PSA

Question 1

What percentage of potassium correlates with 20mmols?

Answer 1

0.15%

Question 2

What percentage of potassium correlates with 40mmol?

Answer 2

0.3%

Question 3

How much hydrocortisone is 5mg prednisolone equivalent to?

Answer 3

20mg

Question 4

How much dexamethasone is 5mg prednisolone equivalent to?

Answer 4

750micrograms

Question 5

Name some stimulant laxatives?

Answer 5

Senna
Bisacodyl
Rectal glycerol suppository

Question 6

When is bisacodyl contraindicated?

Answer 6

Bowel obstruction
Acute abdominal conditions
Acute IBD
Severe dehydration

Question 7

Name some osmotic laxatives?

Answer 7

Lactulose
Macrogol

Question 8

How does macrogol work?

Answer 8

Draws water in from large bowel

Question 9

When is macrogol not recommended?

Answer 9

If patient already bloated - SE is bloating

Question 10

What kind of laxative is docusate?

Answer 10

Softener & stimulant

Question 11

Name some bulk forming laxatives?

Answer 11

Ispaghula husk
Methylcellulose
Sterculia

Question 12

When are bulk forming laxatives indicated?

Answer 12

Adults with small hard stools if fibre cannot be increased in the diet.

Question 13

What symptoms may be exacerbated with BFL?

Answer 13

Symptoms of flatulence, bloating, and cramping

Question 14

How long do BFL take to work?

Answer 14

72hrs

Question 15

How do you treat patients with opioid induced constipation?

Answer 15

An osmotic laxative (or docusate sodium to soften the stools) and a stimulant laxative is recommended.

Question 16

What should be avoided in opioid induced constipation?

Answer 16

Bulk-forming laxatives

Question 17

What does co- codamol contain?

Answer 17

Paracetamol and codeine

Question 18

Post- op pain ladder?

Answer 18

1. Reg paracetamol
2. Reg codeine/ dihydrocodeine
3. Reg/ PRN morphine sulphate (modified release)
   4.. Reg/ PRN morphine sulphate (immediate release)

Question 19

When is fluid resuscitation used?

Answer 19

When haemodynamically unstable

Question 20

When is replacement used?

Answer 20

Losses e.g. N&V, DKA

Question 21

When is maintenance used?

Answer 21

Nil by mouth

Question 22

How much water /kg per day in maintenance ?

Answer 22

25-30ml/kg/day

Question 23

How much Na+/K+/Cl- /kg per day in maintenance ?

Answer 23

1mmol/ kg

Question 24

How much glucose per day in maintenance ?

Answer 24

50-100g/ day

Question 25

How many grams of glucose is in 1000ml 5% dextrose?

Answer 25

50g

Question 26

What is the maximum rate for potassium?

Answer 26

DO NOT prescribe >10mmol per hour

Question 27

What is the risk when using large volumes of 0.9% saline?

Answer 27

Inc risk of hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

Question 28

When should 5% glucose be avoided and why?

Answer 28

Patients who have had a stroke Inc risk of cerebral oedema

Question 29

What should not be given with ibuprofen?

Answer 29

Steroids

Question 30

Minimum & maximum doses of bisoprolol?

Answer 30

Minimum = 1.25mg Maximum = 20mg

Question 31

Minimum & maximum doses of atorvastatin?

Answer 31

Minimum = 10mg Maximum = 80mg

Question 32

Starting dose of metformin?

Answer 32

500mg

Question 33

Drugs to consider in delirium/ acute confusion?

Answer 33

Zopiclone Analgesics Anticholinergics Antidepressants Antipsychotics Metoclopramide Electrolyte imbalance e.g. low Na+

Question 34

Which drugs can cause dehydration?

Answer 34

Diuretics

Question 35

When should metformin be withheld in renal impairment?

Answer 35

EGFR <30ml/ minute/ 1.73

Question 36

Name some CYP450 inhibitors

Answer 36

Omeprazole Amiodarone SSRI's Grapefruit juice Cimetidine Macrolides

Question 37

CYP450 inducers?

Answer 37

Carbamezapine Barbituates Phenytoin Rifampicin Pioglitazone Steroids Rifampicin

Question 38

What do CYP450 inducers do?

Answer 38

Inducers increase the expression level of CYP450 enzymes resulting in increased metabolism of drugs and subsequently reducing the therapeutic concentration.

Question 39

What do CYP450 inhibitors do?

Answer 39

Inhibitors prevent the CYP450 enzymes from working or reduce the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction. Consequently, this decreases drug metabolism in the body and increases the potential for toxicity.

Question 40

When is metaclopramide contraindicated?

Answer 40

Bowel obstruction be causious in delirium

Question 41

Micrograms to milligrams?

Answer 41

Divide by 1000

Question 42

Fluids in children?

Answer 42

100ml/kg for first 10kg 50ml/kg for next 10kg 20ml/kg for weight over 20kg

Question 43

How often is methotrexate taken?

Answer 43

Once a week

Question 44

Methotrexate + NSAIDS --> ?

Answer 44

Low platelet count

Question 45

Trimethoprim + methotrexate -->?

Answer 45

Bone marrow suppression

Question 46

PPIs + methotrexate --> ?

Answer 46

Inc levels of methotrexate

Question 47

What can a SE of furosemide be?

Answer 47

If given fast --> can cause deafness

Question 48

Common drugs related to ototoxicity?

Answer 48

Gentamicin Bumetanide Furosemide Vancomycin

Question 49

When is furosemide more likely to be ototoxic?

Answer 49

IV administration If patient has renal impairment

Question 50

4 C's for C. diff?

Answer 50

Clindamycin Co- amoxiclav Ciprofloxacin Cephalosporins (ceftriaxone, cefalexin)

Question 51

Clarithromycin + simvastatin --> ?

Answer 51

increases the exposure to Simvastatin

Question 52

Common symptoms of opioid toxicity?

Answer 52

Pinpoint pupils Coma Respiratory depression

Question 53

Antidote for opioid toxicity?

Answer 53

Naloxone

Question 54

When are pupils constricted?

Answer 54

Heroin Morphine Oxycodone Methadone Codeine Hydrocodone

Question 55

When are pupils dilated?

Answer 55

Amphetamines Methamphetamines Cocaine/ crack Hallucinogens Speed

Question 56

Phenytoin + oral contraceptives?

Answer 56

Potent CYP enzyme inducer and increases breakdown of oral contraceptives

Question 57

Treatment for drug induced extrapyramidal symptoms?

Answer 57

Procyclidine

Question 58

Serotonin syndrome?

Answer 58

Abrupt Rapidly resolving Myoclonus and tremor Inc reflexes Mydriasis

Question 59

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

Answer 59

Gradual Prolonged Diffuse rigidity Dec reflexes Hyperthermia

Question 60

What is NMS a SE of?

Answer 60

Antipsychotics

Question 61

Info on benzodiazepines?

Answer 61

Can affect driving/ operating machinery --> DVLA

Question 62

Extrapyramidal symptoms?

Answer 62

E.g. tremor, involuntary muscle contractions

Question 63

Atypical antipsychotics?

Answer 63

Quietapine, olanzapine

Question 64

SE of atypical antipsychotics?

Answer 64

Weight gain Diabetes Rise in serum lipids

Question 65

Examples of typical antipsychotics?

Answer 65

Chlorpromazine, haloperidol

Question 66

SE's of typical antipsychotics?

Answer 66

Acute dystonia Akathisia Restlessness Tardive dyskinesia

Question 67

Is ankle swelling related to dose of amlodipine?

Answer 67

No (don't tend to change dose)

Question 68

What is the risk of the quinolone ciprofloxacin?

Answer 68

Tendon rupture (achilles, elbow)

Question 69

What increases the risk of tendon rupture if on ciprofloxacin?

Answer 69

On steroids

Question 70

What is a SE of quinolone?

Answer 70

Prolong QT duration !!! Reduce seizure thresholds

Question 71

Drugs to be stopped in AKI?

Answer 71

NSAIDs Aminoglycosides ACEI ARB Diuretics

Question 72

Function of calcium gluconate in hyperkalaemia?

Answer 72

Stabalisation of cardiac membrane

Question 73

Function of insulin dextrose/ salbutamol in hyperkalaemia?

Answer 73

Short-term shift in potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment

Question 74

Function of calcium resonium in hyperkalaemia?

Answer 74

Removal of potassium from body

Question 75

When does IM not work?

Answer 75

If cachetic

Question 76

Function of/ examples of SGLT2 inhibitors?

Answer 76

E.g. dapagliflozin Inhibits sodium- glucose co transporter in proximal tubule of nephron --> glucose secretion

Question 77

What to be way of with SGLT2i?

Answer 77

Euglycaemic DKA's UTI's

Question 78

Normalising CO2 on ABG?

Answer 78

BAD SIGN - can no longer breath out CO2

Question 79

Which medications may exacerbate heart failure?

Answer 79

TZD - pioglitazone Verapamil - neg inotropic effect NSAIDS Glucocorticoids Flecainide

Question 80

Antibiotics CI in pregnancy?

Answer 80

Tetracyclines Aminoglycosides Sulphonamides and trimethoprim Quinolones

Question 81

Drugs CI in pregnancy?

Answer 81

ACEI, ARB Statins Warfarin Sulphonylurea's Retinoids Cytotoxic agents

Question 82

Weight per volume - 20%?

Answer 82

20 grams per 100mls

Question 83

Weight per volume - 1%?

Answer 83

1 gram per 100mls

Question 84

Weight per weight?

Answer 84

1% w/w = 1g in 100grams

Question 85

What medications to stop for surgery?

Answer 85

ACEI ARBs Diuretics Anticoagulants + antiplatelets HRT and COCP Lithium NSAIDs

Question 86

How long before surgery should COCP be stopped?

Answer 86

4 weeks before

Question 87

Diabetic meds in surgery - which ones to stop/ alter?

Answer 87

Metformin - if OD/BD - continue, if TDS - stop lunchtime dose SGLT-2i - omit on day of surgery Sulphonylureas - omit morning dose

Question 88

TZD/ DPP4i GLP-1 in surgery?

Answer 88

Take as normal

Question 89

What can St John's wart syndrome contribute to?

Answer 89

Serotonin syndrome

Question 90

Cytochrome p450 inducers pneumonic?

Answer 90

SCRAP GP Sulphonylureas Carbamezapine Rifampicin Alcohol Phenytoin Griseofulvin Phenobarbitone

Question 91

CYP450 inhibitors pneumonic?

Answer 91

SICK FACES Sodium valproate Isoniazid Cimetidine Ketoconazole Fluconazole Alcohol & grapefruit juice Chloramphenicol Erythromycin Sulfonamides

Question 92

If NBM can patients take oral drugs?

Answer 92

No, must be IV

Question 93

Metformin important information?

Answer 93

Look for signs of lactic acidosis e.g. dyspnoea, muscle cramps, abdominal pain, hypothermia, asthenia

Question 94

Important info - sulphonylurea?

Answer 94

Signs of hypoglycaemia Higher risk in elderly or renal impairment

Question 95

SGLT2 inhibitors important info?

Answer 95

Signs of DKA, even if BM normal

Question 96

Important side effect to inform patient on - prednisolone?

Answer 96

Adrenal suppression

Question 97

Nitrates important info?

Answer 97

Can develop rapid tolerance

Question 98

Tamoxifen important info?

Answer 98

VTE risk - seek immediate medical attention if SOB

Question 99

SE's of bisphosphonates?

Answer 99

Atypical femoral fractures Osteonecrosis of the jaw

Question 100

Important info for all antipsychotics?

Answer 100

Photosensitisation Drowsiness Effects of alcohol enhanced

Question 101

Lithium important info?

Answer 101

Report signs of toxicity Hypothyroidism Renal dysfunction Benign ICH - headache, visual disturbance Maintain fluids Avoid dietary changes (which inc or dec sodium intake) Avoid NSAIDs

Question 102

Clozapine important info?

Answer 102

Risk of agranulocytosis

Question 103

Sodium valproate important info?

Answer 103

Appropriate contraception Exclude pregnancy

Question 104

What to look up if contraceptives & breast cancer?

Answer 104

Sex hormones

Question 105

Does combined HRT inc or dec risk of breast cancer?

Answer 105

Increases

Question 106

Effect of antidepressants on sodium?

Answer 106

Hyponatraemia (consider if drowsy, confused, convulsions)

Question 107

When should lithium levels be taken after dose?

Answer 107

12 hours

Question 108

Lithium monitoring?

Answer 108

measure levels 1 week after starting treatment, 1 week after every dose change ad then weekly until level stabilises

Question 109

Lithium monitoring when stable?

Answer 109

measure every 3 months for first year then 6 months thereafter

Question 110

Initial SE of lithium?

Answer 110

Diho, vertigo, weakness, dazed

Question 111

Long term SE of lithium?

Answer 111

Hypo/ hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, nephrotoxicity, renal tumours

Question 112

Once established - lithium monitoring?

Answer 112

Weight, U&E's, TFTs, Ca every 6 months

Question 113

When is levonorgestrel effective?

Answer 113

within 72hrs UPSI

Question 114

When is ulipristal acetate effective?

Answer 114

Within 120 hours UPSI

Question 115

Which hormonal emergency contraceptive is most effective?

Answer 115

Ulipristal acetate

Question 116

Hormonal emergency contraception if BMI >26 or weight >70kg?

Answer 116

Ulipristal acetate or Double dose levonorgestrel

Question 117

Treatment of VTE in pregnancy?

Answer 117

Dalteparin

Question 118

HRT if LMP <1yr ago?

Answer 118

cyclical combined

Question 119

HRT if LMP >1 yr ago?

Answer 119

Continuous combined

Question 120

If hysterectomy for endometriosis, do they need combined or oestrogen only HRT?

Answer 120

Need combined

Question 121

When should antiviral Tx be considered in shingles?

Answer 121

Immunocompromised Non- truncal involvement (neck, legs, perineum) Moderate to severe pain or rash >50 - to reduce post herpetic neuralgia

Question 122

If antivirals commenced for shingles - when?

Answer 122

Within 72hrs of rash

Question 123

Trigeminal neuralgia treatment?

Answer 123

Acute - carbamazepine

Question 124

When is digoxin toxicity worsened?

Answer 124

Hyperkalaemia

Question 125

When should digoxin levels be taken?

Answer 125

6 hrs after dose

Question 126

What monitoring is required for digoxin?

Answer 126

U&E's

Question 127

What should be added to bloods if K+ low?

Answer 127

Magnesium

Question 128

What can an adverse effect of carbimazole be?

Answer 128

Pancreatitis Neutropenia Agranulocytosis

Question 129

Drugs that cause agranulocytosis?

Answer 129

Clozapine Phenytoin Carbimazole

Question 130

What is trough concentration?

Answer 130

Pre- dose

Question 131

If trough gentamicin dose is high...?

Answer 131

Interval between doses should be increased

Question 132

What is peak concentration?

Answer 132

Post- dose

Question 133

If peak gentamicin dose high...?

Answer 133

Dose must be decreased

Question 134

What should be measured when using thiopurines

Answer 134

TPMT levels

Question 135

SE's of amiodarone?

Answer 135

Hepatotoxicity Thyroid (hyper/ hypo) Corneal microdeposits Pulmonary toxicity

Question 136

Important info for methotrexate?

Answer 136

Often stopped if acutely unwell Counsel to report signs of blood disorders

Question 137

Rate of sodium inc in 24 hrs for hyponatraemia?

Answer 137

No more than 10mmol/L in 24 hrs

Question 138

If on PPI and hyponatraemic what should you do?

Answer 138

Switch to famotidine

Question 139

SVT arrhythmia management?

Answer 139

Vagal manouvres IV adenosine (6-> 12 -> 18mg) Electrical cardioversion

Question 140

When is adenosine contraindicated?

Answer 140

Asthma COPD decompensated heart failure Long QT

Question 141

what medications are taken at night?

Answer 141

Statins Amitriptylline

Question 142

how much should levothyroxine be inc in pregnancy?

Answer 142

25-50mcg

Question 143

If INR ≥1.5 before surgery on warfarin?

Answer 143

Phytomenadione (vit K1)

Question 144

Who is at inc risk of bit D deficiency?

Answer 144

Asian women

Question 145

Drugs which dec serum potassium?

Answer 145

Thiazide diuretics Loop diuretics Acetazolamide

Question 146

Drugs which inc serum potassium?

Answer 146

ACEi Angiotensin- 2 receptor blockers Spironolactone Potassium supplements Potassium sparing diuretics

Question 147

SIADH

Answer 147

Hyponatraemia Euvolemic

Question 148

Mechanism of action - digoxin?

Answer 148

Dec conduction through AVN which slows ventricular rate in af and atrial flutter Inc force of cardiac muscle contraction Stimulates vagus nerve

Question 149

When should digoxin level be measured in suspected toxicity?

Answer 149

within 8-12 hrs of last dose

Question 150

Symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

Answer 150

Generally unwell Lethargy Nausea, vomiting Confusion Yellow/ green vision Arrhythmia Gynaecomastia

Question 151

What tends to precipitate digoxin toxicity?

Answer 151

Hypokalaemia

Question 152

Normal lithium range?

Answer 152

0.4-1.0mmol/L

Question 153

Ciclosporin drug monitoring?

Answer 153

Trough levels just before dose

Question 154

Phenytoin level monitoring?

Answer 154

Not routinely Trough levels immediately before dose if concerned

Question 155

Codeine equivalence of 10mg oral morphine sulphate?

Answer 155

100mg

Question 156

Nephrotoxicity due to contrast media?

Answer 156

25% inc in creatinine occurring within 3 days of IV administration of contrast media 2-5days after

Question 157

How to prevent contrast nephrotoxicity?

Answer 157

IV 0.9% sodium chloride at rate of 1ml/kg/hour for 12 hours pre and post procedure Withold metformin

Question 158

O2 management if risk factors for hypercapnia?

Answer 158

Prior to ABG's --> 28% venturi mask at 4l/min

Question 159

Causes of hyperkalaemia?

Answer 159

AKI Drugs Metabolic acidosis Addison's disease Rhabdomyolysis Massive blood transfusion

Question 160

Glucocorticoid meds effect on glucose?

Answer 160

Can cause hyperglycaemia

Question 161

Assisted alcohol withdrawal?

Answer 161

Long- acting benzodiazepine e.g. chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride

Question 162

Common adverse effect of beta blockers?

Answer 162

Erectile dysfunction

Question 163

What drug can induce cholestatic jaundice?

Answer 163

Flucloxacillin

Question 164

Citalopram + dabigatran?

Answer 164

Inc risk of bleeding

Question 165

ACEi effect on creatinine?

Answer 165

Small rise in creatinine (<20%) is to be expected when starting an ACEi & does not require investigation or change to prescription

Question 166

What should be measured when beta blocker used for af?

Answer 166

Heart rate

Question 167

Adverse effects of ciclosporin?

Answer 167

Nephrotoxicity Hypertension

Question 168

Aim for statin?

Answer 168

After 3 months – a >40% reduction in non- HDL cholesterol

Question 169

When is ondansetron contraindicated?

Answer 169

QT prolongation

Question 170

IV fluid resuscitation?

Answer 170

Use crystalloids that contain sodium with bolus of 500mls over <15mins Glucose not required

Question 171

if experience GI SE's with metformin?

Answer 171

Offer modified release

Question 172

Max dose of citalopram in elderly?

Answer 172

20mg daily

Question 173

Drugs which can cause diarrhoea?

Answer 173

Alendronic acid Lansoprazole

Question 174

Drugs that cause ankle oedema?

Answer 174

Amlodipine Naproxen

Question 175

First line therapy for c. diff?

Answer 175

Oral vanc

Question 176

Life threatening c. diff?

Answer 176

Oral Vanc and IV met

Question 177

Common SE of liraglutide (GLP-1)?

Answer 177

N&V

Question 179

What is prolonged corticosteroid use associated with?

Answer 179

Insomnia

Question 180

When is fentanyl a good option?

Answer 180

Patients with chronic kidney disease

Question 181

When is gradual withdrawal of systemic steroids indicated?

Answer 181

received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week received more than 3 weeks treatment recently received repeated courses

Question 182

Effect of carbamazepine on sodium?

Answer 182

Hyponatraemia

Question 183

Is warfarin safe in breastfeeding?

Answer 183

Yes

Question 184

Primary prevention atorvastatin dose?

Answer 184

20mg daily

Question 185

Secondary prevention atorvastatin dose?

Answer 185

80mg daily

Question 186

Drugs that should be used with caution in established ischaemic heart disease?

Answer 186

NSAIDS Oestrogens Varenicline

Question 187

Effect of P450 inducers on INR?

Answer 187

Decrease

Question 188

Effect of P450 inhibitors on INR?

Answer 188

Increase

Question 189

Verapamil + beta blocker -->?

Answer 189

Contraindicated Cause life threatening bradycardia

Question 190

Common adverse effects from amlodipine?

Answer 190

Ankle swelling Headache

Question 192

First line for C. diff?

Answer 192

Vancomycin 125mg QDS

Question 193

How to measure glucose control in DM?

Answer 193

HbA1c Home glucose readings

Question 194

Which drugs can reduce hypoglycaemic awareness?

Answer 194

Beta blockers

Question 195

Usual dose for Ibuprofen?

Answer 195

200-400mg tds

Question 196

Usual dose for codeine?

Answer 196

30-60mg qds

Question 197

Usual dose for metoclopramide?

Answer 197

10mg tds

Question 198

Usual dose for cyclizine?

Answer 198

50mg tds

Question 199

Usual dose for amoxicillin?

Answer 199

500mg tds

Question 200

Usual dose for paracetamol?

Answer 200

1g qds

Question 201

Usual dose for clarithromycin?

Answer 201

500mg bd

Question 202

Usual dose for Lansoprazole?

Answer 202

15-30mg

Question 203

Usual dose for omeprazole?

Answer 203

20-40mg

Question 204

Usual dose for clopidogrel?

Answer 204

75-300mg od

Question 205

Usual dose for aspirin?

Answer 205

75-300mg od

Question 206

Usual dose for simvastatin:?

Answer 206

10-80mg on

Question 207

Usual dose for atenolol?

Answer 207

25-100mg od

Question 208

Usual dose for ramipril?

Answer 208

1.25-10mg od

Question 209

Usual dose for bendroflumethiazide?

Answer 209

2.5mg od

Question 210

Usual dose for furosemide?

Answer 210

20 mg od - 80mg bd

Question 211

Usual dose for amlodipine?

Answer 211

5-10mg od

Question 212

Usual dose for levothyroxine?

Answer 212

25-200mcg od

Question 213

Usual dose for metformin?

Answer 213

500mg od - 1g bd

Question 214

Dose for breakthrough pain?

Answer 214

1/6 of total morphine dose

Question 215

Which medications are usually take at night?

Answer 215

Statins Amitriptyline

Question 216

How long is tamoxifen taken for breast cancer?

Answer 216

5 years

Question 217

Important info about tamoxifen?

Answer 217

VTE Hot flushes

Question 218

Medications that can be used for smoking cessation?

Answer 218

Varenicline Bupropion hydrochloride

Question 219

E.g. of ICS and LABA inhalers?

Answer 219

Formoterol with budesonide Formoterol with beclometasone Salmeterol with fluticasone

Question 220

When is pioglitazone contraindicated?

Answer 220

Hx of bladder cancer Hx of heart failure DKA

Question 221

Treatment for mild acute migraine?

Answer 221

Aspirin/ NSAID/ triptan?

Question 222

Treatment for moderate to severe acute migraine?

Answer 222

Triptan and anti- emetic

Question 223

Volume of glucose 10% infusion?

Answer 223

150-200ml

Question 224

Volume of glucose 20% infusion?

Answer 224

75-100ml

Question 225

Fluids containing sufficient sodium chloride without excessive potassium chloride?

Answer 225

Sodium chloride 0.9% Hartmann's solution Ringer's solution Plasmalyte

Question 226

Common side effect of tacrolimus?

Answer 226

Tremor

Question 227

SE's of empagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitor)?

Answer 227

Hypovolaemia Thirst UTI's Urosepsis

Question 228

Why can hypovolaemia contribute to postural hypotension?

Answer 228

Reduced blood volume is insufficient to maintain stable BP during position changes esp against force of gravity when standing

Question 229

Effect of amitriptyline on QT interval?

Answer 229

Prolonged

Question 230

Common SE of dexamethasone if taken at night?

Answer 230

Insomnia

Question 231

When should nitrofurantoin be avoided?

Answer 231

eGFR <45

Question 232

What bacteria is cefalexin effective agains?

Answer 232

Many gram + e.g. staph aureus and strep Some gram - e.g. E.coli

Question 233

Primary treatment for hypercalcaemia?

Answer 233

Rehydration with sodium chloride 0.9%

Question 234

Early signs of agranulocytosis?

Answer 234

mouth ulcers sore throat fever infective symptoms

Question 235

What happens if calcium and iron taken at same time?

Answer 235

Dec absorption of iron

Question 236

How should rivaroxaban be taken?

Answer 236

With food!

Question 237

Indicators of onset of hepatic necrosis?

Answer 237

RUQ tenderness Hepatomegaly

Question 238

What can co- amoxiclav be assoc. with?

Answer 238

Adverse hepatic events e.g. cholestasis, jaundice, elevated ALP/ GGT/ ?bilirubin

Question 239

Trimethoprim + methotrexate -->?

Answer 239

Folate deficiency which manifests as bone marrow suppression

Question 240

Can statin be continued if transaminases are raised?

Answer 240

Yes, if less than 3x the upper limit of normal

Question 241

When is eplerenone contraindicated?

Answer 241

Ongoing hyperkalaemia

Question 242

What to monitor if on mineralocorticoid therapy?

Answer 242

U&E's

Question 243

Methylphenidate monitoring?

Answer 243

BP Pulse Appetite Height Weight Psych disorders?

Question 244

Isotretinoin monitoring?

Answer 244

Serum lipids LFT's

Question 245

LMWH monitoring?

Answer 245

Platelet counts

Question 246

Sulfasalazine monitoring?

Answer 246

FBC

Question 247

First line treatment for open angle glaucoma?

Answer 247

Latanoprost

Question 248

Resus fluids?

Answer 248

0.9% sodium chloride Hartmann's Plasma- Lyte

Question 249

When is ulipristal acetate contraindicated?

Answer 249

Asthma

Question 250

Ibuprofen + ramipril-->?

Answer 250

Inc risk of nephrotoxicity and hyperkalaemia

Question 251

Pain relief for mild/ mod cholecystitis?

Answer 251

Paracetamol Anti- inflammatory drugs

Question 252

Pain relief for severe cholecystitis pain?

Answer 252

IM diclofenac

Question 253

Features of essential tremor?

Answer 253

Symmetrical High frequency Suppressed with concentration Improves with alcohol

Question 254

Ferrous fumarate dose?

Answer 254

210mg

Question 255

Naloxone dose?

Answer 255

400mcg IV

Question 256

Treatment for fungal nail infection?

Answer 256

Terbinafine

Question 257

First line anti- emetic in Parkinson's disease?

Answer 257

Domperidone

Question 258

Wart treatment?

Answer 258

Salicyclic acid

Question 259

Symptoms to monitor if on labetalol?

Answer 259

Itching (has been associated with severe hepatocellular damage).

Question 260

Sedation if has Parkinson's?

Answer 260

Lorazepam 1mg IV stat (avoid haloperidol)

Question 261

SE of folic acid?

Answer 261

FARTING x

Question 262

dose of adrenaline if used in croup?

Answer 262

400 micrograms/kg (max 5mg).