Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

finals > PSA > Flashcards

PSA Flashcards

1
Q

Paracetamol prescription + when to lower

A

1g QDS PO

If <50kg or severe liver failure give 500mg QDS instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ibuprofen prescription

A

400mg QDS PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypoglycaemia

A

10% 200ml (10-15g) glucose over 15 minutes

Or glucose 20% 50-100ml over 15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DKA

A

50 units (0.5ml) insulin in 50ml normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hyperkalaemia - drugs to give

A

10 units actrapid in 50ml 50% glucose over 30 minutes

10ml 10% calcium gluconate over 10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pulmonary oedema

A

IV furosemide 20-50mg OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What to give if INR >1.5 day before surgery

A

phytomenadione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Codeine dose

A

30-60mg QDS PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drugs causing hypernatraemia

A 
Diuretics
Sodium bicarbonate
Sodium chloride
Corticosteroids
Anabolic steroids
Adrenocorticotrophic steroids
Androgens
Oestrogens
Lithium due to diabetes insipidus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drugs causing hyponatraemia

A

Eplerenone – mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist
Loop diuretics
Thiazides - indapamide
Drugs that cause SIADH (carbamazepine, omeprazole, SSRI/ TCA, fluoxetine, sertraline, SU, vincristine, cyclophosphamide, chlorpromazine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Drugs causing hyperkalaemia

A

Eplerenone, spironolactone
ARBs, ACEi – block aldosterone production NSAIDS + Impaired excretion of K (metformin, gentamicin)
Trimethoprim
Dalteparin, Enoxaparin /any heparin – inhib aldosterone synthesis
Tacrolimus
Amiloride, triamterene = potassium sparing diuretic
Ciclosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Drugs causing hypokalaemia

A

Thiazide
Loop diuretics
Acetazolamide
Salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Increased QTc

A

o Second generation anti-psychotics (olanzapine)
o Anti-depressants - venlafaxine, citalopram
o Anti-emetics - mainly ondansetron but also metoclopramide - Cyclizine is drug of choice in those at risk
o Sotalol
o Anti-arrhythmics - flecainide, amiodarone
o Antibiotics - ciprofloxacin, erythromycin
o Ketoconazole
o Methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Increased INR

A 
o	Sodium valproate 
o	Isoniazid
o	Cimetidine
o	Ketoconazole
o	Fluconazole
o	Alcohol (binge)
o	Chloramphenicol
o	Erythromycin 
o	Sulphonamides
o	Quinolones e.g. Ciprofloxacin
o	Omeprazole
o	Metronidazole 
o	Others - tamoxifen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Decreased INR

A

o PCBRAS

Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Barbituates
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic)
SU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 drugs that can cause pancytopenia

A

Azathioprine and allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diarrhoea

A 
o	Alendronic acid 
o	Lansoprazole and all other PPIs
o	NSAIDS
o	Metformin
o	SSRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vancomycin monitoring - what to do

A

Measure trough levels just before dose - 10-20mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lithium monitoring

A

Take 12 hours post dose - aim for 0.4 –1  mmol/litre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Digoxin monitoring

A

6 hours post dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What phenytoin level aim for

A

The usual total plasma-phenytoin concentration for optimum response is 10–20 mg/litr - trough level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When to stop statins

A

Stop if LFT > 3x upper limit of normal or if CK is > 5x upper limit normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Best opioid for renal failure

A

fentanyl patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What opioid is good if sx of nausea/ hallucinations

A

oxycodone (constipation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

100mg of codeine/ tramadol/ dihydrocodeine = how much oral morphine

A

10mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Should aspirin be avoided in breast feeding

A

Yes due to risk of Reyes syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Drugs that worsen seizure control in epileptics

A 
alcohol, cocaine, amphetamines
ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
aminophylline, theophylline
bupropion
methylphenidate (used in ADHD)
mefenamic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Things that increase INR

A 
liver disease
P450 enzyme inhibitors (see below)
cranberry juice
drugs which displace warfarin from plasma albumin, e.g. NSAIDs
inhibit platelet function: NSAIDs
antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, clarithromycine/erythromycin
isoniazid
cimetidine,omeprazole
amiodarone
allopurinol
imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline
ritonavir
sodium valproate
acute alcohol intake
quinupristin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What drug reduces hypo awareness

A

Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How to take bisphosphonates

A

The current BNF advice on how to take oral bisphosphonates is ‘Tablets should be swallowed whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing; to be taken on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast (or another oral medicine); patient should stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking tablet’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Unsafe drugs in pregnancy

A 
Antibiotics
tetracyclines e.g. doxy
aminoglycosides e.g. gent 
sulphonamides and trimethoprim
quinolones e.g. ciprofloxacin
Other drugs
ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists
statins
warfarin
sulfonylureas
retinoids (including topical)
cytotoxic agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Things that precipitate lithium toxicity

A

dehydration
renal failure
drugs: diuretics (especially thiazides), ACE inhibitors/angiotensin II receptor blockers, NSAIDs and metronidazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where to find benzodiazepine conversions

A

Hypnotics and anxiolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Asthma acute management - where to find

A

Airways disease, obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where to find steroid dose conversions

A

Glucocorticoid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How to find combined pill on BNF

A

ETHINYLESTRADIOL WITH DESOGESTREL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How to find hyperkalaemia on BNF

A

Fluids and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

where to find drugs to stop before surgery

A

Surgery and long term medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what drug should be stopped when starting an ACEi

A

Potassium sparing diuretics e.g spironolactone due to risk of hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

where to find info on ACEi

A

Drugs affecting the renin-angiotensin system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where to find pneumonia

A

respiratory infections, antibacterial therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where to find infective endocarditis

A

Cardiovascular system infections, antibacterial therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Enoxaparin dose

A

100mg/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where to find b12 deficiency/ anaemia

A

Megaloblastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where to find notifiable diseases

A

antibacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

where to find osteomyelitis

A

Musculoskeletal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bad side effect of gliptins

A

Pancreatitis, angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Alternative to HRT if not want hormones

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What to do if miss POP

A

If over 12 hours late - take pill as soon as you remember, continue normal regime, use barrier methods for 2 days

50
Q

Reversal agent for heparin

A

Protamine sulfate

51
Q

Interaction between clopidogrel and omeprazole

A

Reduced clopidogrel efficacy

52
Q

What anticoagulant to use in heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

Argatroban

53
Q

When to stop anticoags/ anti platelets before surgery

A

Warfarin - 5 days before, bridge with LMWH
LMWH - day before
Aspirin/ clopidogrel - 7d before

54
Q

ACEi - when to stop dose

A

<20% rise in creatinine, <15% fall in GFR - cont

> 20%, >15% remeasure in 2w

If >30% rise in creatinine or >25% rise in GFR - stop

55
Q

SE of ACEi

A

Angioedema, High K+, cough, hypoglycaemia, first dose hypotension

56
Q

SE of CCB

A

peripheral oedema, headache, flushing, constipation

57
Q

SE of beta blockers

A 
Bradycardia
Bronchoconstriction in asthma
Erectile dysfunction 
Claudication 
Reduced hypo sensitivity
Insomnia
58
Q

drugs causing angioedema

A

Nicorandil, ACEi, NSAID, gliptins

59
Q

Drugs causing flushing

A

Nitrates, nicorandil, CCB, vasodilators, morphine, cholinergic drugs, tamoxifen

60
Q

What diuretic precipitates gout

A

Loop - furosemide

61
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in PVD/ Leg ulcers

A

Beta blockers - ACEi if critical limb ischaemia

62
Q

drugs that exacerbate heart failure

A 
Diltiazem, verapamil
Prednisolone
NSAIDS
Thiazolidinediones – water retention
Cyclizine – water retention -> pulmonary oedema
63
Q

what to monitor in eplerenone and spironolactone

A

Potassium levels

64
Q

What to give for hypoglycaemia if patient unconscious in hospital and on anticoagulants

A

20% 50-100ml glucose solution

65
Q

what to do if myopathy and raised CK when on statin

A

Stop statin, monitor for improvement in sx and CK then consider restarting statin at a lower dose

66
Q

What drug type should not be prescribed with beta blockers?

A

CCBs e.g. verapamil, diltiazem is better

67
Q

Gentamicin levels

A

Peak - 5-10

Trough (1 hour before) <2

68
Q

Furosemide interaction with gentamicin/ vancomycin

A

Gent - nephrotoxicity + ototoxicity

Vanc - Ototoxicity

69
Q

Drugs contraindicated with methotrexate

A

NSAID, trimethoprim, ciprofloxacin

Trimethoprim and methotrexate = folate antagonists and taken together there is an increased risk of bone marrow toxicity and neutropenic sepsis

70
Q

When to withdraw methotrexate treatment

A

If significant drop in WCC, development of stomatitis or diarrhoea

71
Q

What drug when given with ciprofloxacin can increase risk of seizures

A

NSAID - e.g. ibuprofen

72
Q

What abx should be stopped in diarrhoea

A

Clindamycin - can cause colitis

73
Q

Abx that can cause photosensitivity and tooth discolouration

A

doxycycline

74
Q

TB drug that can cause visual disturbance

A

Ethambutol

75
Q

Drugs that can cause serotonin syndrome

A

SSRI’s, MOAi, Bupropion, TCA, opioids, carbamazepine, triptans, lithium, metoclopramide, ondansetron, tramadol

76
Q

Why cant take TCA with alcohol

A

Can cause respiratory depression

77
Q

What is the max dose of citalopram in elderly

A

20mg

78
Q

SE of glucocorticoids e.g. pred

A

Hyperglycaemia, osteoporosis, peptic ulceration, proximal myopathy, mood changes, weight gain

79
Q

SE of mineralocorticoids e.g. fludrocortisone

A

Hypertension, water retention, hypernatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia

80
Q

Drugs that worsen GORD

A

Reduce oesophageal sphincter tone: CCBs, anticholinergics, theophylline, benzodiazepines and nitrates

Alpha-blocker, anticholinergics (e.g. oxybutynin), benzodiazepines, beta-blockers, bisphosphonates, CCBs, corticosteroids, nitrates, theophyllines, TCAs, SSIRs

Bisphosphonate’s cause irritation of oesophagus

81
Q

What maintenance fluid should be voided in stroke patients

A

Dextrose - increases the risk of cerebral oedema

82
Q

When to start N-acetylcysteine without awaiting blood levels

A

If staggered dose

If taken > 150mg/kg

83
Q

What dose of atorvastatin should be given in primary prevention vs secondary prevention

A

10mg ON vs 80mg ON

84
Q

What to monitor for digoxin

A

Monitor for reduction in ventricular rate

For plasma-digoxin concentration assay, blood should be taken at least 6 hours after a dose.

Monitor serum electrolytes and renal function. Toxicity increased by electrolyte disturbances

85
Q

How to write in dose for inhaler

A

number of puffs

86
Q

Drugs given ON

A

Statins, SU, sleeping tablets, Amitriptyline, Senna

87
Q

Which antiemetic causes extrapyramidal side effects and which should be avoided in heart failure

A

Metoclopramide - EPSE

Cyclizine - causes fluid retention so should be avoided

88
Q

how to tell how much fluid depletion to correct

A

Urine output <30ml/hr = 500ml
Urine < 30 + tachycardia = 1L
Urine + tachycardia + hypotension = 1.5-2L

89
Q

Which AF medication is contradicted for people with stuctural heart defect

A

Flecainide

90
Q

Drugs for pharmacological VTE prophylaxis

A 
low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
dabigatran
rivaroxaban
apixaban
fondaparinux
unfractionated heparin (UFH) (for patients with renal failure)
91
Q

Drugs to use with caution in ischaemic heart disease

A

NSAIDs
oestrogens: e.g. combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy
varenicline

92
Q

Signs of opioid overdose

A

intractable nausea, hallucinations,

drowsiness, myoclonic jerks, pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression

93
Q

What antiemetic to give with morphine in adults and kids

A

Adults: metoclopramide
Children: ondansetron

94
Q

Drugs to stop prior to surgery

A

Insulin:

  • Sliding scale for major surgery
  • Reduce bedtime dose and omit morning dose in minor surgery

Lithium:
- day before for major surgery otherwise continue

Anticoagulants and Antiplatelets:

  • Warfarin 5 days before with LMWH bridging (give a dose of vitamin K if the INR >1.5 on the day before surgery)
  • Antiplatelets 5-7 days before
  • Aspirin is variable and is occasionally continued, may stop a week before

COCP/HRT:
- 4 weeks before any major invasive surgery

K sparing diuretics:
- on day of surgery

Oral hypoglycaemics:

  • Metformin 48h before and restart 4 days later when renal function is okay
  • Omit others on morning of operation

Perindopril and ACEi:
- 24 hours before in some cases

95
Q

Adrenaline dose for cardiac arrest vs anaphylaxis

A

Cardiac arrest - 1mg 10ml 1:10000 slow IV

Anaphylaxis - 0.5mg 0.5 1:1000 IM

96
Q

What to give in acute bradycardia

A

Atropine 500mcg IV

97
Q

SVT drug treatment

A

Adenosine 6mg IV (followed by 2 further 12mg doses)

98
Q 
Palliative care meds for:
Resp distress
Secretions 
Confusion + hallucinations 
Confusion w.out hallucinations 
N+V
A 
Resp distress - oramorph
Secretions - hyoscine butylbromide
Confusion + hallucinations - haloperidol
Confusion alone - midazolam 
N+V - haloperidol or cyclizine
99
Q

What laxative to use when

  • acute/ opioid
  • faecal impaction
  • chronic/ elderly/ pregnant
A

For acute and opiate constipation, use a stimulant laxative such as senna (7.5-15mg
PO ON)

For faecal impaction, use an osmotic laxative such as Macrogol oral powder
(Movicol) 1-2 sachets PO OD/BD/TDS

For chronic constipation or in elderly/pregnant patients, use a bulk laxative such as
Ispaghula husk (Fybogel) 1 sachet PO BD
100
Q

One drug that can dangerously increase INR when given with warfarin

A

erythromycin

101
Q

NSAID contraindications

A

Clotting issues, renal failure, dyspepsia/ indigestion, asthma, heart failure

Aspirin not contraindicated in HF, Renal failure, asthma

102
Q

Fluid boluses what to give and when

A

Normally - 500ml 0.9% NaCl over 15 mins

If also have heart failure - 250ml 0.9% NaCl over 15 mins

103
Q

What type of patient should not be given metoclopramide/ haloperidol

Domperidone is safe as does not cross BBB

A

Parkinsons patient

104
Q

Drugs contraindicated in asthma

A

Beta blocker, NSAID,

105
Q

contraindications for COCP

A 
Current breast cancer
smoking if >35yo 
hypertension >160
migraine with aura 
PVD
106
Q

Drugs causing low platelets

A

Penicillamine, heparin

107
Q

Normal TSH range

A

0.5-5

If <0.5 decrease dose
If >5 increase dose

108
Q

Drugs that can cause cholestasis

A

Flucloxacillin, coamoxiclav, nitrofurantoin, erythromycin, carbamazepine, chlorpromazine, OCP, steroids and sulphonylureas.

109
Q

Lithium toxicity

A

Early: tremor
Intermediate: tiredness
Late: arrhythmias, seizures, coma, renal failure
and diabetes insipidus

110
Q

Reversal agent for benzodiazepines

A

Flumazenil

111
Q

Complication associated with clindamycin

A

Antibiotic induced colitis

112
Q

Drugs with anticholinergic/ Antimuscarinics SE

A 
prochlorperazine 
Cyclizine
Hyoscine butylbromide 
Atropine
Cyclopentolate 
oxybutynin 
ipra/tiotropium 
clozapine/ onlanzapine 
amitriptyline
113
Q

What does hydroxocobalamin treat

A

Vit B12 deficiency

114
Q

What does tamoxifen increase the risk of

A

VTE, endometrial cancer

115
Q

What drug should always be given alongside methotrexate

A

Folic acid

116
Q

Pain relief in kids + what antiemetic to give with morphine

A

<3m - paracetamol
>3m - paracetamol and ibuprofen

Give ondansetron alongside morphine in kids

117
Q

TB drug causing orange/red tears/urine
TB drug causing gout
TB drug causing optic neuritis

A

Rifampicin - urine
Pyrizinamide - gout
Ethambutol

118
Q

What drug causes red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin

119
Q

What abx causes maculopapular rash with EBV

A

Amoxicillin

120
Q

Drugs causing photosensitivity

A

tetracyclines, SSRI, cipro, amiodarone, retinoids

121
Q

Drugs that can cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

BANS ME

Bleomycin, Amiodarone, Nitrofurantoin, Sulfasalazine, MEthotrexate

122
Q

Drugs that can cause neuropathy

A

Amiodarone, isoniazid, metronidazole, nitrofurantoin, vincristine, phenytoin

finals (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions