pst2235 exam quiz Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

What does the term prodromal refer to when discussing disease characteristics?

A

Early stage of vague, non-specific symptoms

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2
Q

What is the difference between a sign and a symptom? give examples

A

signs = objective - Rash, tachycardia
symptoms = subjective - dizzy, nausea, pain

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3
Q

What is the name given to an increase in cell number via cellular division?

A

hyperplasia

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4
Q

What does the term apoptosis mean?

A

Programmed cell death

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5
Q

What are 2 characteristics of visceral pain?

A

referred and poorly localised

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6
Q

What is the name given to an area of skin innervated by a specific spinal nerve?

A

dermatome

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7
Q

Briefly define the term - iatrogenic

A

injury or disease caused by medical intervention or errors

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8
Q

when discussing disease,. what is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

A

incidence is the number of new cases, prevalence is the number of all cases

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9
Q

list 2 chemical mediators that are involved in inflammatory response

A

histamine, cytokines

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10
Q

what area of the brain is responsible for temperature control?

A

hypothalamus

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11
Q

what is the term given to the maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment?

A

homeostasis

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12
Q

what fluid shifts occur when a hypotonic solution is infused into a normally hydrated patient?

A

water will be drawn from the solution into the cells as the cells will have a higher solute concentration than the infused fluid

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13
Q

which hormone, secreted by the adrenal gland, stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water? what effect would this have on blood pressure?

A

aldosterone
raises blood pressure

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14
Q

which substance is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney in response to reduce blood volume?

A

renin

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15
Q

an abnormal accumulation of water in the interstitial tissue is commonly referred to as what?

A

Oedema or swelling

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16
Q

which common electrolyte imbalance triggers the thirst reflex?

A

Hypernatraemia

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17
Q

life threatening arrhythmias are a severe consequence of which electrolyte imbalance?

A

hyperkalaemia

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18
Q

which hormone “pulls” calcium from bones and increases absorption?

A

parathyroid hormone

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19
Q

what is the name of the receptors that initiate a respiratory response to changes in pH?

A

chemorecepetors

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20
Q

which electrolyte is vital to support energy needs and oxygen transport?

A

phosphorus

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21
Q

how long do renal compensatory mechanisms take to adjust pH?

A

hours to days

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22
Q

which acid-based imbalance is characterised by an excess of non-carbonic acid (non-volatile)?

A

metabolic acidosis

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23
Q

what is the difference between volatile and non-volatile acids?

A

volatile excreted through respiration and non-volatile excreted through the renal system

24
Q

in what stage of shock do rouleaux formations and capillary obstruction occur?

A

decompensating

25
which coronary artery supplies blood to the conduction system?
right
26
what is the number 1 rule for shock management?
assume hypovolaemic until proven otherwise
27
what is the formula for calculating MAP?
diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
28
what are the 4 stages of the progression of shock in the microcirculation?
vasoconstriction, capillary, and venue opening, DIC, multiple organ failure
29
what is the definition of cardiogenic shock?
shock that occurs due to the inability of the heart to deliver adequate circulating volume for tissue perfusion
30
list 3 non-modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease
gender, age, family history, type 1 diabetes
31
provide 3 management goals for the treatment of Acute Coronary Syndrome
reduced workload, increase O2 delivery, minimise clot formations
32
which type of angina is caused by vasospasm of the coronary artery?
prinzmetal's angina
33
what are the 2 main branches of the left main coronary artery?
Left anterior descending and circumflex
34
what type of MI is caused by micro-emboli becoming lodged in the distal coronary arteries?
Non-stemi
35
describe the pharmacological management of chest pain of presumed cardiac origin
fentanyl, oxygen, nitrates, aspirin
36
what is the life-threatening condition that occurs as a result of left ventricular failure?
Acute pulmonary oedema
37
what condition is characterised by sudden syncope, pain in the back or abdomen and unequal BP readings?
Dissecting aneurysm
38
asthma is a sudden or progressive narrowing of the airways caused by what 3 mechanisms?
Bronchospasm, swelling, increased mucous production
39
At what rate should an asthmatic patient be ventilated with a BVM?
4-6 breaths per minute allow extra time for air to be expelled
40
which group of conditions results in destruction of alveoli and reduced surface area for gas exchange?
CAL - bronchitis and emphysema
41
An inability to lie flat due to breathing difficulties is termed?
Orthopnoea
42
what is the most effective long-term treatment for the management of chronic asthma?
steroids
43
describe the difference between high VQ and low VQ
high VQ - ventilation is normal but there is decreased perfusion low VQ - ventilation is reduced but there is adequate perfusion
44
list 4 medical causes of seizures
hypoglycaemia, infection, epilepsy, drug withdrawal
45
what are the phases of an epileptic seizure?
aura, tonic, clonic, post-ictal
46
what is the medical terminology for difficulty speaking?
dysphasia
47
what type of strokes have a better prognosis - ischaemic or haemorrhagic?
ischaemic
48
what are the 4 types of headaches identified?
tension, migraine, cluster and sinus
49
typically, what percentage of beta cells are destroyed before type 1 diabetes manifests?
80-90%
50
list 3 common symptoms of hyperglycaemia
polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
51
what is the mechanism of action of glucagon?
it stimulates glycogenolysis which requires stores of glycogen in the liver
52
what autoimmune disease causes excess thyroid hormone secretion?
Grave's disease
53
Cushing's syndrome is caused by an excess of which hormone?
cortisol
54
in a hypersensitivity reaction which cells release histamine?
mast cells
55
which type of disorder involves a failure in recognising or a loss of tolerance to self?
autoimmune disease
56
what types of immune cells differentiate into plasma cells?
B cells
57
what is the main difference between T cells and B cells?
T cells respond directly to attack invading organism and B cells produce antibodies