis
204
Please select the moderately pathogenic Eimeria sp./spp. for which location is correct
a. E. intestinalis- caecum
b. E. magna- duodenum
c. E. irresidua- jejunum
d. E. piriformis- caecum
C
205
Which of the highly pathogenic eimeria specie is in right location?
- E. Piriformis in duodenum
- E. Flavecens in ceacum
- E. Intestinalis in rectum
- E. Coecicola in ileum
E. Flavecens in ceacum
206
Which coccidia has 4 sporocysts with 4 sporozoites in each?
– Weyonella (coccidiosis of duck)
207
Which one causes catarrhal hemorrhagic inflammation in pheasant?
- E.colchici
208
Where does Eimeria labbeana develop?
- Chicken, caecum
- Pheasant, ileum
- Rabbit, jejunum
- Pigeon, small Intestine
Pigeon, SI
209
What characteristic lesion of horse coccidiosis in s. intestines?
a. lesions on outside of intestine b. croupous-diphtheritic inflammation
c. haemorrhagic inflammation
d. catarrhal inflammation
D
210
What type of oocyst in E. leukarti?
- Oval, 50um, thin wall
- Triangular, 25um, normal wall
- Piriform, 80um, thickwall
Piriform, 80um, thickwall
211
Where does the merozoite develop?
- Inside schizont
- Inside cysts
- Inside Gamont
- Inside eggs
Inside schizont
212
How many cells can be infected by a merozoite of Eimeria?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
1
213
What does the sporulated oocyst of coccidiosis contain?
- 2 sporocysts and 2 sporozoites
- 4 sporocysts and 8 sporozoites
- 2 sporocysts and 4 sporozoites
- 4 sporocysts and 2 sporozoites
4 sporocysts and 2 sporozoites
214
How many gamonts can develop from one schizont?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- Many
Many
215
How many epithelial cells can become infected by 1 Eimeria oocyst at the beginning of infection?
- 2 cells
- 4 cells
- 6 cells
- 8 cells
8 cells (4 sporocysts with 2 sporozoites in each)
216
How many cells can be infected by the content of one Eimera oocyst?
- 2
- 4
- 6
- 8
8
217
How many epithelial cells can be infected by the content of one schizont of Eimera?
- 1
- None
- Many
Many
218
How many epithelial cells can be infected by the content of one Eimera sporocyst?
- 2
- 4
- 6
- 8
8
219
How can we recognize chicken coccidia by species in the most simple way?
- Based on necroscopy findings
- Based on clinical signs
- Based on species
Based on necroscopy findings
220
In order to identify the species of a sporulated oocyte, what of the following is needed?
- Size of oocyte
- Shape of oocyte
- Colour with staining
- Capsule thickness
Size of oocyte
221
What does the unsporulated oocyst contain?
A: Sporocyst
B: Zygote
C: Embryo
D: Sporont
Zygote
222
What does the sporulated oocysts contain?
A: Macrogamont
B: Zygote
C: Embryo
D: Sporocysts
Sporocysts
223
Where does the sporozoite develop?
A: In the schizont
B: In the oocyst
C: In the merozoite
D: In the intestine
In the oocyst
224
Where does the sporogony of Eimera maxima, acervulina, brunetti take place?
A: In outer environment
B: In the lumen of intestine
C: In the epithel of jejunum
D: In the schizonts
In outer environment
225
Which animal species can be infected by Eimera acervulina?
A: Chickens
B: Chickens and pheasants
C: Gallinaceous birds
D: Domestic birds
Chickens
226
Where do the Eimera acervulina gamonts develop?
A: Duodenum and jejunum
B: Colon
C: Caecum
D: Ileum
Duodenum and jejunum
227
What can we observe on the surface of mucosa in case of E. necatrix infection?
A: Unclotted blood
B: Necrosis
C: Pink Exudate
D: White foci
Unclogged blood
228
Where do the Eimera brunetti schizonts develop?
A: Jejunum
B: Lower part of intestine
C: Gizzard
D: Duodenum
Lower part of intestines
229
Where do the Eimera tenalla schizonts develop?
- jejunum
- Ileum
- Caecum
- duodenum
Caecum
230
Which symptom does not appear in case of renal coccidiosis?
- bloody feces
- weakness
- torticolis
- paralysis
Bloody feces
231
Which Eimeria species causes sunken eyes and vertigo?
- E. Brunetti
- E. Necatrix
- E. Tenella
- E. Truncata
E. Truncata
232
Which Eimeria species causes salt and pepper lesions?
- E. Brunetti
- E. Necatrix
- E. Tenella
- E. Truncata
E. necatrix
233
Some blood-sucking files are ……. Of Trypanosoma Brucei Evansi :
• biological vectors
• Mechanical vectors
• Intermediate hosts
• Final hosts
Mechanical
234
Which statement is true.
E. maxima has a 30x20 μm oocyst that is characteristic
235
how many eimeria affects the horse?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 1 (E. leuckarti)
236
During gametogony when the merozoites develop into the female gametocytes they are called?
Macrogametocytes
237
Where is the E. truncata primarily located?
- heart
- Liver
- Renal tubules
- bladder
Renal tubules
238
Which Eimeria spp. is highly pathogenic in cattle?
E. zuernii
E. bovis
E. Evansi
E. Parva
E. Zuernii & Bovis
239
To whom are Hammondia spp. closely related genetically?
Toxoplasma gondii
