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PPL + PSTAR Preparation > PSTAR > Flashcards

PSTAR Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is true with regard to aircraft converging at approximately the same altitude?

A.
A jet airliner has the right of way over all other aircraft.

B.
An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.

C.
An aeroplane has the right of way over all other aircraft which are converging from the left.

D.
Aeroplanes towing gliders must give way to helicopters.

A

B.

An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.

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2
Q

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude

A.
both aircraft shall alter heading to the left.

B.
the aircraft on the right shall avoid the other by descending.

C.
the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.

D.
the aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way.

A

C.

the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.

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3
Q

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

A.
Gliders shall give way to helicopters.

B.
Aeroplanes shall give way to power‑driven heavier‑than‑air aircraft.

C.
Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.

D.
Power‑driven heavier‑than‑air aircraft shall give way to gliders.

A

D.

Power‑driven heavier‑than‑air aircraft shall give way to gliders.

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4
Q

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

A.
Gliders shall give way to helicopters.

B.
Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.

C.
Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.

D.
Helicopters shall give way to gliders.

A

D.

Helicopters shall give way to gliders.

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5
Q

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?

A.
Gliders shall give way to helicopters.

B.
Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.

C.
Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.

D.
Gliders shall give way to balloons.

A

D.

Gliders shall give way to balloons.

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6
Q

When converging at approximately the same altitude

A.
balloons shall give way to hang gliders.

B.
aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons.

C.
balloons shall give way to gliders.

D.
balloons shall give way to airships.

A

B.

aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons.

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7
Q

When two power‑driven heavier‑than‑air aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude,

A.
the one on the left has the right of way.

B.
both shall alter heading to the left.

C.
the one on the right has the right of way.

D.
the one on the right shall give way by descending.

A

C.

the one on the right has the right of way.

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8
Q

When two aircraft are approaching head‑on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each pilot shall

A.
decrease airspeed.

B.
increase airspeed.

C.
alter heading to the right.

D.
alter heading to the left.

A

C.

alter heading to the right.

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9
Q

When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o’clock position, at your altitude, you should

A.
climb.

B.
descend.

C.
alter heading to the right.

D.
alter heading to the left.

A

C.

alter heading to the right.

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10
Q

Two aircraft are on approach to land, the aircraft at the higher altitude shall

A.
have the right of way.

B.
overtake the lower aircraft on the left.

C.
give way.

D.
complete a 360° turn to the right.

A

C.

give way.

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11
Q

A series of green flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively:

A.
in flight: cleared to land; on the ground: cleared to taxi.

B.
in flight: return for landing; on the ground: cleared for take-off.

C.
in flight: return for landing; on the ground: cleared to taxi.

D.
in flight: cleared to land; on the ground: cleared for take-off.

A

C.

in flight: return for landing; on the ground: cleared to taxi.

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12
Q

A steady red light directed at an aircraft means

A.
in flight: give way to other aircraft and continue circling; on the ground: stop.

B.
in flight: give way to other aircraft and continue circling; on the ground: taxi clear of landing area in use.

C.
in flight: airport unsafe do not land; on the ground: taxi clear of landing area in use.

D.
in flight: airport unsafe do not land; on the ground: stop.

A

A.

in flight: give way to other aircraft and continue circling; on the ground: stop.

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13
Q

A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively

A.
in flight: airport unsafe, do not land; on the ground: taxi clear of landing area in use.

B.
in flight: give way to other aircraft and continue circling; on the ground: stop.

C.
in flight: do not land for time being; on the ground: return to starting point on airport.

D.
in flight: you are in prohibited area, alter course; on the ground: stop.

A

A.

in flight: airport unsafe, do not land; on the ground: taxi clear of landing area in use.

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14
Q

A steady green light directed at an aircraft means respectively

A.
in flight: cleared to land; on the ground: cleared to taxi.

B.
in flight: return for landing; on the ground: cleared to taxi.

C.
in flight: return for landing; on the ground: cleared for take-off.

D.
in flight: cleared to land; on the ground: cleared for take-off.

A

D.

in flight: cleared to land; on the ground: cleared for take-off.

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15
Q

A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the manoeuvring area of an airport means

A.
stop.

B.
return to starting point on the airport.

C.
cleared to taxi.

D.
taxi clear of landing area in use.

A

B.
return to starting point on the airport.
Correct

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16
Q

Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to

A.
return to the apron.

B.
vacate the runways immediately.

C.
be aware that an emergency is in progress; continue with caution.

D.
be aware that an emergency is in progress; hold your position.

A

B.

vacate the runways immediately.

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17
Q

Chrome yellow and black strips painted on pylons or on the roof of a building identifies

A.
an area where explosives are in use.

B.
a fur farm.

C.
an artillery range.

D.
an open pit mine.

A

B.

a fur farm.

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18
Q

Pilots should not overfly reindeer or caribou at an altitude of less than

A.
2,500 feet AGL.

B.
2,000 feet AGL

C.
1,500 feet AGL.

D.
1,000 feet AGL.

A

B.

2,000 feet AGL

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19
Q

When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-GFLU should transmit the registration as

A

Golf, Foxtrot, Lima, Uniform, over.

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20
Q

After a Canadian privately registered aircraft has made initial contact with an ATS unit, which items may be omitted from subsequent transmissions? The aircraft type and

A.
any registration letters omitted by ATS in the last communication.

B.
the first two letters of the registration, if initiated by ATS.

C.
the first three letters of the registration.

D.
the phonetic equivalents.

A

B.

the first two letters of the registration, if initiated by ATS.

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21
Q

On initial radio contact with an ATS unit the pilot shall transmit the

A.
type of aircraft and last four letters of the registration in phonetics.

B.
last three letters of the registration in phonetics.

C.
whole registration in phonetics.

D.
type of aircraft and the last three letters of the registration in phonetics.

A

A.

type of aircraft and last four letters of the registration in phonetics.

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22
Q

ATIS is normally provided

A.
to replace the FSS.

B.
to relieve frequency congestion.

C.
for the rapid updating of weather forecasts.

D.
only when VFR conditions exist at airports.

A

B.

to relieve frequency congestion.

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23
Q

Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC is the

A.
phrase “with the numbers”.

B.
phrase “ATIS received”.

C.
phrase “with the information”.

D.
ATIS phonetic identifier.

A

D.

ATIS phonetic identifier.

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24
Q

Whenever practicable, pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor

A.
126.7 MHz.

B.
123.2 MHz.

C.
122.8 MHz.

D.
122.2 MHz.

A

A.

126.7 MHz.

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25
Q

En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on

A.
the receiver mode of the ELT

B.
121.5 on the aircraft receiver.

C.
121.5 during the first 5 minutes of each hour.

D.
the voice frequency of the navigation aid in use.

A

B.

121.5 on the aircraft receiver.

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26
Q

The specific frequency, distance and altitude within which MF procedures are to be followed are given in the

Select one:

A.
CFS.

B.
Designated Airspace Handbook.

C.
A.I.P. Canada.

D.
Flight Training Manual.

A

A.

CFS.

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27
Q

Pilots broadcasting on a MF where no ground station is in operation should direct their transmission to the

Select one:

A.
aerodrome UNICOM.

B.
closest ATC unit.

C.
aerodrome traffic.

D.
first aircraft heard on the frequency.

A

C.

aerodrome traffic.

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28
Q

Pilots operating in VMC and intending to land at aerodromes where no UNICOM exists, should broadcast their intentions on the ATF of

A.
121.5 MHz.

B.
122.2 MHz.

C.
123.2 MHz.

D.
126.7 MHz.

A

C.
123.2 MHz.
Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF)

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29
Q

If a MF is in use, pilots departing VFR shall monitor that frequency until

A.
beyond the specified distance or altitude.

B.
established en route.

C.
established at cruise altitude.

D.
clear of the aerodrome circuit pattern.

A

A.

beyond the specified distance or altitude.

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30
Q

A pilot is cleared to taxi to the runway in use without a hold short clearance. To get there, the aircraft must cross two taxiways and one runway. This authorizes the pilot to taxi to

A.
the runway in use, but must hold short.

B.
the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross each taxiway and runway en route.

C.
position on the runway without further clearance.

D.
the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.

A

D.

the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.

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31
Q

Ground control authorizes “GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TAXI RUNWAY 29 HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY 04”. The pilot should acknowledge this by replying “GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TO

A.
RUNWAY 04”.

B.
RUNWAY 29”.

C.
HOLD SHORT OF 29”.

D.
HOLD SHORT OF 04”.

A

D.

HOLD SHORT OF 04”.

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32
Q

When a clearance for an “immediate take-off” is accepted, the pilot shall

A.
back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off.

B.
taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance.

C.
taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.

D.
complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway and taking off.

A

C.

taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.

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33
Q

A pilot flying a heading of 270°, receives the following message from ATC, “Traffic 2 o’clock, 5 miles, eastbound”. This information indicates the traffic is

A.
60° to the left, altitude unknown.

B.
60° to the right, altitude unknown.

C.
90° to the right, at same altitude.

D.
90° to the left, at same altitude.

A

B.

60° to the right, altitude unknown.

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34
Q

A pilot receives the following ATC clearance “CLEARED TO LAND, TURN RIGHT AT THE FIRST INTERSECTION”. The pilot should

A.
land and attempt to turn off even though the speed is considered too high to safely accomplish the turn.

B.
complete a touch-and-go if it is not possible to safely accomplish the turn.

C.
land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.

D.
land and do a 180° turn and taxi back to clear the runway at the required intersection.

A

C.

land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.

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35
Q

The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance is?

A

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.

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36
Q

The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board which does not require immediate assistance is?

A

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.

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37
Q

What should be included along with the call sign of the aircraft and time, to indicate cancellation of a distress message?

A.
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED, OUT.

B.
MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, SILENCE FINISHED, OUT.

C.
MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYDAY CANCELLED.

D.
ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, EMERGENCY OVER.

A

B.

MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, SILENCE FINISHED, OUT.

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38
Q

A departing flight will normally remain on tower frequency until

A.
the flight is 2,000 feet AGL.

B.
25 NM from the airport.

C.
15 NM from the Control Zone.

D.
clear of the Control Zone.

A

D.

clear of the Control Zone.

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39
Q

You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit, ATC will then

A.
inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.

B.
inform you of the runway in use, wind and altimeter.

C.
advise you of all other circuit traffic.

D.
clear you to land.

A

A.

inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.

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40
Q

A radio equipped aircraft has been cleared to land at a controlled airport. The pilot should acknowledge the clearance by

A.
replying “Roger”.

B.
replying “Wilco”.

C.
clicking the microphone button.

D.
transmitting the aircraft call sign.

A

D.

transmitting the aircraft call sign.

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41
Q

An initial call to Timmins FSS should be “Timmins

A.
radio this is…”

B.
Flight Service Station this is…”

C.
UNICOM this is…”

D.
this is…”

A

A.

radio this is…”

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42
Q

A responsibility of a flight service specialist is to provide

A.
air traffic control.

B.
flight planning service.

C.
air traffic service in uncontrolled airspace only.

D.
terminal radar service.

A

B.

flight planning service.

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43
Q

NOTAM are

A.
available at all FSS.

B.
mailed to all pilots.

C.
issued for airport facility closures only.

D.
valid for 24 hours.

A

A.

available at all FSS.

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44
Q

A new or replacing NOTAM without the term “EST” (old “APRX”) is valid

A.
for 48 hours only.

B.
for the day it was issued.

C.
until the time quoted in the NOTAM.

D.
until a cancelling NOTAM is issued.

A

C.

until the time quoted in the NOTAM.

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45
Q

The term “EST” (old “APRX”) when contained in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid

A.
for approximately 24 hours.

B.
for approximately 48 hours.

C.
until the time quoted in the NOTAM.

D.
until a cancelling or replacing NOTAM is issued.

A

D.

until a cancelling or replacing NOTAM is issued.

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46
Q

Your radio transmissions are reported READABILITY THREE. This means that your transmissions are

A.
readable now and then.

B.
readable with difficulty.

C.
readable.

D.
perfectly readable.

A

B.

readable with difficulty.

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47
Q

An airport is

A.
an aerodrome with paved runways.

B.
an aerodrome with a control tower.

C.
a registered aerodrome.

D.
a certified aerodrome.

A

D.

a certified aerodrome.

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48
Q

A dry Transport Canada standard wind direction indicator when horizontal indicates a wind speed of at least

A.
25 KT.

B.
15 KT.

C.
10 KT.

D.
6 KT.

A

B.

15 KT.

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49
Q

No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled airport used for the movement of aircraft, except in accordance with permission from

A.
the operator of the airport.

B.
the airport security officer.

C.
a federal peace officer.

D.
a qualified flying instructor.

A

A.

the operator of the airport.

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50
Q

Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by

A.
red flags.

B.
horizontal red squares with yellow diagonals.

C.
a white or yellow X.

D.
white dumb‑bells.

A

C.

a white or yellow X.

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51
Q

The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered

A.
09.

B.
90.

C.
27.

D.
270.

A

A.

09.

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52
Q

At controlled airports, the taxiway holding position markings indicate that aircraft shall stop

A.
on the solid line side at all times.

B.
on the solid line side unless otherwise cleared by ATC.

C.
before crossing the lines from either side at all times.

D.
before crossing the lines from either side unless otherwise cleared by ATC.

A

B.

on the solid line side unless otherwise cleared by ATC.

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53
Q

Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active runway should normally hold

A.
clear of the maneuvering area.

B.
50 feet from the edge of the runway.

C.
150 feet from the edge of the runway.

D.
200 feet from the edge of the runway.

A

D.

200 feet from the edge of the runway.

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54
Q

The manoeuvring area of an airport is that area

A.
normally referred to as the ramp or apron.

B.
which includes the apron, taxiways and runways.

C.
used when taxiing to and from the parking area.

D.
used for taxiing, taking off and landing.

A

D.

used for taxiing, taking off and landing.

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55
Q

Except for the purpose of taking off or landing, an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at a height of less than

A.
2,000 feet AGL.

B.
1,500 feet AGL.

C.
1,000 feet AGL.

D.
500 feet AGL.

A

A.

2,000 feet AGL.

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56
Q 
Night VFR flights require which of the following equipment in addition to day VFR equipment?
A. Turn and bank indicator
B. Attitude indicator
C. VSI
D. Gyroscopic heading indicator
E. Means of illuminating the instruments
F. Suction gauge
G. Deicing equipment
H. Spare light bulbs for position lights

1.
A, B, D

2.
A, B, C

3.
B, D, E

4.
A, D, E

A

4.

57
Q

Taking into account seasonal climatic variations and geographical area, private aeroplanes and helicopters flying VFR 25 NM or more from an aerodrome or operating base may require

A.
specified emergency supplies be carried.

B.
a functioning radio capable of two‑way radio communication.

C.
the aircraft be multi‑engined when passengers are carried.

D.
all of the above

A

A.

specified emergency supplies be carried.

58
Q

A serviceable landing light is required equipment on aircraft

A.
carrying passengers at night.

B.
carrying passengers at night except private aircraft under 5,700 kg.

C.
using an unlighted aerodrome.

D.
taking off or landing at night.

A

A.

carrying passengers at night.

59
Q

Unless oxygen and oxygen masks as specified in CARs are readily available, no person shall fly unpressurized aircraft above

A.
9,500 feet ASL.

B.
10,000 feet ASL.

C.
12,500 feet ASL.

D.
13,000 feet ASL.

A

D.

13,000 feet ASL.

60
Q

No person shall fly an aircraft for more than ….. at an altitude between 10,000 and 13,000 feet ASL unless there is readily available to each flight crew member, an oxygen mask and a supply of oxygen.

A.
15 minutes.

B.
30 minutes.

C.
1 hour.

D.
2 hours.

A

B.

30 minutes.

61
Q

What safety equipment must be available to each person on board a single-engine aircraft which is taking off from or landing on water?

A.
An approved life raft.

B.
An approved life preserver.

C.
A signal flare.

D.
A signal mirror.

A

B.

An approved life preserver.

62
Q

The International VHF Emergency Frequency is

A.
121.5 MHz.

B.
121.9 MHz.

C.
122.2 MHz.

D.
126.7 MHz.

A

A.

121.5 MHz.

63
Q

No pilot shall take off from or land at an aerodrome at night unless the

A.
aircraft is equipped with a functioning two-way radio.

B.
aircraft is equipped with a functioning landing light or landing lights.

C.
aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the Minister.

D.
pilot has completed 3 night landings in the previous 90 days.

A

C.

aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the Minister.

64
Q

The CARs define an infant passenger as a person

A.
weighing less than 30 LB.

B.
under 3 years of age.

C.
weighing less than 50 LB and under 5 years of age.

D.
under 2 years of age.

A

D.

under 2 years of age.

65
Q

When the PIC directs that safety belts be fastened, an infant passenger for which no child restraint system is provided shall be

A.
fastened securely in a seat by means of a safety belt.

B.
held securely in the arms of an adult person whose safety belt shall be fastened.

C.
held securely in the arms of an adult person and a safety belt shall be fastened about both.

D.
secured by any one of the above methods.

A

B.

held securely in the arms of an adult person whose safety belt shall be fastened.

66
Q

Which flight instrument systemsare required for day VFR flight ? A magnetic compass and

A.  an airspeed indicator.
B.  an attitude indicator.
C.  a sensitive altimeter.
D.  a vertical speed indicator.
E.  a turn and bank indicator.
F.  a time piece.
G.  a heading indicator.
A

A,C,F

67
Q

When an arriving aircraft is cleared “to the circuit”, the pilot should interpret this to mean join the circuit

A.
on the downwind leg.

B.
from the upwind side of the runway in all cases.

C.
on base leg if convenient.

D.
on final for a straight in approach.

A

A.

on the downwind leg.

68
Q

When a NORDO aircraft crosses an airport for the purpose of obtaining landing information it should maintain

A.
circuit height.

B.
1,000 feet above circuit height.

C.
at least 2,000 feet AGL.

D.
at least 500 feet above circuit height.

A

D.

at least 500 feet above circuit height.

69
Q

A Special Procedure NOTAM has been published for an airport, which is 400 feet ASL, stating the circuit height is 1,500 feet ASL. When the ceiling is 1,000 overcast and the visibility is 3 miles, the circuit height in controlled airspace should be

A.
500 feet below the cloud base.

B.
1,500 feet ASL.

C.
1,100 feet above the airport elevation.

D.
1,000 feet above the airport elevation.

A

A.

500 feet below the cloud base.

70
Q

Unless ATC instructs otherwise, pilots operating VFR shall select transponder code 1200 when flying at or below ….. feet ASL and code ….. when flying above that altitude.

A.
12,500, 1400.

B.
12,500, 1300.

C.
10,000, 1400.

D.
10,000, 1300.

A

A.

12,500, 1400.

71
Q

Pilots shall activate the transponder “ident” feature

A.
before entering control zones.

B.
only when so instructed by ATC.

C.
before every change of altitude.

D.
after every change of an assigned code.

A

B.

only when so instructed by ATC.

72
Q

The holder of a student pilot permit may for the sole purpose of the holder’s own flight training act as PIC of an aircraft

A.
only when accompanied by a flight instructor.

B.
by day and night.

C.
by day only.

D.
while carrying passengers.

A

C.

by day only.

73
Q

Terminal airspace dimensions and VHF sector frequencies for certain high density traffic airports in Canada are shown

A.
in the Designated Airspace Handbook and the A.I.P. Canada.

B.
on the VTA chart and in the CFS.

C.
on the VTA and VNC charts.

D.
in the CFS and on the VNC chart.

A

B.

on the VTA chart and in the CFS.

74
Q

Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air

A.
dissipates immediately.

B.
dissipates rapidly.

C.
may persist for two minutes or more.

D.
persists indefinitely.

A

C.

may persist for two minutes or more.

75
Q

During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous wing tip vortices will

A.
dissipate completely.

B.
dissipate rapidly.

C.
dissipate very slowly.

D.
remain at cruising altitude.

A

C.

dissipate very slowly.

76
Q

Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins

A.
before rotation.

B.
with rotation.

C.
after becoming airborne.

D.
with full power application.

A

B.

with rotation.

77
Q

Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately

A.
before rotation.

B.
following take-off.

C.
above its flight path.

D.
following full power application.

A

B.

following take-off.

78
Q

Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is

A.
heavy, landing configuration and slow speed.

B.
heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.

C.
light, clean configuration and high speed.

D.
heavy, take-off configuration and slow speed.

A

B.

heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.

79
Q

What effect would a light cross-wind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off? A light cross-wind

A.
could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for some time.

B.
would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.

C.
would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices.

D.
would not affect the lateral movement of the vortices.

A

A.

could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for some time.

80
Q

What is the recommended treatment for hyperventilation below 8,000 feet?

A.
Increase the depth of breathing.

B.
Hold the breath and perform a Valsalva manoeuvre.

C.
Slow the breathing rate to below 12 times per minute.

D.
Increase oxygen flow rates.

A

C.

Slow the breathing rate to below 12 times per minute.

81
Q

Damage to the ear drum in flight is most likely to occur

A.
during a climb.

B.
during a descent.

C.
when using supplementary oxygen.

D.
after SCUBA diving

A

B.

during a descent.

82
Q

Clearing the ears on a rapid descent may be assisted by

A.
swallowing.

B.
opening the mouth widely or yawning.

C.
a Valsalva manoeuvre.

D.
all of the above.

A

D.

all of the above.

83
Q

Flight crew members who require decompression stops on the way to the surface when SCUBA diving should not fly for

A.
4 hours.

B.
8 hours.

C.
12 hours.

D.
24 hours.

A

D.

24 hours.

84
Q

A pilot who has donated blood should not act as a flight crew member for at least the next

A.
12 hours.

B.
24 hours.

C.
36 hours.

D.
48 hours.

A

D.

48 hours.

85
Q

Any pilot who has had a general anaesthetic should not act as a flight crew member

A.
during the next 12 hrs.

B.
during the next 36 hrs.

C.
during the next 48 hrs.

D.
unless advised it is safe to do so by a doctor.

A

D.

unless advised it is safe to do so by a doctor.

86
Q

Any pilot who has had a local anaesthetic for extensive dental procedures should not act as a flight crew member during the next

A.
12 hrs.

B.
24 hrs.

C.
36 hrs.

D.
48 hrs.

A

B.

24 hrs.

87
Q

The Canadian Medical Certificate of a private pilot 40 years old and over is valid, in Canada, for a period of

A.
12 months.

B.
24 months.

C.
36 months.

D.
48 months.

A

B.

24 months.

88
Q

The Canadian Medical Certificate of a private pilot under 40 years of age is valid, in Canada, for a period of

A.
72 months.

B.
60 months.

C.
48 months.

D.
24 months.

A

B.

60 months.

89
Q

The reserve fuel for Heli?

A.
and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

B.
then to a specified alternate and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

C.
and thereafter for 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.

D.
then to a specified alternate and thereafter for 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.

A

C.

and thereafter for 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.

90
Q

The reserve fuel for GA?

A.
and then fly for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

B.
and then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

C.
then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

D.
then to a specified alternate and then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

A

B.

and then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

91
Q

If a flight plan is not filed, a flight itinerary must be filed

A.
for flights proceeding 25 NM or more from the point of origin.

B.
only for flights in sparsely settled areas.

C.
for flights destined to land at aerodromes or places other than the point of origin.

D.
for all flights.

A

A.

for flights proceeding 25 NM or more from the point of origin.

92
Q

After landing from a VFR flight for which a flight plan has been filed, the pilot shall report the arrival to the appropriate ATS unit within

A.
15 minutes.

B.
30 minutes.

C.
45 minutes.

D.
60 minutes.

A

D.

60 minutes.

93
Q

Where a VFR flight plan has been filed, an arrival report must be filed by the pilot

A.
by advising an ATS unit.

B.
at each intermediate stop and then reopened on take-off.

C.
by parking the aircraft in close proximity to the tower.

D.
except at airports served by a control tower in which case the tower will automatically close the flight plan.

A

A.

by advising an ATS unit.

94
Q

How is an intermediate stop indicated on the flight plan form for a VFR flight?

A.
By including duration of the intermediate stop in “Elapsed Time” box as ATC automatically checks time between points.

B.
Same as any VFR flight plan if the intermediate time does not exceed 30 minutes at each point.

C.
By repeating the name of intermediate stop and its duration in the “Route” column.

D.
By simply indicating “Intermediate Stop” in “Other Information” column.

A

C.

By repeating the name of intermediate stop and its duration in the “Route” column.

95
Q

An ATC instruction

A.
must be complied with when received by the pilot providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized.
Correct

B.
must be “read back” in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.

C.
is in effect advice provided by ATC and does not require acceptance or formal acknowledgement by the pilot concerned.

D.
is the same as an ATC clearance.

A

A.
must be complied with when received by the pilot providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized.
Correct

96
Q

An ATC clearance

A.
is the same as an ATC instruction.

B.
is in effect advice provided by ATC and does not require acceptance or acknowledgement by the PIC.

C.
requires compliance when accepted by the PIC.

D.
must be complied with when received by the PIC.

A

C.

requires compliance when accepted by the PIC.

97
Q

An aircraft’s ELT may be switched to transmit for test purposes anytime

A.
following a hard landing.

B.
during the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC.

C.
following a component or battery change.

D.
prior to flight and listening on 121.5 MHz.

A

B.

during the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC.

98
Q

Before shutting down you can verify that the aircraft’s ELT is not transmitting by

A.
checking that the ELT switch is in the off position.

B.
listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal.

C.
ensuring that the master switch is off.

D.
checking the ELT visual warning light.

A

B.

listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal.

99
Q

All accidental ELT activations should be reported to the

A.
airport manager.

B.
R.C.M.P.

C.
Minister.

D.
nearest ATS unit.

A

D.

nearest ATS unit.

100
Q

When an aircraft engine is left running on the ground and no person remains onboard, the aircraft’s movement must be restricted and

A.
it must remain in sight of the pilot at all times.

B.
it must not be left unattended.

C.
its gross weight must be below 4,409 LB (2,000 kg).

D.
its control locks must be installed.

A

B.

it must not be left unattended.

101
Q

The take‑off thrust blast danger area includes at least that area extending back from the tail of a medium size jet transport aeroplane for

A.
1,200 feet.

B.
900 feet.

C.
500 feet.

D.
450 feet.

A

A.

1,200 feet.

102
Q

The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a jumbo jet aeroplane for at least

A.
200 feet.

B.
450 feet.

C.
600 feet.

D.
750 feet.

A

C.

600 feet.

103
Q

The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a medium size jet aeroplane for at least

Select one:

A.
200 feet.

B.
450 feet.

C.
600 feet.

D.
750 feet.

A

B.

450 feet.

104
Q

The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of an executive jet aeroplane for

Select one:

A.
200 feet.

B.
450 feet.

C.
600 feet.

D.
750 feet.

A

A.

200 feet.

105
Q

A 45 KT blast area can be expected ….. behind the propellers of a large turbo‑prop aeroplane during taxi.

A.
60 feet.

B.
80 feet.

C.
100 feet.

D.
120 feet.

A

A.

60 feet.

106
Q

At the request of the pilot, VHF direction finding stations normally provide a homing service

A.
only in Class B airspace.

B.
only after declaration of an emergency on 121.5 MHz.

C.
on the approach control frequency.

D.
on a pre-selected tower or FSS frequency.

A

D.

on a pre-selected tower or FSS frequency.

107
Q

VDF steers are intended to provide directional assistance to VFR flights

Select one:

A.
in times of difficulties.

B.
on routine navigational trips.

C.
cleared for Special VFR.

D.
in uncontrolled airspace.

A

A.

in times of difficulties.

108
Q

ATC advises that simultaneous operations (SIRO) are in progress at an airport. Pilots could expect a clearance to

A.
take off over top of an aircraft on an intersecting runway.

B.
take off on a specified parallel runway.

C.
land and hold short of an intersecting runway.

D.
land on a specified parallel runway.

A

C.

land and hold short of an intersecting runway.

109
Q

When operating in accordance with VFR, aircraft shall be flown

a.
clear of aerodrome traffic zones.

b.
clear of control zones.

c.
with visual reference to the surface.

d.
in compliance with all of the above.

A

c.

with visual reference to the surface.

110
Q

Normally, a helicopter in uncontrolled airspace at less than 1,000 feet AGL may operate during the day in flight visibility which is not less than

a.
1/2 mile.

b.
1 mile.

c.
2 miles.

d.
3 miles.

A

b.

1 mile.

111
Q

What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1,000 feet AGL within uncontrolled airspace?

a.
At least 2,000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.

b.
At least 1 mile horizontally and 500 feet vertically.

c.
At least 2 miles horizontally and 500 feet vertically.

d.
Clear of cloud.

A

d.

Clear of cloud.

112
Q

A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in an aircraft

a.
over an airport provided the appropriate frequency is monitored.

b.
over the suburban area of a city above 2,000 feet AGL.

c.
within Class F advisory airspace when visibility is 3 miles or greater.

d.
within Class C airspace when the visibility is 1 mile or greater.

A

c.

within Class F advisory airspace when visibility is 3 miles or greater.

113
Q

CARs state that after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, no person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft within

a.
12 hours.

b.
8 hours.

c.
24 hours.

d.
36 hours.

A

a.

12 hours.

114
Q

“Day” in Canada is that period of time between

a.
sunrise and sunset.

b.
one hour before sunrise and one hour after sunset.

c.
the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.

d.
the end of morning civil twilight and the beginning of evening civil twilight.

A

c.

the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.

115
Q

Flight through active Class F airspace with the designator CYR

a.
may be undertaken only by aircraft equipped with two-way radio communication and a transponder.

b.
is restricted to military aircraft operating under the authority of the Minister of National Defence.

c.
will be approved only for aircraft on IFR flight plans under positive radar control.

d.
is permitted only in accordance with permission issued by the user agency.

A

d.

is permitted only in accordance with permission issued by the user agency.

116
Q

Which statement is correct with regard to “advisory airspace”?

a.
A transient aircraft entering active advisory airspace shall be equipped with a serviceable transponder.

b.
Non-participating VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace during active periods specified on aeronautical charts and NOTAM.

c.
Aircraft need to be equipped with a two-way radio to enter active advisory airspace.

d.
Only military aircraft may enter advisory airspace depicted on aeronautical charts.

A

b.
Non-participating VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace during active periods specified on aeronautical charts and NOTAM.

117
Q

Over non-populous areas or over open water, a pilot may not fly an aircraft at a distance less than ….. feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

a.
200.

b.
500.

c.
1,000.

d.
2,000.

A

b.

500.

118
Q

What is the height AGL above which an aircraft in VFR flight shall be operated to conform with the Cruising Altitudes Order?

a.
700 feet.

b.
2 200 feet.

c.
3 000 feet.

d.
3 500 feet.

A

c.

3 000 feet.

119
Q

An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above 3,000 feet AGL on a track of 290°M shall be flown at an

a.
even thousand foot altitude.

b.
even thousand plus 500 foot altitude.

c.
odd thousand foot altitude.

d.
odd thousand plus 500 foot altitude.

A

b.

even thousand plus 500 foot altitude.

120
Q

The selection of a cruising altitude in the Southern Domestic Airspace should be based on the

a.
true track.

b.
magnetic track.

c.
true heading.

d.
magnetic heading.

A

b.

magnetic track.

121
Q

Every person who is the holder of any pilot licence or permit shall, on demand, produce such licence or permit for inspection by persons authorized by the Minister, by peace officers and

a.
FSS operators.

b.
Transport Canada airport managers.

c.
immigration officers.

d.
all of the above.

A

c.

immigration officers.

122
Q

Low Level Airspace is defined as, all airspace

a.
extending upwards from 2,200 feet AGL within designated airways.

b.
extending upwards from 700 feet AGL within designated airways.

c.
extending upwards from the surface of the earth within designated airways.

d.
within the Canadian Domestic Airspace below 18,000 feet ASL.

A

d.

within the Canadian Domestic Airspace below 18,000 feet ASL.

123
Q

A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from

a.
2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.

b.
700 feet above the surface of the earth.

c.
the surface of the earth to 3,000 feet.

d.
a specified height above the surface of the earth.

A

c.

the surface of the earth to 3,000 feet.

124
Q

“Controlled Airspace” means all airspace of defined dimensions within which

A.
Control Zone regulations are in force.

B.
security regulations are in force.

C.
Special VFR flight only is permitted.

D.
an ATC service is provided.

A

D.

an ATC service is provided.

125
Q

When in VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least

A.
500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

B.
500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.

C.
1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

D.
1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.

A

A.

500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

126
Q

The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight within a low level airway is

A.
1 mile.

B.
1½ miles.

C.
2 miles.

D.
3 miles.

A

D.

3 miles.

127
Q

When in VFR flight within a Control Zone, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least

A.
500 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally.

B.
500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

C.
1,000 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

D.
1,000 feet vertically and 3 miles horizontally.

A

B.

500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.

128
Q

VFR cross‑country pilots wishing to cross through any part of a Class C Control Zone should

A.
advise the associated FSS.

B.
monitor the Approach Control frequency.

C.
advise ATC of their intentions and obtain a clearance.

D.
conform with circuit direction at that airport.

A

C.

advise ATC of their intentions and obtain a clearance.

129
Q

ATC may authorize an aeroplane equipped with a functioning two‑way radio to transit a Control Zone under day Special VFR provided the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility, are each not less than

A.
1/2 mile.

B.
1 mile.

C.
2 miles.

D.
3 miles.

A

B.

1 mile.

130
Q

An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within

A.
a Control Zone.

B.
an Aerodrome Traffic Zone.

C.
a Terminal Control Area.

D.
an airway.

A

A.

a Control Zone.

131
Q

An arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with the control tower

A.
upon entering an Aerodrome Traffic Zone.

B.
prior to entering a Control Zone.

C.
immediately prior to joining the circuit.

D.
immediately after entering a Control Zone.

A

B.

prior to entering a Control Zone.

132
Q

VFR flight within Class B airspace is permitted

A.
only when the flight visibility is 5 miles or better.

B.
for all aircraft except gliders and balloons.

C.
if the pilot holds a Class B Airspace Endorsement.

D.
in accordance with an ATC clearance.

A

D.

in accordance with an ATC clearance.

133
Q

The pilot of an arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with a control tower in Class C airspace

A.
immediately after entering the Control Zone.

B.
10 NM outside the Control Zone.

C.
prior to entering the Control Zone.

D.
immediately prior to joining the circuit.

A

C.

prior to entering the Control Zone.

134
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot on a VFR flight operating within a Class C Terminal Control Area must

A.
exit the airspace whenever the weather deteriorates below VFR limits.

B.
establish radio contact with the appropriate ATC unit only when transiting the associated Control Zone.

C.
establish and maintain radio communication with the appropriate ATC Unit.

D.
contact Radar Service only when taking off or landing at the major airport concerned.

A

C.

establish and maintain radio communication with the appropriate ATC Unit.

135
Q

Details on civil aviation accident reporting procedures can be found in the

A.
A.I.M. Canada.

B.
Canadian Aviation Regulations.

C.
Canada Flight Supplement.

D.
Aviation Safety Manual.

A

A.

A.I.M. Canada.

136
Q

When an aircraft accident occurs, the pilot or operator of the aircraft involved shall ensure that the particulars of the accident are reported to the TSB

A.
within 7 days by registered mail.

B.
within 24 hours by telephone.

C.
within 48 hours by facsimile.

D.
as soon as possible and by the quickest means available.

A

D.

as soon as possible and by the quickest means available.

137
Q

TSB shall be notified of a reportable aviation accident when

A.
a person sustains serious or fatal injury as a result of being in or coming into direct contact with any part of an aircraft.

B.
an aircraft sustains damage or structural failure adversely affecting performance or flight characteristics and requiring major repair or replacement.

C.
an aircraft is missing or completely inaccessible.

D.
any of the above conditions exist.

A

D.

any of the above conditions exist.

138
Q

What circumstance(s) permit an aircraft to be moved without approval of the Minister after it has been involved in an accident which caused serious injury or death? When it becomes necessary to

A.
rescue survivors.

B.
avoid danger to persons or property.

C.
prevent destruction by fire.

D.
implement (a), (b) or (c) above.

A

D.

implement (a), (b) or (c) above.

139
Q

The TSB considers missing aircraft to be

A.
a reportable aviation incident.

B.
an occurrence which need not be reported.

C.
an aviation incident which need not be reported.

D.
a reportable aviation accident.

A

D.

a reportable aviation accident.

PPL + PSTAR Preparation (3 decks)

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