Psych/Soc

Question 1

Convergence and the muscles of the eye

Answer 1

Gives humans an idea of depth based on how much the eyeballs are turned. Object far away –> muscles of eye relax. Object close –> muscles of eye contract

Question 2

Binocular Cues

Answer 2

Gives humans a sense of depth. Due to humans’ two eyeballs. Includes retinal disparity

Question 3

Monocular Cues

Answer 3

Visual cues for which humans do not need two eyes. Gives humans senses of form and motion of an object

Question 4

Interposition

Answer 4

Perception that one object is in front of another. An object that is in the front is closer

Question 5

Relative height (vision)

Answer 5

Things higher are perceived to be farther away than those that are lower

Question 6

Shading and Contour

Answer 6

Using light and shadows to perceive form

Question 7

Motion parallax

Answer 7

“Relative motion” - Things farther away move slower, closer moves faster

Question 8

Monocular Cue of Constancy

Answer 8

When human’s perception of an object does not change even though the image cast on the retina does. Ex: a door opening changes shape but the mind still thinks its a door

Question 9

Color constancy

Answer 9

Perception does not change even when lighting changes causing the color falling on the retina to change

Question 10

Sensory adaptation

Answer 10

Humans’ senses changing their sensitivity to certain stimuli

Question 11

Proprioception

Answer 11

The sense of the position of the body in space, i.e. “sense of balance or where you are in space”

Question 12

Up/Down regulation of sight

Answer 12

Downregulation: light adaptation, pupils constrict, rods and cones become desensitized to light. Upregulation: dark adaptation, pupils dilate, rods and cones make light-sensitive molecules

Question 13

Weber’s Law

Answer 13

Shows that the ratio between the weight of an object and the just noticeable difference (JND) in weight of that object is constant.
JND / (initial intensity) = k (constant)

Question 14

Absolute Threshold of Sensation

Answer 14

Minimum intensity of a stimulus needed to detect a particular stimulus 50% of the time

Question 15

Subliminal Stimuli

Answer 15

Stimuli below the absolute threshold of sensation

Question 16

Types of Somatosensation

Answer 16

Thermoception (temp.), mechanoception (pressure), nociception (pain), and proprioception (position)

Question 17

Non-adapting neuron

Answer 17

Fires at constant rate

Question 18

Slow-adapting neuron

Answer 18

Fires in the beginning of stimulus but slows down after a while

Question 19

Fast-adapting neuron

Answer 19

Fires as soon as stimulus starts, then stops firing even while stimulus is still active. It starts firing again when stim ceases

Question 20

Vestibular Sensation

Answer 20

Sense of balance and spatial orientation. Depends on inner ear and limbs, with emphasis on inner ear

Question 21

Semicircular canals of inner ear

Answer 21

Posterior, lateral, and interior (each perpendicular to each other). Filled with endolymph fluid

Question 22

Endolymph

Answer 22

Fluid in the inner ear canals that moves when the head rotates. Speed of fluid movement allows perception of strength of head rotation.

Question 23

Otolithic organs

Answer 23

Utricle and Saccule - parts of the vestibular system in inner ear. Help detect linear acceleration and head positioning. CaCO3 crystals within the otolithic organs tug on hair cells, triggering action potentials.

Question 24

Action of vestibular system in dizziness

Answer 24

Endolymph continues spinning even after person has stopped

Question 25

Signal Detection Theory

Answer 25

Examines how we make decisions under conditions of uncertainty - discerning between important stimuli and unimportant "noise"

Question 26

Bottom-Up Processing

Answer 26

Starts with stimulus and perception is built off data presented at that moment. "Inductive reasoning." Always correct

Question 27

Top-Down Processing

Answer 27

Brain constructs perception based on past experiences and expectations. Deductive reasoning. Not always correct.

Question 28

Gestalt Principles / Gestalt's Laws of Grouping

Answer 28

Attempts to explain how we perceive visual stimuli the way we do: our minds look at "whole" images/situations rather than just singular pieces. Our brain fills in gaps to see the entire image for what it really is

Question 29

Gestalt Principle: Similarity

Answer 29

The brain groups similar items together

Question 30

Gestalt Principle: Pragnanz

Answer 30

The brain reduces shapes into the simplest form possible in perception

Question 31

Gestalt Principle: Proximity

Answer 31

Closely spaced objects are grouped together rather than things farther apart

Question 32

Gestalt Principle: Continuity

Answer 32

Lines are seen as following the smoothest path

Question 33

Gestalt Principle: Closure

Answer 33

Objects grouped together are seen as a whole, and mind fills in missing information.

Question 34

Gestalt Principle: Symmetry

Answer 34

The mind perceives objects as being symmetrical and forming around a center point

Question 35

Gestalt Principle: Law of Common Fate

Answer 35

If there is an array of dots in which half the dots are moving up and the other half are moving down, we perceive the upward and downward moving dots as two distinct units

Question 36

Gestalt Principle: Law of Past Experiences

Answer 36

Under certain circumstances, visual stimuli are categorized according to past experiences. Ex. Interpretting letters to form words rather than applying other Gestalt Principles to see them as other shapes

Question 37

Gestalt Principle: Contextual Effects

Answer 37

Context of stimuli contributes to the perception and organization of each stimulus

Question 38

Conjuctiva

Answer 38

Thin layer of cells that lines inside of eyelids from the eye

Question 39

Cornea

Answer 39

First part of the eye that light hits, starts to bend the light. Clear, thick layer of fibrous tissue. Anterior 1/6th.

Question 40

Anterior chamber (of eye)

Answer 40

Space filled with aqueous humor that provides pressure to maintain shape of eyeball. Allows nutrients and minerals to supply cells of cornea and iris.

Question 41

Pupil

Answer 41

Opening of the middle of the iris. Controls the amount of light entering the eye. Size changes based on the iris relaxing/constricting (gets bigger/smaller, respectively).

Question 42

Iris

Answer 42

The muscle that constricts/relaxes to change size of the pupil. Also gives the eye color.

Question 43

Lens

Answer 43

Bends light to focus it specifically on the fovea of the retina. Changes shape using the suspensory ligaments to adjust how much the light is bent.

Question 44

Suspensory Ligaments

Answer 44

Attaches lens to ciliary muscles to allow for shape-change of the lens.

Question 45

Ciliary Body

Answer 45

Ciliary muscles and suspensory ligaments. The complex that secretes the aqueous humor.

Question 46

Posterior chamber (of eye)

Answer 46

Space between the back of the iris to the back of the lens; also filled with aqueous humor

Question 47

Vitreous Humor

Answer 47

Fills the Vitreous Chamber. Jelly-like substance to provide pressure to eyeball and gives nutrients to inside of eyeball

Question 48

Retina

Answer 48

Inside back area of eyeball filled with photoreceptors. Converts light from physical waveform to an electrochemical impulse for brain to interpret.

Question 49

Macula

Answer 49

Select area of the retina that is rich in cones (there are also some rods present)

Question 50

Fovea

Answer 50

Special part of the macula where there are only cones (NO rods). No bundles of axons are present, so light can hit cones directly. Area of maximal light delivery to cones.

Question 51

Cones

Answer 51

Detect color and discern high level of detail in what is being observed. Cone-shaped. 3 types: red, gree, blue

Question 52

Rods

Answer 52

Detect light. Rod-shaped

Question 53

Chloroid

Answer 53

A network of blood vessels that helps nourish retina. Pigmented black in humans, so all light is absorbed.

Question 54

Animals with different colord Chloroid than humans.

Answer 54

Gives them better night vision than humans (whose chloroid is black)

Question 55

Sclera

Answer 55

The whites of the eye. Thick, fibrous tissue. Attachment point for muscles, provides protection and structure to eyeball. Lined with conjuctiva.

Question 56

Transmission (neurons)

Answer 56

Electrical activation of one neuron by another

Question 57

Perception

Answer 57

Conscious sensory experience of neural processing

Question 58

Processing (in terms of visual sensory information)

Answer 58

Refers to neural transformation of multiple neural signals into a perception

Question 59

Transduction (concerning visual sensory info)

Answer 59

Energy transformation from light to electrical energy by rods and cones (photoreceptors)

Question 60

What is light?

Answer 60

An electromagnetic wave. In the middle of the Electromagnetic Spectrum

Question 61

Electromagnetic (EM) Spectrum

Answer 61

Contains every wavelength. Longest to shortest: (AM/FM, microwave (food), infrared, visible light [ROYGBIV], UV, XRay, gamma)

Question 62

Phototransduction Cascade (PTC)

Answer 62

Makes brain realize presence of light passing through eyeball. See notes for detailed description. Simply: Light hits rod (turns it off) --\> turns ON bipolar cell --\> turns ON ganglion cell --\> optic nerve --\> BRAIN

Question 63

Rhodopsin and Photopsin

Answer 63

Proteins on optic disks of rods and cones, respectively.

Question 64

Optic Disks

Answer 64

Large, membrane-bound structures inside rods and cones. Proteins in the membranes fire action potentials to the brain

Question 65

Photoreceptor

Answer 65

Specialized nerve cells that can take light and convert it to a neural impulse. Rods and cones. Eye has 20x more rods than cones

Question 66

Recovery time of rods vs cones

Answer 66

Rods = slow; Cones = fast. It takes a while to adjust to the dark because rods need to be reactivated. Cones adapt quickly because they fire more frequently

Question 67

Blind Spot on Retina

Answer 67

Where optic nerve attaches to retina. No rods or cones present

Question 68

Visual Field Processing

Answer 68

How the brain makes sense of what is seen.

Question 69

Optic Chiasm

Answer 69

Point of convergence of the optic nerves from each eye. Axons from nasal sides of each eye cross sides after chiasm. Axons from temporal sides do NOT cross.

Question 70

Feature Detection

Answer 70

The process of identifying the color, form, and motion of an object

Question 71

Trichromatic Theory of Color Vision

Answer 71

Three types of cones: Red (60&), green (30%), and blue (10%)

Question 72

Parvocellular pathway

Answer 72

Identifies spatial resolution and color to determine boundaries and shape of an object in high detail. Cannot detect motion - only stationary. Cones are responsible for it

Question 73

Magnocellular pathway

Answer 73

Has high temporal resolution (encodes motion), but low spatial resolution (no color). Rods are responsible

Question 74

Parallel processing

Answer 74

Detect/focus all visual processing information (color, form, motion) at the same time

Question 75

Audition and its requirements

Answer 75

Sense of sound. To hear sound, there must be a pressurized sound wave and a hair cell (a receptor, located in cochlea)

Question 76

Effect of Wavelength on Cochlear Penetration

Answer 76

Longer wavelength (lower frequency) penetrates deeper into cochlea and travels farther

Question 77

Why can we hear multiple sounds at once and break them up?

Answer 77

Different sounds have different frequencies, so the depth of penetration along the cochlea is different.

Question 78

Path of Sounds Waves

Answer 78

1. Pinna 2. Auditory canal (AKA external auditory meatus) 3. Tympanic membrane (eardrum) 4. Vibration of ossicles (malleus, incus, then stapes) 5. Vibration of oval window (elliptical window) 6. Fluid movement in/around cochlea 7. Fluid gets pushed out of round window 8. Hair cells in cochlea are moved by the fluid and send electrical impulses to brain via auditory nerve 9. Impulses continue until fluid around the cochlea stops moving

Question 79

Ossicles

Answer 79

Malleus, incus, stapes (think MAS). The 3 smallest bones in the body. Vibrate due to sound conduction by the eardrum. Stapes vibrates the oval window

Question 80

Pinna

Answer 80

Outer part of ear

Question 81

Organ of Corti

Answer 81

Divides cochlea in 2. Includes basilar membrane and tectorial membrane. Prevents backflow of fluid through oval window from cochlea. Redirects fluid out through round window.

Question 82

Place Theory

Answer 82

Perception of sound depends on where each component frequency produces vibrations along the basilar membrane. Different frequencies cause vibrations in different locations

Question 83

External/Outer Ear

Answer 83

Pinna and eardrum

Question 84

Middle Ear

Answer 84

Malleus to incus to stapes (ossicles)

Question 85

Inner Ear

Answer 85

Cochlea and semicircular canals

Question 86

Upper membrane of Organ of Corti and process of signaling AP

Answer 86

Bundle of hair cells made of little filaments (kinocilium). Each kinocilium is connected by a tip link attached to a K+ channel. Endolymph pushing on the tip link causes stretching, allowing K+ to flow inside from the endolymph. Ca2+ is activated when K+ gets inside --\> AP --\> activates spiral ganglion cell --\> auditory nerve stimulation

Question 87

Main function of Cochlea

Answer 87

Differentiation between sounds

Question 88

Auditory Processing

Answer 88

How the brain interprets different reactions of the cochlea to stimuli.

Question 89

Basilar Tuning

Answer 89

Hair cells at the beginning (base) of the cochlea are activated by high frequencies. Hair cells in the middle of the cochlea (apex) are activated by lower frequency sounds (think longer wavelength = longer travel)

Question 90

Brain location of Primary Auditory Cortex

Answer 90

Temporal Lobe

Question 91

Tonotopical Mapping

Answer 91

Projection of APs due to different frequency onto different parts of the primary auditory cortex

Question 92

Cochlear Implants

Answer 92

Restores some degree of hearing to individuals with sensorineural hearing loss. Sound -\> microphone/speech processor -\> transmitter -\> receiver -\> stimulator -\> cochlea (converts electrical impulse into neural impulse to go to brain)

Question 93

Sensory Adaptation

Answer 93

Change over time of receptor's response to a constant stimulus. Downregulation of a sensory receptor in the body

Question 94

Importance of Down-Regulation of Sensory Receptor

Answer 94

Prevents cell from getting overexcited by pain signal. Too much pain signal (capsaicin) in a pain receptor can cause a cell to die

Question 95

Amplification (regarding sensation)

Answer 95

Upregulation of sensory receptor's response. Number of action potentials traveling towards the brain increases exponentially with each neuron.

Question 96

Somatosensory Homunculus

Answer 96

"Sensory strip" in the sensory cortex in the parietal lobe. Signals from different parts of the body go to different parts of the strip.

Question 97

Somatosensory Homunculus

Answer 97

Map of your body in the brain.

Question 98

Proprioception

Answer 98

Sense of balance/position. Cognitive (ie not always thinking about it)

Question 99

Spindle (proprioception)

Answer 99

Tiny receptor/sensor in the muscles that sends signals to the spinal cord and brain. Attached to the muscles so the brain knows how contracted or relaxed they are

Question 100

Kinaesthesia

Answer 100

Sense of the movement in the body in space. Similar to proprioception but different in that this is behavioral rather than cognitive

Question 101

Nociception

Answer 101

Ability to sense pain. SLOW

Question 102

Thermoception

Answer 102

Ability to sense temperature. SLOW

Question 103

Thermoception receptor (also senses pain) and mechanism

Answer 103

TrypV1 receptor. Heat induces a conformational change in the receptor protein which "pokes the cell". When cells are poked, thousands are broken up and release different molecules that bind to TrypV1 receptors, triggering another conformational change.

Question 104

3 types of nerve fibres and their relative sizes and speeds

Answer 104

A-beta (fastest), A-delta (middle speed), C (slowest)

Question 105

A-beta fibres

Answer 105

Thick and myelinated nerve fibres. Large radius means low resistance and high conductance

Question 106

A-delta fibres

Answer 106

Smaller diameter than A-beta. Less myelin = lower conductance

Question 107

C fibres

Answer 107

Unmyelinated. Smaller diameter means higher resistance and lowest conductance. Responsible for lingering sense of pain

Question 108

TrypV1 Mechanism for sensing pain

Answer 108

Capsaicin binds to TrypV1 receptor (located throughout the PNS) and triggers conformational change in receptor, sending APs to the brain.

Question 109

Gate Control Theory of Olfaction

Answer 109

Theory of the processes of nociception. States that non-painful input closes the "gates" to the painful input, which prevents pain sensation from traveling to the CNS

Question 110

Pheromones

Answer 110

Molecules released by one member of a species that trigger an innate response in another member.

Question 111

Accessory olfactory epithelium

Answer 111

Specialized part of olfactory epithelium. Sends projections to the accessory olfactory bulb which then sends signals to the brain

Question 112

Vomeronasal System

Answer 112

Within the accessory olfactory epithelium. Has basal and apical cells with receptors. Basal cells send axons through acc. olfactory bulb-\> glomerulus -\> mitral/tufted cell of amygdala

Question 113

Amygdala (location and function)

Answer 113

Located in temporal lobe. Inolved with emotion, aggression, mating, memory, decision making, and emotional reactions

Question 114

Olfaction

Answer 114

Sense of smell

Question 115

Olfactory Epithelium

Answer 115

Area of sensory cells in the nostril. Thousands of types of olfactory epithelial cells, each with a different receptor.

Question 116

Cribriform Plate

Answer 116

Separates the olfactory epithelium from the brain. It is a bone with little holes that allow olfactory sensations to be projected to the brain

Question 117

Olfactory bulb

Answer 117

A bundle of nerves that sends projections from the cribriform plate and olfactory epithelium. Located just above the cribriform plate closer to the brain.

Question 118

Glomerulus

Answer 118

Olfactory bulb that "catches" all of the action potentials fired by olfactory sensory cells that are all sensitive to the same molecule. (ex: a benzene glomerulus). Glomerulus synapses onto mitral/tufted cell

Question 119

Mitral/tufted cell

Answer 119

Postsynaptic cell of gomerulus/olfactory bulb. Projects olfactory signal to the brain

Question 120

GPCR olfacotry pathway

Answer 120

Scent molecule binds to a GPCR on an "odor molecule." Activates GPCR on olfactory epithelia. GP dissociates and triggers cascade inside the cell. GP binds to an ion channel that allows outside cells to enter this one. Open cell triggers an AP (which travels to cribriform plate, then glomerulus, then mitral/tufted cell, then brain).

Question 121

Ipsilateral and Contralateral Senses

Answer 121

Ipsilateral: Olfaction and gustation - because they do not synapse onto the thalamus. Contralateral: Vision, hearing, touch

Question 122

Labeled-line Theory of Olfaction

Answer 122

Each receptor would respond to specific stimuli and is directly linked to the brain

Question 123

Vibrational Theory of Olfaction

Answer 123

Vibrational frequency of a molecule gives that molecule its specific odor profile

Question 124

Steric/Shape Theory of Olfaction

Answer 124

Odors fit into receptors similar to lock and key

Question 125

Anosmia

Answer 125

Inability to perceive odor

Question 126

Olfactory Pathway in the Brain

Answer 126

Signal is transmitted from olfactory bulb to amygdla and piriform cortex. Then is transmitted to orbitofrontal cortex

Question 127

Gustation

Answer 127

Sense of taste

Question 128

5 Main Tastes

Answer 128

Bitter, salty, sweet, sour, and umami (ability to taste glutamate)

Question 129

Papillae

Answer 129

Structures that contain taste buds and their taste receptors

Question 130

Location and distribution of taste buds

Answer 130

Can be fungiform (anterior), foliate (side), and circumvallate (back). Concentrated at front of the tongue

Question 131

Fungiform papillae

Answer 131

Mushroom-shaped structures located on tip and side of tongue that contain taste-buds

Question 132

Foliate papillae

Answer 132

Folded strucutres at the back of the tongue on both sides. Contain taste buds

Question 133

Circumvallate papillae

Answer 133

Flat mound structures found at the back of the tongue an contain taste buds

Question 134

Filiform papillae

Answer 134

DO NOT contain taste buds and are found all over the tongue. Exclusive form of papillae at the center of the tongue

Question 135

Tastant

Answer 135

A substance that stimulates sense of taste

Question 136

Gustucin

Answer 136

A protein associated with the sense of taste

Question 137

Chorda Tympani

Answer 137

Nerve part of the 7th cranial nerve that carries signals from the front 2/3 of the tongue

Question 138

9th and 10th cranial nerves

Answer 138

Glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. Carry signals from the rear 1/3 of the tongue

Question 139

Labeled-lines Model of Gustation

Answer 139

Each taste bud has 5 axons that all send separate information to the different parts of the gustatory cortex. All synapse at different locations

Question 140

GPCR-dependent tastes

Answer 140

Sweet, umami, and bitter cells rely on GPCRs

Question 141

Ion channel-dependent

Answer 141

Sour and salty. Ex: NaCl binds directly to a receptor and causes ion channel to open --\> positive ions flow in --\> depolarization --\> AP

Question 142

Ion-channel response to sour taste

Answer 142

Sour tastants bind to receptors that react with H+. Binding of H+ receptor causes K+ channels to close

Question 143

First locaiton of taste/smell signals in the brain

Answer 143

Orbitofrontal cortex (NOT the thalamus)

Question 144

Consciousness

Answer 144

Awareness of one's self and environment. Varying levels of consciousness

Question 145

States of Consciousness

Answer 145

Alertness, daydreaming, drowsiness, sleep

Question 146

Electroencephalograms (EEGs)

Answer 146

Measure brainwaves (beta, alpha, delta, theta), which differ in frequency with each state of consciousness

Question 147

Beta brainwaves

Answer 147

12-130 Hz. Associated with awake/concentration. One being awake and alert for too long can cause high beta levels and increased stress, anxiety and restlessness

Question 148

Alpha brainwaves

Answer 148

8-13 Hz. Daydreaming state. Disappear in drowsiness but reappear in deep sleep.

Question 149

Theta brainwaves

Answer 149

407 Hz. Appear in drowsiness and very early/light sleep. Slower/lower frequency than alpha waves

Question 150

Delta brain waves

Answer 150

0.5 - 3 Hz. Long and low frequency. Active in deep sleep or coma

Question 151

Brainwaves

Answer 151

Neural rhythms that can be measured by EEGs

Question 152

Sleep stages - what are they and the 4 main ones?

Answer 152

Distinct patterns during sleep. 4 main stages: N1, N2, N3, REM. Cycle through all four in 90 min

Question 153

N1 Stage of sleep

Answer 153

Stage 1. Dominated by theta waves. Experience strange sensations: hypnagonic hallucinations, Tetris effect, and/or hypnic jerks

Question 154

N2 Stage of sleep

Answer 154

Stage 2. People are difficult to awaken. More theta waves than N1, also see sleep spindles and K-complexes

Question 155

Sleep spindles

Answer 155

Rapid bursts of brain actiivty. May help inhibit certain perceptions so we maintain a tranquil state during sleep (like sleeping through loud noises). In N2 stage.

Question 156

K-complexes

Answer 156

Suppress cortical arousal and keep one asleep. Aid in sleep-based memory consolidation (transfer of some mem to long-term mem), especially declarative/explicit memories. Ex: sleeping through a gentle touch

Question 157

N3 Stage of sleep

Answer 157

Slow-wave sleep. Very difficult to awaken. Lots of delta waves. Sleep walking/talking occurs in this phase. Declarative memory consolidation occurs. Regular breathing and regular slow brain waves

Question 158

REM stage

Answer 158

Eyes move rapidly beneath your eyelids. Most other muscles are paralyzed. Decreased prefrontal cortex activity. Stage when most dreaming occurs - paralyzation inhibits physical actions. Most important stage for memory consolidation. Forms episodic memories. Combination of alpha, beta, and dyssynchronous waves (similar to beta waves).

Question 159

Paradoxical sleep

Answer 159

Another name for REM sleep

Question 160

Circadian Rhythms

Answer 160

Regular body rhythms across 24-hour period. Control body temp and sleep cycle. Queued by daylight (or even artificial light). Changes as you age. Controlled by melatonin

Question 161

Melatonin

Answer 161

Hormone produced in the pineal gland. Controls Circadian Rhythms

Question 162

When must one awaken to remember their dreams?

Answer 162

During REM sleep

Question 163

Freud's Dream Theory

Answer 163

reams are unconscious feelings, thoughts, and desires that need to be interpreted

Question 164

Evolutionary biology theory fo dreams

Answer 164

Threat simulation in preparation for the real world. Also could be simulation of problem-solving

Question 165

Manifest content (Freud Dream Theory)

Answer 165

Literal meaning of one's dream

Question 166

Latent content (Freud's Dream Theory)

Answer 166

Hidden meaning behind one's dream

Question 167

Activation Synthesis Hypothesis (Dreams Theory)

Answer 167

Brain is trying to find meaning from random brain activity (therefore, dreams likely have no meaning).

Question 168

Effects of sleep deprivation

Answer 168

Irritability, poorer memory and attention, increased rates of motor vehicle accidents, increased risk of depression, more susceptible to obesity because body makes more cortisol and hunger hormone (ghrelin)

Question 169

Insomnia and possible treatments

Answer 169

Persistent trouble falling or staying asleep. Treatments involve psychological training and lifestyle changes

Question 170

Narcolepsy

Answer 170

Inability to prevent oneself from falling into a sleeping fit (each usually last about 5 minutes, occur randomly)

Question 171

Sleep apnea

Answer 171

Stop breathing while sleeping, body realizes its not getting enough air, wakes up just long enough to gasp for air, then fall back asleep without even realizing (can happen 100X per night). Don't get enough N3 sleep (makes people tired even after a full night of sleep).

Question 172

Induced State of Consciouness

Answer 172

Examples include hypnosis and medication

Question 173

Hypnotism

Answer 173

Person becomes more susceptible to suggestion in this state - but only if they want to. More alpha waves in this state.

Question 174

False Memories

Answer 174

Memories that incorporate hypnotizer's expectations even when not intended. Possible consequence of hypnosis used for memory retrieval, which is very dangerous because memories are malleable

Question 175

Dissociation Theory of hyptnosis

Answer 175

Hypnotism is an extreme form of divided consciousness

Question 176

Social Influence Theory of hypnosis

Answer 176

People do and report what is expected of them, like actors caught up in their roles

Question 177

Meditation

Answer 177

Training people to self-regulate their attention and awareness. Can be guided and focused on something in particular or can be unfocused, like letting the mind wander

Question 178

Psychoactive Drugs

Answer 178

Alter consciousness, perceptions, mood, calm us down, make us feel more alert. Classified by action and effect on the body

Question 179

Four main categories of psychoactive drugs

Answer 179

Depressants, stimulants, hallucinogens, opiates/opioids

Question 180

Depressants

Answer 180

Lower the body's basic functions and nueral activity, lower CNS activity. Vasodilator is low, vasoconstricotor is high.

Question 181

Alcohol

Answer 181

A depressant. Decreases inhibitions --\> decreases cognitive control. Lack of coordination, slurred speech, disrupts REM sleep and memory formation

Question 182

Barbiturates

Answer 182

Depressants used to induce sleep or reduce anxiety. Depresses CNS.

Question 183

Anticonvulsants

Answer 183

Depressant drugs that reduce seizures, specifically under the umbrella of barbiturates

Question 184

Benzodiazepines

Answer 184

More commonly prescribed. depressants used to treat the same conditions as barbiturates. Act by enhancing the brain's response to GABA -\> open up GABA-activates Cl channels in the brain.

Question 185

3 Types of Benzodiazepines

Answer 185

Short, intermediate, and long-acting. Short and intermediates are used for sleep. Long is used for anxiety

Question 186

Stimulants (description and examples)

Answer 186

Excite the CNS, increase HR/BP, alertness, vasoconstriction. Ex: caffeine, amphetamines (adderall), methamphetamines, MDMA (Molly/Ecstasy), Cocaine, Nicotine, THC

Question 187

The effects of which psychoactive drugs are similar to stress?

Answer 187

Stimulants

Question 188

Cocaine

Answer 188

Stimulant. Blocks dopamine reuptake

Question 189

Amphetamines

Answer 189

Stimulants. Blocks dopamine reuptake and stimulates presynaptic dopamine release

Question 190

Caffeine

Answer 190

Stimulant. Inhibits the enzyme that breaks down cAMP (cAMP normally leads to the decrease of HR)

Question 191

Nicotine

Answer 191

Stimulant. Enhances ACh release.

Question 192

THC

Answer 192

Stimulant, hallucinogen, and depressant. Works on anandamide, increases dopamine and GABA activity.

Question 193

Hallucinogens/Psychedelics

Answer 193

Cause distorted perceptions/hallucinations, may cause heightened sensations. Affects energy levels, emotions, personality, dilation of pupils. Ex: mescaline, peyote, PCP, LSD, psilocybin

Question 194

LSD

Answer 194

Hallucinogen that modifies serotonin NT be affecting the 5-HT2 receptor family.

Question 195

Myadrisis

Answer 195

Dilation of pupil

Question 196

Opioids vs Opiates

Answer 196

Opiates are natural whereas opioids are synthetic

Question 197

Opiates/Opioids

Answer 197

Like depressants - decrease CNS function, HR/BP, and up relaxation/induce sleep. Analgesic effect by acting endorphin receptors. Vasodilator and constrict pupils.

Question 198

Death by opiates/opioids

Answer 198

Respiratory failure

Question 199

MDMA

Answer 199

Can be a stimulant or hallucinogen

Question 200

Psychoactive drug used from PTSD treatment

Answer 200

Hallucinogens. Allow people to access painful memories, but detached from strong emotions. Helps people come to terms with it

Question 201

NTs of Reward Pathways in the Brain

Answer 201

Dopamine levels go up (produced in Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA) in midbrain). Serotonin levels go down (preventing one from feeling satiated or content)

Question 202

Nucleus Accumbens

Answer 202

Controls motor functions

Question 203

Prefrontal cortex

Answer 203

Focuses attention and planning

Question 204

Hippocampus (location and function)

Answer 204

In temporal lobe. Involved in memory formation

Question 205

Tolerance

Answer 205

A shift in the dose-response curve that causes decreased sensitivity ot a drug due to exposure. ie One gets used to a drug so they need more of it to achieve the same feeling/effect.

Question 206

Cross tolerance

Answer 206

Reduction in the efficacy or responsiveness to a novel drug due to a common CNS target

Question 207

Withdrawal Symptoms

Answer 207

Occur after prolonged use. Sign of addiction. May be acute or post-acute. Can cause illness and even death.

Question 208

Acute withdrawal

Answer 208

Within a few weeks of use. Mainly physical symptoms. Different for each person

Question 209

Post-acute withdrawal

Answer 209

Usually lasts about 2 years. Roller-coaster of good stretches and bad stretches, varying in length. Fewer physical symptoms and more mental/psychological. Same symptoms for everyone: mood swings, anxiety, irritability, tiredness, varaible energy, low enthusiasm, variable concentration, disturbed sleep.

Question 210

Substance-induced disorders

Answer 210

Conditions that are caused by a substance. Can be mood-related (high mood - mania, low mood - depression) or related to anxiety, sleep, sexual function, psychosis (loss of contact with reality)

Question 211

Methadone

Answer 211

Activates opiate receptors, but acts slower than heroine and the lik, so it dampens the high. Reduces cravings, eases withdrawal, and if heroine is taken, the user cannot experience the same high because receptors are already full of longer-acting methadone

Question 212

Cognitive behavioral therapy

Answer 212

Psychological treatment for drug disorders that addresses both behavioral and cognitive components of addiction. Patients must learn to develop more positive thought patterns and coping behaviors, learn to anticipate problematic situations and to self-monitor for cravings so they can apply their coping stategies. Long-lasting

Question 213

Selective attention

Answer 213

The ability to maintain attention while being presented with masking or interfering stimuli. Instead of division of one's focusing abilities, one task is being selected between the two (or more) at hand.

Question 214

Exogenous Cues

Answer 214

AKA External cues: obvious, attention-grabbing stimuli in the environment. Exogenous attention is driven by botton-up or external events. Ex: loud noises

Question 215

Endogenous cues

Answer 215

AKA Internal cues: Require internal knowledge to understand the cue and the intention to follow it. Endogenous attention is dirven by top-down or internal events. Ex: a mouse arrown on a computer drawing one's attention

Question 216

Perceptual blindness

Answer 216

AKA In-attentional blindness: the inability to recognize and unexpected object, event, or other stimulus that is in plain sight. Due to a psychological lapse in attention rather than a defect in sensory perception. "Missing something that is right in front of you"

Question 217

Change blindness

Answer 217

Fail to notice changes from a previous to current state in environment. Ex: not noticing your mom gets a haircut

Question 218

Distal vs Proximal Stimuli

Answer 218

Distal are the objects and events out in the world about you. Aware of and respond to this because this is what is important. Proximal stimul: the patterns of stimul from distal stimuli that actually reach your senses. i.e. it is the actual light falling on the retina

Question 219

Covert orienting

Answer 219

The act of bringing the spotlight of attention on an object or event WITHOUT body or eye movement

Question 220

Overt Orienting

Answer 220

A person moving all/part of their body to alter or maximize the senory impact of a stimulus

Question 221

Attentional capture

Answer 221

Occurs when attention is attracted by the motion of an object

Question 222

Neglect Syndrome

Answer 222

Occurs when damage to the brain causes a change or loss in the capacity of the spatial dimension of divided attention

Question 223

NT that modulates attentional network and its place of production

Answer 223

Norepinephrine produced in the locus ceruleus

Question 224

NT that modulates the network responsible for changing focus from one stimulus to another

Answer 224

Acetylcholine produced in the basal forebrain

Question 225

Basal forebrain

Answer 225

Collection of strucutres located to the front of and below the striatum. Includes the nucleus accumbens, nucleus basalis, and medial septal nuclei. Important the production of ACh for the entire CNS

Question 226

Executive attention and the NT (and place of production) that is responsible for it

Answer 226

Involved in goal-directed behavior, monitoring conflicts between internal processes, and anticipating effects of behavior. Dopamine from the ventral tagmental area is associated with executing attention

Question 227

Shadowing task

Answer 227

Experiment that studies selective attention. Two different stimuli are played into the right and left ears through headphones. then subject is asked to repeat everything said into one ear and ignore the other.

Question 228

Broadbent's Early Selection Theory

Answer 228

Theory of selective attention that supports idea that all environmental info goes into sensory register, and then gets transferred to selective filter right away, which identifies what you are supposed to be attending to via basic physical characteristics and filters out stuff in unattended ear based on things you don't need to understand. Finally moves info to perceptual processes where friends' voices are identified, meaning assigned to words, and ultimately allows one to engage in other cognitive processes like deciding how to respond. Basically: sensory register -\> selective filter -\> perceptual process -\> conscious

Question 229

Deutch and Deutch's Late Selection Theory

Answer 229

Places broadband selective filter after perceptual processes, meaning that everythat that comes into one's sensory register is assigned meaning and then selectively filtered to determine what goes on to conscious awareness. sensory register -\> perceptual process -\> selective filter -\> conscious think: "the Detsch (German) pay attention to everything!!" and makes sense bc Germans are intense

Question 230

Treisman's Attenuation Theory

Answer 230

Instead of selective filter, we have attenuators that weaken but does not eliminate input from unattended "ear." Then some stimuli get to perceptual processes, but are assigned low importance if from unattended ear. sensory register -\> attenuator -\> perceptual process - conscious think: Treismans is SHARP as a T. He is smar enough to only attenuate and then perceive

Question 231

Johnson's and Heinz's proposal on selective attention

Answer 231

The location of the info attenuator was able to be varies by the listener depending on the demand necessitated by a particular attention task

Question 232

Spotlight Model of Attention

Answer 232

Selective attention - takes info from all 5 sense but doesn't pay attention to everything. Aware on an unconscious level - ex: priming

Question 233

Priming

Answer 233

Exposure to one stimulus affects response to another stimulus, even if we haven't been consciously paying attention to it. Ex: we're primed to respond to our name - why it's a strong prim for pulling our attention

Question 234

Resource model of attention

Answer 234

We have limited resources in attention. Resources that are easily overtasked if we try to pay attention to multiple things at once. ie not good at multitasking

Question 235

Factors that influcence one's ability to mutlitask

Answer 235

Task similarity: like listening to music while writing a paper - best to listen to classical music because it is harder to multitask with similar tasks Task difficulty: harder tasks require more focus - ex: texting while driving is more difficult that talking to a passenger Practice: activities well-practiced become automatic processes or things that occur without need for attention. Whether task is automatic vs controlled is determine by the amoutn of practice

Question 236

Infomration processing model

Answer 236

Proposes that brains are similar to computers in that we get input from environment, process it, and then output decisions. Bottom-up/stimulus-driven theory. Assumes limited storage and attention capacities. Also assumes serial processes (when the brain is actually capable of parallel processing)

Question 237

Iconic memory

Answer 237

What you see. Lasts for half a second in the sensory register

Question 238

Echoic memory

Answer 238

What you hear. Lasts for 3-4 seconds in sensory register

Question 239

Partial report technique

Answer 239

Report one part of a whole field in cued recall

Question 240

Working memory and capacity

Answer 240

AKA Short-term memory: the sensory info one actually processes, or the memory that is stored while it is held in attention. Consiste of what you are thinking about at a moment. Capacity: 7 +/- 2 pieces of info at a time, although this varies based on how complicated the stimuli are.

Question 241

Serial position effect

Answer 241

Primacy and recency effects

Question 242

Viso-spatial sketchpad

Answer 242

Visual and spatial info are porcessed in this

Question 243

Phonological loop

Answer 243

Where verbal info from iconic and echoic memory is processed. Ex: repeating a phone number to yourself. Store-capacity is about 2 seconds

Question 244

Central executive

Answer 244

Coordinates visual and verbal info from visuo-spatial sketchpad and phonological loop. Supervises the cognitive process of memory. Creates an integrated representation and stores it in the episodic buffer

Question 245

Episodic buffer

Answer 245

Storage place of the representations that are concocted by the central executrive

Question 246

Dual Coding Hypothesis

Answer 246

It's easier to remember words associated with images than either one alone.

Question 247

Method of Loci

Answer 247

Linking info to locations. Tie information you need to remember to certain stopsalong a route that you already know. A type of mnemonic

Question 248

Operational Span Testing

Answer 248

A test in which subjects are asked to perform a simple mathematical verification and then read a word, with a recall test follwing some number of those verify/read pairs. The max number of words that can be recalled is the operation span.

Question 249

Categories of long-term memroy and capacity

Answer 249

Unlimited capacity. The two catagories are explicit (declarative) and implicit (non-declarative)

Question 250

Explicit memory and its subsections

Answer 250

Declarative facts/events one can explicitly (clearly) describe. Expliciti memory is a type of long term memory that focuses on recalling previous experiences and info. Can be divided into episodic (event-related) and semantic (simple facts)

Question 251

Implicit Memories/Non-declarative

Answer 251

Involve things you may not articulate / procedural memories. Includes previous experiences that aid in the performance of a task without conscious awareness of these previous experiences. Formed unconsciously. Includes all memories formed by conditioning, habits,

Question 252

Storage area of habits/implicit memories in the brain

Answer 252

Basal ganglia

Question 253

Negative priming

Answer 253

An implicit memory effect in which prior exposure to a stimulus unfavorably influences the response to the same stimulus. Caused by experiencing the stimulus and then ignoring it. Lowers the speed of response to slower than un-primed levels

Question 254

Positive priming

Answer 254

Speeds up processing, caused by simply experiencing the stimulus. Thought to be caused by spreading activation, meaning that the first stimulus activates parts of a particular representation or association in memory just before carrying out an action or task. The representation is already partially activated when the second stimulus is encountered, so less additional activation is needed for one to become consciously aware of it.

Question 255

Autobiographical memory

Answer 255

Memory consisting of episodes recollected from an individual's life, based on a combination of episodic and semantic memories

Question 256

Encoding memory

Answer 256

Transferring information from the temporary store in working memory into the permanent store in long-term memory. More successful when more cognitive effor is actively used, especially when using a combination of encoding strategies

Question 257

Encoding specificity

Answer 257

Enhanced memory when testing takes place under the same conditions as learning

Question 258

Rote rehearsal

Answer 258

Saying the same thing over and over. Least effective encoding strategy.

Question 259

Chunking

Answer 259

Grouping info we receive into meaningful categories we already know to ease memorization

Question 260

Mnemonic devices

Answer 260

Link info that you are trying to learn into previously existing long-term information that is already in your memory. Types: imagery (the crazier the better), Pegword system (verbal anchors that link workd that rhyme with the number), Method of Loci, Acronym

Question 261

Self-referencing

Answer 261

Think about new info and how it relates to you personally. Ex: imagine learning something about history, you then learn the info by talking to the general

Question 262

Preparing the teach

Answer 262

Learning strategy in which one pretends to be learning in order to be able to tach the info to someone else later. More likely to put effort into organization and understanding immediately

Question 263

Spacing

Answer 263

Encoding strategy that involves spreading out study sessions over time in shorter periods rather than cramming.

Question 264

Free recall

Answer 264

Recalling without any cues. Most difficult form of recall. Influenced by serial position effects (hardest to remember items in the middle of a list).

Question 265

Cued recall

Answer 265

Recalling with clues/cues for aid. Easier than free recall.

Question 266

Recognition

Answer 266

Easiest form of recall

Question 267

Schema

Answer 267

Metal blueprint containing comon aspects of world. Basis for information we retrieve

Question 268

Source amnesia

Answer 268

The inability to remember where, when or how previously learned info has been acquired, while retaining factual knowledge

Question 269

Flashbulb memories

Answer 269

Highly emotional memories that are extrememly vivid. May seem as though they are remembered as real life, they are susceptible to reconstruction

Question 270

Long-Term Potentiation

Answer 270

Connections of neurons strengthen with use of that given pathway. An example of synaptic plasticity. With repeated stimulation, the same pre-synaptic neuron stimulation converts into greater/stronger post-synaptic neuron potential --\> strongter synapse. This is how learning occurs.

Question 271

Neural Plasticity

Answer 271

Changes in brain size. Involves function of envirnomental influences

Question 272

Decay (regarding memory)

Answer 272

A reason for forgetting. Neglecting to use a pathway between cue and memory forces the pathway to become weaker, making it harder to stimulate the memory. Studied first by Ebbinghaus

Question 273

Interference (regarding memory) - the two types

Answer 273

Retroactive interference: New learning impairs old info. Refers to new info interfering with memory of earlier information Proactive interference: Something you learned in the past impairs learning the future. Earlier info interferes with later info

Question 274

Memories that remain stable with age

Answer 274

Implicit/procedural and recognition memory

Question 275

Memory-related cognitive function that decline with age

Answer 275

Episodic memories (formation declines, old memories remain stable), processing speed, divided attention, prospective memory

Question 276

Prospective memory

Answer 276

Remembering to do something in the future

Question 277

Dementia

Answer 277

Decline in memory and other cognitive functions to the point of interfering with daily life. Results from excessive damage to brain tissue. Most common form is Alzheimer's

Question 278

Alzheimer's Disease

Answer 278

Characterized by death of neurons, cerebral cortex shrinking in size, and buildup of amyloid plaques. Patients usually retain procedural and episodic memory early on. Symptoms: short-term memoly-loss (progresses into long term), difficulty with attention, planning, semantic memory, and abstract thinking. Later progression may involve emotion instability and loss of bodily functions.

Question 279

Korsakoff's Syndrome

Answer 279

Severe memory-loss not caused by brain injury. Caused by lack of vitamin B1 or thiamine--\>Caused by malnutrition, eating disorders, and especially alcoholism. Not progressive. Wernicke's encephalopathy is a precursor. Can be trated with supplements and lifestyle changes.

Question 280

Wernicke's encephalopathy

Answer 280

Poor balance, abnormal eye movements, mild confusion, and memory loss. Precursor to Korsakoff's syndrome.

Question 281

Retrograde vs Anterograde amnesia

Answer 281

R: Inability to recall info previously encoded. A: Inability to encode new memories

Question 282

Retrograde vs Anterorade Amnesia

Answer 282

Retrograde: Inability to remember experiences before a brain injury Anterograde: Inability to form long-term memories after a brain injury, but able to remember memories from before the accidnet

Question 283

Semantic Networks

Answer 283

Concepts are organized in one's mind as connected ideas. For closely related ideas, these networks are likely shorter, and then are likely longer for less closely related ideas

Question 284

Hierarchical Semantic Networks

Answer 284

Storage of info in a hierarchical way, from higher order categories to lower order categories. We stor info at the highest category possible, broad categories/characteristics are stoed at higher level nodes.

Question 285

Cognitive Economy Principle

Answer 285

States that the human brain is efficient. Longer distance between nodes or more nodes between stimulus and conclusion = longer time required to verify a connection

Question 286

Modifed Semantic Network

Answer 286

Every individual semantic network develops based on experience and knowledge. Some links might be shorter/longer for different indivuals and there may be direct links for higher order categories to examplars

Question 287

Spreading activaiton

Answer 287

All ideas in one's brain are connected. Pulling up one memory pulls up others, as well.

Question 288

Stronger nodal links (regarding memory/processing)

Answer 288

Correlate with decreased processing time (as does learning). Stengthening occurs via more and more exposure.

Question 289

Piaget'sTheory on Children's Cognitive Abilities

Answer 289

Believed that children are not miniature adults, rather that they actively construct their understanding of the world as they develop. As their bodies grow, so do their minds. Piaget placed age boundaries on the stages of cognitive development, which have not proven to be accurate for all children, but they do follow Piaget's proposed general sequence of events ( a schema)

Question 290

Paget's Stages of Development

Answer 290

1) Sensorimotor stage: 0-2-year-olds gather info via the 5 senses, love peak-aboo, and have issues with object permanence and stranger anxiety 2) Preoperational stage: 2-6/7-year-olds engage in pretend play, start understanding words and symbols, and are very egocentric 3) Concrete operational stage: 7-11-year-olds learn empathy, logic, reversibility, math skills, and conversational skills 4) Formal operational stage: 12+ year olds develop understanding of abstract consequences, moral reasoning, and hypothetical situations, ultimately allowing them to solve novel problems

Question 291

Schemas

Answer 291

Mental models/framework that we develop to organize and interpret new info. Must be dynamic through assimilation ad accommodation Assimilation: how we describe new info/experiences in terms of our current understanding/schemas Accommodation: how we later adjust our schemas to incorporate new experiences to remember

Question 292

Trial and Error Method of Problem Solving

Answer 292

Taking random guesses until something works. Highly inefficient.

Question 293

Algorithm Method of Problem Solving

Answer 293

Methodical approach. Logically taking a set step-by-step approach to reach solutions until you find the right one. Not efficient but you will eventually find the answer

Question 294

Heuristics

Answer 294

Mental shortcuts/"rules of thumb" that allow us to find solutions quickly. Reduces the number of solutions we need to try by taking an approach as to what possibilities could exist and eliminates trying unlikely possibilities. Doesn't guarantee a correct solution. Ex: means-ends analysis, working backwards, intuition

Question 295

Means-ends analysis

Answer 295

Solving the biggest "sub-problem" of a large overall problem. Involves analysis and breakdown of this overall problem at hand

Question 296

Working backwards

Answer 296

Start with a goal and use it to suggest connections back to current state. Used in mathematical proofs and mazes

Question 297

Intuition

Answer 297

Relying on instinct. High chance of error

Question 298

Fixation

Answer 298

Getting stuck on a wrong approach to a problem and maintaining the strategy, despite its inefficiency

Question 299

Incubation Method of Problem Solving

Answer 299

Insight comes with time

Question 300

Type I error

Answer 300

False positive

Question 301

Type II Error

Answer 301

False negative

Question 302

Decision making

Answer 302

We make a judgement of the desirability/probability of a certain outcome

Question 303

Availability Heuristic

Answer 303

Using examples that come to mind. Helpful, but often, our most memorable experiences do not match the real state of the world. Ex: The news shows more shark attacks than fireworks accidents, so you assume that shark attacks are more fatal, but in reality, fireworks are

Question 304

Representative heuristic

Answer 304

How well something matches a mental prototype (e.g. a woman assuming a woman dressed in scrubs is a nurse rather than a surgeon) Ex: Linda is very outspoken and bright, majored in philosophy, and has publicly demonstrated in antinuclear organizations. When asked between the two, people that do not know Linda are more likely to say that Linda is a feminist bank teller than just a bank teller because her personality appears to fit the prototype of a feminist Can lead to Conjunction Fallacy: the belief that a co-occurrence of two events is more likely than just one happening

Question 305

Conjunction Fallacy

Answer 305

The belief that co-occurrence of two events is more likely than just one happening

Question 306

Availability vs Representative Heuristics

Answer 306

``` Availability = actual memories in mind Representative = not thinking of exact memories, thinking of a prototype/general idea ```

Question 307

Biases-and-Adjustment Heuristic

Answer 307

Requires a person to create a set point or anchor, and then the answer is adjusted based on comparing new info to the anchor

Question 308

Biases

Answer 308

Beliefs that prevent us from making correct decisions of from changing decisions once they are made

Question 309

Overconfidence bias

Answer 309

Ex: Going into a test without knowing a lot of info. Could be due to ease of processing during studying. Can also be experienced when one is overconfident in an argument that is not concretely backed up

Question 310

Belief perseverance bias

Answer 310

Ignore/rationalize disconfirming facts. Ex: During elections learned about and then ignored facts about someone you had previously decided that you liked

Question 311

Confirmation bias

Answer 311

Actively seeking out only facts that confirm you prior beliefs

Question 312

Framing effects

Answer 312

How you present the decision can affect decisions as well. Ex: disease mortality described in terms of number that live vs number that die, and the course of action you choose. Most will choose the course of action that involves the mortality rate described by the number of people that survive

Question 313

Semantic Networks

Answer 313

Concepts are organized in mind in terms of connected ideas. Parallel to how info might be stored in a computer. Links are likely shorter for closely related ideas, or longer for less-related ideas. Concepts are represented by nodes. The longer it takes us to verify the connections between nodes, the longer it takes for us to verify that link. Not the end all-be all because there are such things as modified semantic networks (exceptions to the rules above)

Question 314

Spreading activation

Answer 314

When one concept in a semantic pathway is activated, related concepts are pulled in as well

Question 315

Spearman's Theory of One General Intelligence

Answer 315

Evidence comes from the fact that people who score well on one test also tend to score well on other types of tests. Factor underlying these inconsistent abilities is called the g factor (g = general intelligence)

Question 316

Theory for 3 Types of Intelligence (name and describe them)

Answer 316

The 3 types: analytical, creative, and practical Analytical: academic abilities, the only type assessed by IQ test, higher=tend to do better in school Creative: ability to adapt to new situations and generate novel ideas and adapt Practical intelligence: ability to solve ill-defined problems like getting a bookcase up a curvy staircase

Question 317

Emotional Intelligence

Answer 317

Perceive, understand, and manage and use emotions in interactions with others

Question 318

Fluid Intelligence

Answer 318

One's ability to reason quickly and abstractly, as when solving novel logic problems. "Thinking on your feet." Helps people see patterns, organize, and identify feature and spatial relationships.

Question 319

Crystallized intelligence

Answer 319

Refers to accumulated knowledge and verbal skills. Increases with age, whereas fluid intelligence tends to decrease with age

Question 320

Alfred-Binet

Answer 320

First to develop an intelligence test, although was actually intending to measure a child's mental age. Designed for French children

Question 321

Lewis Terman and the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test

Answer 321

Terman: modified Binet's Intelligence Test to create the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test (SBIT) SBIT: Started being used to measure intelligence of immigrants (language barrier was a major issue)

Question 322

Galton's idea of hereditary genius

Answer 322

Human ability is herditary

Question 323

Binet's idea of mental age

Answer 323

How a child at a specific age performs intellectually compared to average intellectual performance for that physical age in years

Question 324

Convergent intelligence

Answer 324

IQ test-related intelligence (puzzles, vocabulary words, arithmetic). Proposed by Guilford

Question 325

Theories of Intelligence (acronym!!)

Answer 325

ST[a]G[e]S ``` S = Spearman (General) T = Thurnstone (Primary mental abilities) G = Gardner (Mutliple intelligence) S = Sternberg (Triarchic multiple intellignce) ```

Question 326

Spearman's Theory of Intelligence

Answer 326

General: G-factor predicts our intelligence in multiple academic areas. Limited in what is considers to be intelligence

Question 327

Thurnstone's Theory of Intelligence

Answer 327

Primary Mental Abilities: 7 factors of intelligence are word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial reasoning, perceptual speed, numerical ability, inductive reasoning, memory. Limited

Question 328

Gardner's Theory of Intelligence

Answer 328

Theory of Multiple Intelligence: 9 independent intelligences are logical-mathematical, verbal-linguistic, spatial-visual, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, musical, naturalist, and existential intelligence

Question 329

Sternberg's Theory of Intelligence

Answer 329

Triarchic Theory of Intelligence: the 3 independent intelligences are analytical, creative intelligence, and practical intelligence

Question 330

Side of the brain that dominates language abilities in most people

Answer 330

Left (90%)

Question 331

Broca's area, Broca's Aphasia

Answer 331

Area: In frontal lobe. Responsible for speaking/language processing Aphasia: "broken speech" or even halted characterize by apraxia, a disorder of motor planning

Question 332

Wernicke's area, Wernicke's Aphasia

Answer 332

Area: In temporal lobe. Responsible for understanding language. Aphasia: Also called fluent aphasia. Word salad. People often speak grammatically correct but do not understand what they are hearing or saying

Question 333

Aphasia

Answer 333

Disorder that involves language. Communication disorder that causes problems with speaking, listening, reading, and writing

Question 334

Glocal aphasia

Answer 334

Both Broca's and Wernicke's Aphasia together. Combination of impaired comprehension and production of speech

Question 335

Arcuate Fasciculus

Answer 335

Nerve fibers that connect Broca's and Wenicke's. They are present in deaf people that know sign language. Damaged in conduction/associative aphasia

Question 336

Conduction aphasia

Answer 336

Due to damage to the arcuate fasciculus. Makes it difficult to repeat things even when they understand what is being said.

Question 337

Agraphia

Answer 337

Inability to write

Question 338

Anomia/anomic aphasia

Answer 338

inability to name things. Difficulties in naming objects or retrieving words

Question 339

Corpus Callosum

Answer 339

Thick band of nerve fibers that connects the two hemispheres. Communication is disrupted when this is severed (split brain patient)

Question 340

Contralateral Organization of the brain

Answer 340

Left visual field info gets processed by right side and vice versa

Question 341

Left brain vs Right brain

Answer 341

Left: logical, sequential, rational, analytical, objective, looks at parts Right: random, intuitive, holistic, synthesizing, subjective, looks at wholes

Question 342

Prosody

Answer 342

Located on right hemisphere. Concerend with larger units of speech like syllables. Involved in intonation, tone, stress, and rhythm. May reflect various features of the speaker or the utterance (emotional star of the speaker), the form of utterance (statement, question, command), the presence of irony/sarcasm, emphasis, or other elements of language that may not be encoded by grammar or vocab

Question 343

Behaviorists-Empiricists ' view of language

Answer 343

Believe language is just conditioned behavior, meaning that children aren't born with anything and that they only acquire language through operant conditioning. Does not explain how babies can produce sentences they have never heard before

Question 344

Nativists-Rationalists' view of language

Answer 344

Language must be innate (children born with the ability to learn it). Associated with Noam Chomsky.

Question 345

Materialists' view of language

Answer 345

Look at what happened in the brain when people think/spea/write

Question 346

Universalism

Answer 346

Thought determines language completely. Your thought dictates language

Question 347

Piaget

Answer 347

Came up with cognitive development in children. He believed that language is influenced by cognitive development. e.g Children developing object permanence will start to develop words like "gone," "missing"

Question 348

Vygotsky

Answer 348

Language and thought are both independent but converge through development. Eventually learn to use them at the same time via socialization. Children develop language by socializing with adults that already know the language

Question 349

Linguistic Determinism

Answer 349

Language has an influence on thought. They are called the Weak and Strong hypotheses, referring to how much influence they think language has on thought

Question 350

Weak Linguistic Determinism (relativism)

Answer 350

Linguistic structure influences, but does not determine, the context of everyday encounters

Question 351

Strong Linguistic Determination (Sapir-Whorfian hypothesis)

Answer 351

Language determines thought completely. People understand their world through language, and language thus shapes how we experience the world. Linguistic structure determines how and about what an individual thinks

Question 352

Interactionist approach (to language)

Answer 352

Believes that biological and social factors have to interact in order for children to learn language. Children's desire to communicate with others motivates them to learn language. Associated with Vygotsky

Question 353

Critical/Sensitive Period

Answer 353

A point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life

Question 354

Lexicon

Answer 354

A set of vocabulary terms. The entire set of morphemes in a language. Ex: the lexicon of ASL would be the total combination of facial expressions, hand movements, locations, and body language that can help signers form meaninful words

Question 355

Lexical access

Answer 355

Identifying a word and connecting it to its meaning, which ahs been stored in long-term memory

Question 356

Phonology

Answer 356

Phonetic component (actual sounds) of a language

Question 357

Phonemes (def and how many in English)

Answer 357

The smallest unit of sound. 40 in English

Question 358

Morphology

Answer 358

Structure of words. Many words are constructed of several morphemes (smallest significant unit of meaning of a word)

Question 359

Semantics

Answer 359

Association of a meaning with a word. The broad meaning of each word, phrase, sentence, or text.

Question 360

Syntax

Answer 360

How words are put together in sentences. Describes how words are arranged to create grammatically correct sentences

Question 361

Pragmatics

Answer 361

Dependence of language on context and pre-existing knowledge. Affected by prosody (rhythm, cadence, and inflection of our voices)

Question 362

Limbic System (def. and name structures)

Answer 362

Set of structures in the brain that are responsible for emotions and storage/retrieval of memories. Structures: HAT Hippo = Hypothalamus, Amygdala, Thalamus, and Hippocampus

Question 363

Amygdala

Answer 363

The aggression center of the brain (think "angry almond"). Stimulation fo the amygdala leads to anger/violence and fear/anxiety

Question 364

Hippocampus

Answer 364

Major player in long-term memory formation from short-term memories. If destroyed, one suffers anterograde amnesia

Question 365

Hypothalamus

Answer 365

Below the thalamus. Regulates the ANS: fight/flight vs rest/digest. Controls endocrine system by triggerin hormones like NE and epinephrine. Responsible for hunger, sleep, thirst, sex The 4 F's of the hypothalamus: fighting, fleeing, feeding, fornification (sex)

Question 366

Thalamus

Answer 366

Sensory relay station. Everything you hear, taste, etc gets sent up to the proper area of the cortex by the thalamus. Smell is the only sense that bypasses the thalamus

Question 367

Which hemisphere is more active with positive emotions?

Answer 367

Left

Question 368

Which hemisphere is more active with negative emotions?

Answer 368

Right

Question 369

Prefrontal cortex

Answer 369

Responsible for many higher-order functions: executive control, problem-solving, decision making, actions in social situations. Undergoes most development from birth. Phineas Gage: iron rod penetrated his PFC and changed his personality

Question 370

Physiological markers of emotion by sub-division of the ANS

Answer 370

Symp: dilated pupils, decreased salivation, increased respiration rate, increased heart rate, increased glucose release, increased adrenaline, decrease in digestion Parasymp: pupils constrict, increased salivation, decreased respiration and heat rates, increased glucose storage, decreased adrenaline, increased digestion

Question 371

The Three Components of Emotion

Answer 371

Physiological, cognitive, and behavioral

Question 372

6 Main Universal Emotions

Answer 372

Found by Paul Ekman. They are happiness, sadness, fear, disgust, anger, and surprise. All of them have consistent facial expressions across cultures and are easily recognizable

Question 373

James-Lange Theory of emotion

Answer 373

Experience of emotion is due to perception of physiological responses. Event --\> physiological response --\> interpretation of physiological response --\> emotion

Question 374

Cannon-Bard Theory of Emotion

Answer 374

Refuted James-Lange approach because physiological response system was too slow to produce emtion that seemed to happen almost instantly, so he believed that emotion and physiological response happened simultaneously

Question 375

Schachter-Singer Theory of Emotion

Answer 375

States that physiological and cognitive responses simultaneously form experience of emotion. Event --\> physiological response and identify reason for the situation --\> emotion

Question 376

Lazarus Theory of Emotion

Answer 376

The experience of emotion depends on how the situation is cognitively labeled: if situation is labeled as "good," then emotion is positive, and if labeled "bad," then emotion is negative. Labeling depends on cultural/individual differences Event --\> Cognitively label the event --\> Emotion and physiological response based on the label

Question 377

Yerkes-Dodson Law

Answer 377

People perform best when they are moderately aroused. The relationship between long-term memory and fear follows a Yerke-Dodson curve, meaning the extreme emotional responses usually impact memory negatively, and moderate emotions are associated with optimal memory recall

Question 378

Stress

Answer 378

Process by which humans appraise and cope with the environmental threads and challenges

Question 379

Richard Lazarus

Answer 379

Proposed the Appraisal Theory of Stress: stress arises less from physical events but more from the assessment/interpretation of those stresses/events. There are two stages of cognitive stress: primary and secondary appraisal. Primary determines whether the stressor is irrelevant, positive/benign, or stressful/negative Secondary shows that individual's ability to cope with the stressor (how to react to it)

Question 380

Four major causes of stressors

Answer 380

1. Significant life changes: new job, marriage, leaving home, death of family member 2. Catastrophic events: a large scale event that everyone considers threatening, like wars, natural disasters, etc 3. Daily hassles: seemingly minor events that are greatly aggravating (higher rate of these in lower SES) 4. Ambient stressors: global stressors that are integrated into the environment. Hard to control. Ex: pollution, noise, etc

Question 381

Sites of stress hormone synthesis/release

Answer 381

Adrenal medulla: produces and release catecholamines (norepinephrine/noradrenaline and epinephrine/adrenaline) Adrenal cortex: releases cortisol (glucocorticoid, a steroid hormone, suppresses the immune system)

Question 382

Which hormone is important to the "tend and befriend" response to stress?

Answer 382

Oxytocin moderates the stress response. It is strongly linked to estrogen, which is why this response si so much stronger in women

Question 383

General Adaptation Syndrome

Answer 383

1. Alarm phase 2. Resistance 3. Exhaustion

Question 384

Physical effects of chronic stress

Answer 384

Increased BP possibly leading to vascular disease or coronary artery disease. Metabolism gets upset becuase cortisol mobilizes glucose to be released --\> exacerbates conditions like DM/. Shutdown/major decrease in reproductive function. Immune function is affected: overuse of inflammatory response, increased time required to heal/fight illness

Question 385

Areas of the brain most affected cortisol (ie where are the most receptors?)

Answer 385

Hippocampus, frontal cortex

Question 386

Anhedonia

Answer 386

Inability to experience pleasure. Occurs often with depression. Most stressors are perceived.

Question 387

Anterior cingulate

Answer 387

Anterior part of the frontal cortex. Stops responding to serotonin when the body is under chronic stress.

Question 388

The three A's of stress-related behavioral response

Answer 388

Anger - quickness to anger has been seen to correlate with heart attacks later in life Anxiety - centers on amygdala --\> fears are accentuated and more plentiful with response to stress. Addiction - impairment of the frontal cortex lowers individuals' reasoning abilities --\> impairs judgement --\> increases likelihood of inappropriate coping mechanisms

Question 389

Coping with Stress

Answer 389

Positive measures to take: perceived control, optimism, social support

Question 390

Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman testing the notion that stress is associated with increased vulnerability to ___ disease found...

Answer 390

Heart disease Found that easily angered individuals were more likely to experience a heart attack later in life

Question 391

Robert Sapolsky

Answer 391

Studies baboons with social hierarchies similar to humans'. Found that primates at the bottom of the pyramid were more likely to experience stress. Similar results to the White-Hall study that examined effect of rank in the workplace on stress.

Question 392

Coping

Answer 392

Expending a conscious effort to solve personal and interpersonal problems, and seeking to master, minimize, or tolerate stress/conflict. Does not include natural, automatic responses like defense mechanisms

Question 393

Strategies to manage stress

Answer 393

Exercise (requires control), meditation, religion, cognitive flexibility, coping

Question 394

Adaptive coping mechanisms

Answer 394

AKA positive/constructive. Examples: proactive coping (anticipation allows the person to prepare for stress and how they are going to handle it), social coping, meaning-focused coping, self-care/hygiene, humor, relaxation

Question 395

Maladaptive coping mechanisms

Answer 395

AKA negative/non-coping techniques. Simply reduces the symptoms of stress while maintaining and strengthening the disorder. Examples: dissociation, sensitization, safety behaviors, anxious avoidance, and escape (including self-medication)

Question 396

Dissociation

Answer 396

The ability of the mind to separate and compartmentalize thoughts, memories, and emotions. Often a part of PTSD

Question 397

Sensitization

Answer 397

When a person seeks to learn about, rehearse, and/or anticipate fearful events in a protective effort to prevent these events from occurring in the first place

Question 398

Anxious avoidance

Answer 398

When a person avoids anxiety-provoking situations by all means. Most common

Question 399

Overcompensation forms of Maladaptive coping

Answer 399

Aggression and hostility directed towards others. Dominance, excessive self-assertion to exercise control Recognition-seeking, status-seeking - trying to receive attention and awards Manipulation, exploitation - meets own needs through covert manipulation, seduction, dishonesty Passive-aggressiveness, rebellion Excessive orderliness, obsessionality

Question 400

Surrender forms of maladaptive coping

Answer 400

Compliance, dependence: relies on others, gives in, seeks affiliation, passive, dependent, submissive, clinging, avoids conflict, people-pleasing

Question 401

Avoidance forms of maladaptive coping

Answer 401

Social withdrawal, excessive autonomy: copes through social isolation, disconnection, and withdrawal. Compulsive stimulation-seeking: seeks excitement or distraction through compulsive shopping, sex, gambling, risk-taking, physical activity, etc. Addictive self-soothing: avoids via addictions like alcohol, drugs, overeating, excessive masturbation, etc. Psychological withdrawal: Copes through dissociation, numbness, denial, fantasy, or other forms of psychological escape

Question 402

Low-effort syndrome or low-effort coping

Answer 402

Refers to the coping responses of minority groups in an attempt to fit into the dominant culture. Ex: minority students at school putting in minimal effort to cope because they declaratively feel they are being dominated by the majority culture

Question 403

Lower motor signs

Answer 403

Indicate abnormalities in the LMNs Atrophy of skletal muscle, fasciculations, hypotonia, hyporeflexia

Question 404

Lower motor neurons

Answer 404

Efferent neurons on the PNS. Synapse onto skeletal muscles at the neuromuscular junction

Question 405

Fasciculations

Answer 405

Involuntary twitches of skeletal muscle

Question 406

Hypotonia

Answer 406

Decrease tone of skeletal muscle when person is relaxed

Question 407

Hyporeflexia

Answer 407

Decreased muscle stretch reflex

Question 408

5 main sense of somatosensation

Answer 408

Position sense, vibration, touch , pain, temperature

Question 409

Sort the somatosensory receptors as fast vs slow

Answer 409

Slow: nociceptors, thermoreceptors Fast: mechanoreceptors (position/touch/vibration)

Question 410

Types of mechanoreceptors

Answer 410

Think: Man Crush Monday -\> Role Play! Meissininheiners Corpuscle, Merkel's Disks, Ruffini Endings, Pacinian Corpuscle (and Hair Follicle Receptors)

Question 411

Meissinheimer's Corpuscle

Answer 411

Mechanoreceptors that are most superficial. Located in the papillary dermis of non-hairy skin. Senses: light tough, flutter, light stretch small receptive field, grip control. Velocity-type adaptation. Fast adapting I

Question 412

Merkel Disk

Answer 412

Mechanoreceptor located in the papillary dermis. Requires sustained stimuli. Senses: light touch, flutter, fine details, small receptive field Adaptions can be through velocity or displacement. Slow adapting I

Question 413

Rufini Endings

Answer 413

Mechanoreceptors located in the reticular dermis. Requires sustained/constant stimuli -- slow adapting. Sense: deep stretch. Has large receptive field

Question 414

Pacinian Corpuscle

Answer 414

Mechanoreceptor located in the hypodermis. Requires constantly changing stimuli -- fast adapting II. Adapts to acceleration Senses: vibration, deep "push/poke"

Question 415

Hair Follicle Receptor

Answer 415

Mechanoreceptor located in the reticular dermis of hairy skin. Requires constantly changing stimuli. Adapts to displacement Sense: hair movement/light touch.

Question 416

The axons of fast-adapting receptors have ______ diameters compared to those of slow-adapting. Which one has thick myelin sheath?

Answer 416

Larger diameters Fast-adapting have thick myelin sheaths

Question 417

Muscle stretch reflex

Answer 417

Causes a muscle to contract after it is stretched as a protective response. The neurons that innervate the muscle that causes the involuntary response are excited while the muscles that would oppose this voluntary reflex are inhibited.

Question 418

Structure of Sympathetic Nervous System

Answer 418

Interneuron in the spinal cord synapses onto the first efferent neuron. First efferent neuron is very short, so it synapses onto the second efferent neuron at the ganglia, just next to the spinal cord. Second efferent neuron stimulates the tissue of interest.

Question 419

Structure of the PNS

Answer 419

Starts at the brainstem or bottom of the spinal cord. First efferent neuron is long and synapses onto the second efferent neuron at ganglia near target tissue. Second efferent neuron (which is short) stimulates target tissue

Question 420

Grey matter

Answer 420

Contains most of the neuron somas. Makes up the inner core of the spinal cord and the exterior of the brain

Question 421

White matter

Answer 421

Contains most of the myelinated axons. Covers the exterior of the spinal cord and is the predominate form in the interior of the brain

Question 422

Upper motor neurons

Answer 422

Found in the cerebral cortex, synapse onto lower motor neurons in the brain or spinal cord.

Question 423

Corticospinal tract

Answer 423

Motor tracts in which the UMN travels down the spinal cord on the contralateral side until they meet their LMN

Question 424

Corticobuluar tract

Answer 424

Motor tracts in which the UMN travels to the brainstem to synapse onto the LMN

Question 425

Upper motor signs

Answer 425

Indicate abnomatlities in the UMNs Hyperreflexia, clonus, hypertonia, extensor plantar reflex

Question 426

Hyperreflexia

Answer 426

Increase in the muscle stretch response because muscle spindle receptors are hypersensitive

Question 427

Clonus

Answer 427

Rhythmic contractions of antagonist muscle. Ex: foot goes involuntarily up and down

Question 428

Hypertonia

Answer 428

increased tone of skeletal muscle, increased muscle tension, reduced muscle stretch

Question 429

Extensor Plantar Response

Answer 429

Toes extending up upon scraping the bottom of the foot

Question 430

Somatosensory Tracts

Answer 430

Pain/temp/gross tracts travel up contralateral side of spinal cord Touch/position/vibration tracts travel up ipsilateral side of spinal cord.

Question 431

Parietal lobe

Answer 431

Somatosensory cortex (touch, pressure, pain from the skin), spatial manipulation,

Question 432

Occipital lobe

Answer 432

Vision, "striate cortex"

Question 433

Temporal lobe

Answer 433

Sound, "Wernick'e area"

Question 434

Contralateral control

Answer 434

Left brain controls right body and vice cersa. Basically true for all senses except smell

Question 435

Dominant Hemispheres

Answer 435

Left hemisphere is dominant for vast majority of people

Question 436

Dominant hemisphere controls:

Answer 436

Language and math

Question 437

Non-dominant hemisphere controls:

Answer 437

Emotional tone of language, if people are happy/sad/anxious, creativity, music, special processing, big picture concepts

Question 438

Old Brain

Answer 438

Brain structure builds on itself, so oldest brain is in the middle and contains the most simple structures for simple functions. Structures: brainstem, reticular formation, thalamus, cerebellum

Question 439

Brainstem

Answer 439

Made up of the medulla and pons. Controls heart beat/breathing and cross over point for our nerves

Question 440

Reticular formation

Answer 440

Relays between brainstem and other areas. It filters info and sends important info to the thalamus. Sleep/wake cycle (arousal). Ability to be aware.

Question 441

Thalamus

Answer 441

Located above the brainstem. It is the relay station for eye and ear info.Also functions in congintion and emotion

Question 442

Cerebellum

Answer 442

Coordinates voluntary movement, specifically the motor plan. Receives positional sensations. Middle: coordinates walking and middle body movement Sides: involved in movements of the limbs. This area is greatly affected by alcohol

Question 443

Cranial nerves

Answer 443

12 pairs. Most of them attach to the brainstem. All sorts of unique functions

Question 444

Subcortical cerebellum

Answer 444

Subcortical nuclei that are located deep in the cerebrum. Includes the following structures: internal capsule, corpus collusum, basal ganglia, thalamus, hypothalamus

Question 445

Internal capsule

Answer 445

Includes the corticospinal tract and many other important pathways

Question 446

Corpus collosum

Answer 446

Connects right and left cerebral hemispheres

Question 447

Basal ganglia

Answer 447

Major role in motor functions, don't have UMNs but help motor areas to perform proper movements. Also cognition and emotion

Question 448

Hypothalamus

Answer 448

Controls the pituitary gland, the master gland that controls all other glands in the body

Question 449

Glutamate

Answer 449

The most common excitatory neurotransmitter. Reticular activating system diffuses glutamate all over the cerebral cortex. It is essential for consciousness

Question 450

GABA and Glycine

Answer 450

The inhibitory NTs of the brain and spinal cord (respectively).

Question 451

Acetylcholine

Answer 451

Released to the cerebral cortex by Basilis and septal nuclei in the frontal lobe. Released at the synapses of LMNs and the autonomic NS.

Question 452

Histamine

Answer 452

From hypothalamus. Gets sent to the cerebral cortex

Question 453

Norepinephrine

Answer 453

Area in the pons called the locus coeruleus that releases it to the cerebral cortex and ANS.

Question 454

Serotonin

Answer 454

Released by Raphe nuclei located as several locations in the brain, including midbrain, pons, and medulla.

Question 455

Raphe nuclei

Answer 455

Nuclei that release acetylcholine to the brain and other parts of the nervous system, like the brainstem

Question 456

Ventral Tagmental Area

Answer 456

Site of dopamine production. Sends the NT to the pre-frontal cortex via the mesocortical pathway, which controls congnition, affect, and the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Also, NTs from here are transmitted to the nucleus accumbens, the amygdala, and the hippocampus. The mesolimbic pathway is associated with reward, motivation, and many of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

Question 457

Substantia nigra

Answer 457

One of the sites of dopamine production. The NTs from here get transmitted from neuron soma to axons projecting into the caudate nucleus and the putamen of the neostriatum via the nigrostriatal pathway.

Question 458

Nigrostriatal pathway

Answer 458

Associated with motor planning and purposeful movement

Question 459

Arcuate nucleus

Answer 459

One of the sites of dopamine production. The NTs from here go from the hypothalamus to teh pituitary gland via the tuberofundibular pathway.

Question 460

Tuberofundibular Pathway

Answer 460

Dopamine-regulated pathway that controls secretion of of prolactin by inhibiting its release in the anterior pituitary

Question 461

What are the two main neurotransmitter of the PNS?

Answer 461

Acetylcholine and epinephrine.

Question 462

Amino acid neurotransmitters

Answer 462

GABA and Glycine

Question 463

Peptide neurotransmitters

Answer 463

Opioids (endorphin - perception of pain)

Question 464

Monoamine neurotransmitters

Answer 464

AKA Biogenetic amines: amino group and aromatic group connected by 2-carbon chain. Cognition/thinking/emotion/attention. Subgroup: catecholamines (benzene with 2 hydroxyl groups)

Question 465

Low level of which neurotransmitter is associated with depression?

Answer 465

Serotonin

Question 466

Which neurotransmitter levels are abnormal in Parkinson's? How are they different from healthy conditions?

Answer 466

Dopamine - low levels

Question 467

Which neurotransmitter is abnormal in schizophrenia and how is it affected?

Answer 467

Dopamine - high levels

Question 468

Phrenologists

Answer 468

Believed that ach brain area is devoted to a certain personality characteristic, thought, emotion

Question 469

Various methods of tissue lesion studies

Answer 469

Tissue removal: surgical removal, aspiration, or severing the nerve with a scalpel Radiofrequency lesions: destroys tissue on the surface of the brain and deep inside. Wire inserted into brain to determine the area, then administer high-frequency current Neurochemical lesions: MOST precise! Use of excitotoxic chemicals that bind to glutamate receptors and cause fatally high flux of Ca2+ into the neuron Cortical cooling: AKA cryogenic blockade, involves cooling down neurons until they stop firing

Question 470

Excitotoxins

Answer 470

Chemicals that bind to glutamate receptors and cause such high influx of Ca2+ that the neuron gets overexcited to death. Ex: kainic acid (destroys cell bodies but doesn't influence axons passing by), oxidopamine (selectively destroys dopamine and NE neurons, can model Parkinson's)

Question 471

Cryoloop

Answer 471

Surgically implanted between the skull and brain for temporary period. It is reversible! K/O nerves to see what the effect is and then brings the animal back to normal function

Question 472

Muscimol

Answer 472

Neurochemical means of inducing temporary lesions. Binds and inhibits GABA receptors

Question 473

Computer Axial Tomography

Answer 473

CAT scans, known as CT scans. Creates image of the brain by computationally compiling X-Ray images. Slightly lower resolution than MRI, but better for soft tissue. Only shows structure, but is sometimes combined with radioactive dye (PET scan) to show structure and activity

Question 474

Magnetic resonance imaging

Answer 474

MRI - Uses radio waves exposed to a magnetic field to disrupt the orientation of atoms. Realignment of the atoms with the magnetic field releases signals, which are used to create an image. Does not give any info about current function

Question 475

Electroencephalogram

Answer 475

EEG - External, cannot tell us about the activity of individual/groups of neurons. Can only look at the sum total and provide insights on seizures, sleep stages, and cognitive tasks.

Question 476

Magnetoencephalogram

Answer 476

MEG or SQUIDS - better resolution than EEG, but rarer because large machine and special housing are needed. It records the magnetic fields produced by electric currents in the brai. Assesses function

Question 477

fMRI

Answer 477

Functional MRI - Same as regular MRI but can now look at which structures are active, by measuring relative amounts of oxygenated vs deoxygenated blood in the brain. This shows which areas of the brain are most used during certain sitauations/tasks.

Question 478

Hypothalamus - impact on behavior

Answer 478

Nervous system and endocrine system connection (very small)

Question 479

Pituitary

Answer 479

Anterior: FLAT-PEG, FH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, endorphins, GH Posterior: ADH and oxytovin Pars intermedia (intermediate lobe): melanocyte stimulating hormone

Question 480

Thryroid

Answer 480

Regulates body metabolism via T3 and T4. Affects growth and development of the brain and regulates growth rates

Question 481

Parathryoid

Answer 481

4 spots on the back of the thyroid. Regulates Ca2+ levels in the body

Question 482

Adrenal glands

Answer 482

On top of the kidney. ACTH acts on adrenal cortex to control release of steroids and glucocorticosteroids like cortisol, and acts on the medulla to stimulate catecholamine release. Helps develop muscles and bones

Question 483

Gonads

Answer 483

FSH and LH stimulation here release sex hormones

Question 484

Pancreas

Answer 484

Regualtes blood sugar. Not tied to the pituitary gland

Question 485

Pancreas

Answer 485

Regulates blood sugar. Not tied to the pituitary gland

Question 486

Zona pellucida

Answer 486

Outer coating of egg cell that encases the plasma membrane

Question 487

Acrosome reaction of fertilization

Answer 487

Occurs after the sperm binds to the egg. Enzyme leaks into zona pellucida and digests it. Results in sperm getting close to the plasma membrane of the egg

Question 488

Steps of fertilization

Answer 488

Sperm binding, acrosome reaction, cortical reaction, genetic transfer

Question 489

Cortical reaction

Answer 489

Enzymes from the inside of the egg cell get ejected into the zona pellucida to digest it. This prevents other sperm from binding to it

Question 490

Polyspermy

Answer 490

More than one sperm binding to a single egg

Question 491

Genetic transfer between sperm and egg

Answer 491

Sperm binds to plasma membrane, acrosome is gone, and cortical granules are released. The plasma membranes fuse and the sperm shoots its genetic info into the egg Completes fertilization. Most of the mitochondrial DNA comes from the egg

Question 492

Genetic transfer between sperm and egg

Answer 492

Sperm binds to plasma membrane, acrosome is gone, an cortical granules are released. The plasma membranes fuse and the sperm shoots its genetic info into the egg Completes fertilization

Question 493

Morula

Answer 493

32-cell stage of an embryo. Cells get closer together and begin differentiation: outside cells is a trophoblast, and the inside is an embryoblast

Question 494

Blastulation

Answer 494

Zona pellucide disintegrates. The inner cell mass makes an amniotic cavity and the bottom cells of the inner cell mass differentiate into hypoblasts, and the cells above them become epiplasts

Question 495

Bilamar disk

Answer 495

Epiblast + hypoplast Formation occurs due to blastulation in embryogenesis

Question 496

Primitive stream during embryogenesis

Answer 496

Migration of epiblast cells during blastulation

Question 497

Gastrulation

Answer 497

Stage of embryogenesis in which trilaminar disk (germ layers).

Question 498

Germ layers

Answer 498

inner to outer: endoderm: mesoderm, ectoderm

Question 499

Neurulation

Answer 499

Stage of embryogenesis in which the core of the mesoderm differentiates into the notochord, which induces change in the cells above in the ectoderm, forcing formation of the neural plate

Question 500

Stage of embryogenesis (in order)

Answer 500

(Fertilization), Morulation, Blastulation, Gastrulation, Neurulation

Question 501

Apposition

Answer 501

The is when the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium

Question 502

Syncytiotrophoblasts

Answer 502

A continuous, specialized layer of epithelial cells. They form villi and fetal blood vessels immediately following implantation of the blastocyst. They also line the inside of uterine cavity to placenta

Question 503

Endoderm

Answer 503

GI tract tube (espophagus, small and large instestines), lungs, liver, and pancreas

Question 504

Mesoderm

Answer 504

Forms inner layers of skin, muscles, bones, cardiac muscles, kidneys, and bladder, ovaries/testes

Question 505

Ectoderm

Answer 505

Outer layer of skin, sweat glands, hair skin, nervous system

Question 506

Gestation and Time 0

Answer 506

Three 3-month trimesters. Time 0 is the date of LMP (last menstrual period)

Question 507

Reflexes

Answer 507

Pre-programmed motor skills. Involuntary motor movement/automatic. Babies are born with them

Question 508

Gross motor skills

Answer 508

Legs/arms. Develop earlier than fine.

Question 509

Fine motor skils

Answer 509

More precise actions like cutter with scissors or coloring a picture. Develops after gross

Question 510

Neonatal reflexes

Answer 510

They disappear as baby ages. Some are survival reflexes while others are evolutionary holdovers or precursors. If they reappear in adults, there is serious issue

Question 511

Rooting reflex

Answer 511

Neonatal reflex. Stroking of the side of a baby's mouth triggers them to turn their heads. For breastfeeding in first weeks of life, but then the action becomes voluntary

Question 512

Babinskly Reflex

Answer 512

How baby will turn/unturn toes when the bottom of the foot is stroked. Present if the big toe extends up towards the surface of the foot and the other toes fan out

Question 513

Monro reflex

Answer 513

Startle reaction. Fans out arms then back

Question 514

Tonic neck reflex

Answer 514

AKA Fencing posture: when baby's head is turned, the arm on the side to which they are turned straightens while the arm on the side that is opposite bends

Question 515

Galant Reflex

Answer 515

Skin stroking causes the baby to turn towards the side that was stroked

Question 516

Palmer grasp reflex

Answer 516

Children close their hands on anything that comes in their palm

Question 517

Sucking reflex

Answer 517

Baby will suck on anything that is put in their mouth for the first 3-4 months

Question 518

Stepping reflex

Answer 518

Holding an infant upright and their feet touch a flat surface, they will start to step as if trying to walk. Disappears in the first two months of life

Question 519

Swimming reflex

Answer 519

Infants move their arms and legs in water in a swimming motion. Involuntarily holds breaths. Lets infant swim/float for a short period of time. Disappears around 6 mos old

Question 520

Areas of the brain that change shape during adolescence

Answer 520

Prefrontal cortex (develops more), limbic system, corpus callosum. Global changes throughout brain

Question 521

Limbic system changes during adolescence

Answer 521

Amygdala - explains why teenagers are moody. Hypthalamus - regulates endocring system.

Question 522

What are the changes in the corpus callosum during adolescence responsible for?

Answer 522

Language/language learning

Question 523

Synaptic pruning

Answer 523

Breaking down connections between certain neurons - allows the focusing of resources on the pathways we use most.

Question 524

Myelination _____ during puberty

Answer 524

increases

Question 525

Simple traits

Answer 525

Ex: hair or eye color. Can be linked to specific genes

Question 526

Complex trains

Answer 526

Controlled by groups of genes that interact with each other and the environment. May be activated/inactivated by the environment. Ex: happiness, intelligence, aggressiveness

Question 527

Temperament

Answer 527

Broader than personality. Characteristic emotional reactivity, intensity, shyness, and socialbility. Seems to be established before babies are exposed to environment. Persistent as person ages

Question 528

Personality

Answer 528

Believed to be constant over lifetime

Question 529

Classical twin study

Answer 529

Compare monozygotic and dizygotic twins each raised in the same household

Question 530

Nature vs nurture of schizophrenia

Answer 530

Could be entirely nurture, but is usually an interaction of the genetics and environment of a person

Question 531

Adoption studies

Answer 531

Adopted childe is comapred to biological family and their adopted family. Which are they more similar to in personality?

Question 532

Heritability

Answer 532

The percentage of variation of trains due to genes. It estimates the amount of variance that can be attributed to genes in specific subgroups of individuals. Variability of traits can be attributed to differences in genes.

Question 533

What does it mean when we say a gene is 50% heritable?

Answer 533

It means that differences in that specific trait are 50% caused by genes.

Question 534

More genetic variation leads to ___ heritability

Answer 534

greater

Question 535

Epigenetics

Answer 535

Changes to gene expression resulting from changes other than gene/DNA sequence. Ex: methylation of a gene makes it mroe difficult for TFs to come in and activate the gene --\> lowers transcription and effectively translation

Question 536

Phenyketonuria

Answer 536

PKU: A genetic condition in which Phe builds up because there is a mutation in the gene for the enzyme that would normally convert it to Tyr. Buildup causes brain issues. The expression of PKU us dependent on the environment. Symptoms can be managed with a specific Phe-free diet \*\*Illustrates interaction of genes and environment

Question 537

Overall function of behavior

Answer 537

To maintain homeostasis. Behavior is a coordinated internal and external response of an organism

Question 538

Ethology

Answer 538

Focuses on the observation of observable (overt) animal behaviors

Question 539

Innate behavior

Answer 539

Genetically programmed behavior. Present at birth and requires no experience with the environment. It is inherited, intrinsic, stereotypic, inflexible, consummate

Question 540

The three types of innate behavior

Answer 540

Reflexes Orientation behavior: regulating spacially in environment Fixed action pattern: sequence of coordinated movement performed without interruption

Question 541

Positive/Negative taxis

Answer 541

Movement towards/away from a stimulus (respectively)

Question 542

Learned behavioral traits

Answer 542

Persistent changes in our behavior that result from experiences. Non-inherited, extrinsic, permutable (changeable), adaptable, progressive

Question 543

Complex behavior

Answer 543

Combination of innate and learned behavior. Relationship between environment and genes in adaptation. Covert behavior

Question 544

Covert behavior

Answer 544

It is not observable. Complex behavior is a form of it

Question 545

Positive feedback

Answer 545

Process that increases production of a product. One product stimulates production of another product

Question 546

Negative feedback

Answer 546

Rate or process that needs to be controlled to decrease product

Question 547

5 schools of thought regarding emotion

Answer 547

Evolutionary, drive reduction theory, optimum arousal theory, cognitive, Maslow's Hierarchy or Needs

Question 548

Evolutionary Approach to motivation

Answer 548

Emphasizes the role instincts play in motivation. What do humans do to survive?

Question 549

Drive reduction theory of motivation

Answer 549

Focuses on drives vs needs. Need is the lack or deprivation that will energize the drive or aroused state. That drive is the aroused state. Fulfilling the drive will reduce the need (which is typically basic, essential, and physiological)

Question 550

Optimum arousal theory of motivation

Answer 550

People want to reach full arousal/alertness. Drive to get full arousal and natural high (a state we enjoy, which is why people go to amuesment parks).

Question 551

Cognitive Approach to motivation

Answer 551

Rational and decision-making ability - thought processes drive behavior. Ex: light bulb going off in someone's head

Question 552

Id

Answer 552

The innate reservoir of all psychic energy. Seeks to discharge tension arising from internal needs or external stimulation. Made up of all instincts and wats to get rid of all uncomfortable feelings ("Drive Reduction Theory")

Question 553

"The pleasure principle"

Answer 553

To gain pleasure or avoid pain. To accomplish this it uses: ``` Reflex actions Primary processes (forming a mental image of the desired product) Wish fulfillment (the image of your diesire which temporarily restores comfor ```

Question 554

Ego

Answer 554

MEdiates the demands of reailty vs the desires of the Id. The self. This is who we identify with/believe ourselves to be

Question 555

Superego

Answer 555

The internalization of cultural ideals and parental sanctions. "Morals," interjection/internalization. Inhibitis sexual and aggressive impulses, and tries to replace reality with morality, striving from perfection. Has subsystems: The conscious (what is "wrong"), the ego ideal (what is "right")

Question 556

Incentive Theory of Motivation

Answer 556

A reward, either tangible or intangible, is presented after the occurrence of the action with the intention of making the behavior occur again. Creates positive association with the behavior, so individual will carry it out again to make themselves happier. Utilizes positive reinforcement

Question 557

Extrinsic Motivation

Answer 557

Associatd with REWARDS or OBLIGATED behavior. Motivation to do something based on an external reward (like money or fame).

Question 558

Intrinsic Motivation

Answer 558

internal motivation

Question 559

Drive-reduction Motivation

Answer 559

Based on the need to fulfill a certain drive, like hunger or thirst

Question 560

Amotivation

Answer 560

Lack of motivation

Question 561

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

Answer 561

Pyramid of needs, with the order or filling from bottom to top: Physiological, Safety, Love, Self-esteem, Self-actualism Think: Please Stop Liking Stupid Shit

Question 562

Positive reinforcement

Answer 562

Continuous positive stimulus after a certain behavior in order to motivat the behavior to occur again in the future. One must be constantly given positive reinforcement

Question 563

Negative reinforcement

Answer 563

The removal of stimuli to encourage a response. Basis of drive-reduction theory of motivation

Question 564

Two factors that regulate our intake of food, sex, and drugs:

Answer 564

Biological factors: hormones and how our brain regulates/reacts to them Socio-culture: our conscious choices on how we express our needs

Question 565

Lateral Hypothalamus

Answer 565

Sends positive signals to start eating.

Question 566

Ventromedial Hypothalamus

Answer 566

When functioning properly, it signals us to stop eating. Lectin levels get elevated (appetite suppressing)

Question 567

How is there a genetic predisposition to our weight?

Answer 567

Set point is influenced by our parents'

Question 568

Sexual response cycle

Answer 568

Excitement phase (increased HR, BP, muscle tension) Plateau Orgasm Resolution/refractory

Question 569

Hormones active in the acquisition of sex

Answer 569

Prolactin is related to seual gratification and is associated with relieving sequal arousal after an orgasm. Endorphins produce feeling so euphoria and pleasure and are released post-orgasm Oxytocin is released after an orgasm to facilitate bonds and feelings of connectedness between sexual partners

Question 570

Effect of excessive dopamine levels in the brain

Answer 570

Overstimulates/activates the limbic system, which controls movement, emotion, motivation, pleasure. Elicits a state of euphoria. Cocaine has this effect on the brain. This is the reinforcing effect in action (we want to constantly use the drug that stimulates the brain in this way)

Question 571

Attitude and ABC Model of attitude

Answer 571

A learned tendency to evaluate things in a certain way. To evaluate people, issues, events, objects. Affective (emotional), behavioral, cognitive components all help shape our attitude

Question 572

Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer 572

Intentions + Implications --\> we consider the implications of our actions before we decide on how to behave. Intentions are based on attitudes towards a certain behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control

Question 573

Attitude to Behavior Process model

Answer 573

An event triggers our attitude (something that will influence our perception of an object). The attitude plus some outside knowledge together determine behavior

Question 574

Prototype Willingness Model of Behavior

Answer 574

States the behavior is a function of 6 things: past behavior, attitudes, subjective norms, intentions, willingness, models/prototyping

Question 575

Elaboration Likelihood Model for Persuasion

Answer 575

A more cognitive-based approach of persuasion --\> focuses on the why/how of persuasion. Info can be processed in central route (related to the argument/reasoning) persuasion or peripheral route (superficial factors) persuasion

Question 576

Kinship of Affinity

Answer 576

A relationship in which the individuals are related by choice (ex: marriage, friendship), rather than by blood

Question 577

Internal validity

Answer 577

The degree to which causal conclusions can be drawn from a study, which is enhanced by accounting for potential confounding variables

Question 578

Central Route of Persuasion

Answer 578

Degree of attitude change depends of the quality of the arguments by the persuader. Depends on the quality of the persuasive case presented. The WORDS are important

Question 579

Peripheral Route of Persuasion

Answer 579

Superficial cues/expertise/non-verbal factors like attractiveness/status of the persuader determine the persuasiveness of their argument.

Question 580

Principle of Aggregation

Answer 580

The idea that people are more likely to be honest when general patterns of behavior are observed vs a single one

Question 581

People are ___ likely to be honest when social influences are rigid.

Answer 581

less

Question 582

Foot in the door phenomenon

Answer 582

A persuader proposing relatively small ideas/favors first, and then progressing to larger, more significant ones. Basic concept behind brainwashing (door is completely open)

Question 583

Effort justification

Answer 583

People's tendency to attribute a greater value to an outcome they had to put effort into acquiring or achieving

Question 584

Door in the Face Technique

Answer 584

Persuader presents a large favor to which they expect their respondent's immediate decline in hopes of them accepting a second, smaller request

Question 585

Cognitive Dissonance

Answer 585

The discomfort experienced when holding 2 or more conflicting cognitions (ideas, beliefs, values, emotional reactions) - contradictions. The individual is motivated to reduce this discomfort by aligning thought and/or behaviors, which can be doen through changing beliefs, changing behavior, or changing attitudes

Question 586

Four Things Humans do to reduce Cognitive Dissonance

Answer 586

1. Modify cognitions: alter thinking process on one's action/behavior to reduce their discomfort with it 2. Trivialize: make less important/make trivial, change the importance of their cognition 3. Add: adding more cognitions to make contradictions more comfortable 4. Deny: deny the facts \*\*NOTE: none of these involve changing the behavior

Question 587

Selective exposure

Answer 587

Avoidance of a stimulus to reduce dissonance

Question 588

Social Psychology

Answer 588

A branch of psychology that analyzes the situational approach to behavior and emphasizes the influence of social phenomena and people interactions with each other on influence. Major focus on the interaction between the individual and their environment rather than stable personality traits.

Question 589

Attribution

Answer 589

The process of inferring causes of events/behaviors. Can be internal or external.

Question 590

If a person's behavior is consistent in all situations, attribution is more _____ than \_\_\_\_\_.

Answer 590

More internal than external. Their behavior does not depend on the situation

Question 591

Psychoanalytic Theory of Personality

Answer 591

Focuses on one's unconscious thoughts and desires as the determining factors of personality. Largely determined by childhood experiences and past memories. Supported and convey strongly by Freud

Question 592

Libido

Answer 592

Natural energy source that fuels energy of the mind for motivation, survival, growth, pleasure, etc. Conflicts occur when this energy is stuck/fixated at a various stage of psychosexual development -- Fixation at a particular stage is what predicts adult personality

Question 593

Id

Answer 593

The unconscious part of the mind. Develops after birth and demands immediate gratification. Impulses are due to the id

Question 594

Ego

Answer 594

Part of both conscious and unconscious. It is involved in our perceptions, thoughts, and judgments. It seeks long-term gratification. The ego mediates between the impulses of the id and the morality of the superego

Question 595

Superego

Answer 595

One's moral conscience. Part of both conscious and unconscious minds. Develops around the age of 4

Question 596

Freudian Slip

Answer 596

An example of mental conflict between any of the id, ego, and superego

Question 597

Humanistic Theory of Personality

Answer 597

Focuses on the conscious and the idea that people are inherently good, and that we are self-motivated to grow and reach self-actualization. Focuses on humans' free will

Question 598

Carl Rogers

Answer 598

Humanistic theorist that believed humans CAN reach self-actualization as long as one is genuine towards and about themselves, and has acceptance from others (allows people to be their ideal selves). Differed from Maslow because Maslow believed that most people cannot reach self-actualization (only about 1% of people do)

Question 599

Hans Eysenck

Answer 599

Biological theorist. He proposed that degree of extroversion is based on differences in the reticular formation (controls arousal and consciousness). Introverts' RF are quicker to arousal so they choose to seek lower levels of stimulation

Question 600

Jeffrey Alan Gray

Answer 600

Biological theorist who proposed that personality is governed by a behavioral inhibition (punishment/avoidance)-activation (reward) system Think: 50 shades of Gray is based on punishment/reward

Question 601

C. Rober Cloninger

Answer 601

Linked personality to brain systems of reward/motivation/punishment

Question 602

Temperament

Answer 602

Innate disposition, our mood/activity level, and is consistent throughout our life

Question 603

Behaviorist Theory of Personality

Answer 603

States that personality is the result of learned behavior patterns, so it is fully based on environment. Asserts that the human begins as a blank slate. Focuses on observable, measurable behavior rather than mental/emotional

Question 604

Skinner

Answer 604

A behaviorist who focused on operant conditioning. Believed and demonstrated that punishments/rewards decrease/increase behaviors, respectively

Question 605

Pavlov

Answer 605

Behaviorist associated with classical conditioning: placed a neutral stimulus (CS) in simultaneous occurrence with a nonneutral stimulus (US) and demonstrated that CS comes to eventually provoke a conditioned response even when the US is taken away

Question 606

Cognitive Theory of Personality

Answer 606

Bridge between behavioral and psychoanalytic approaches (connecting the observable to the mental)

Question 607

Trait Theory

Answer 607

Relies on the proposed existence of traits: stable predisposition towards a certain behavior (pattern of behvaior). Focuses on how people are different

Question 608

Surface Traits vs Source Traits

Answer 608

Surface: evident through person's behaviors Source: factors underlying human personality. fewer and more abstract

Question 609

Myers Briggs Personality Test

Answer 609

Trait Approach in use. Classifies subject as one of 16 different types using 4 letters

Question 610

Gordon Allport

Answer 610

Trait theorist that believed we all have different traits. Came up with three categories of traint: cardinal, central, and secondary

Question 611

Cardinal traits

Answer 611

Direct most of a person's activities/behaviors. The most dominant traits of a person

Question 612

Central trait

Answer 612

Less dominant than cardinal traits. Ex: honesty, sociability, shyness

Question 613

Secondary traits

Answer 613

Preferences or attitudes. Ex: love for modern art, reluctance to eat fish, etc.

Question 614

Raymond Cattell

Answer 614

Trait theorist that believes human have 16 essential personality traits that represent basic dimensions of personality, and created the 16PF test from this

Question 615

Psychoticism

Answer 615

Degree to which reality is distorte

Question 616

Extroversion vs Introversion

Answer 616

Degree of sociability

Question 617

Neuroticism

Answer 617

Emotional stability

Question 618

Eysenck's Three Major Dimensions of Personality

Answer 618

Psychoticism, extroversion, and neuroticism Think: PEN, or Eysenck's Pen

Question 619

Agreeableness

Answer 619

Kind vs cold, appreciative vs unfriendly

Question 620

Openness

Answer 620

independent vs conforming, imagining vs practical

Question 621

The Big Five

Answer 621

Traits believe to be found in all people of all populations: Openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

Question 622

Conscientiousness

Answer 622

Careful vs careless, disciplines vs impulse, organized vs not

Question 623

Factor analysis

Answer 623

A statistical method that categorizes and determines major categories of traits. IT reduces variables and detects structure between variables

Question 624

Mirror neurons

Answer 624

Those responsible for observational learning (also called social learning/vicarious learning), which is achieved by watching others. They fire both when an individual is performing a certain function and when they are watching another person perform it

Question 625

Social Cognitive Theory

Answer 625

Theory of behavior change that emphasizes interaction between people and their environment. In contrast to behaviorism

Question 626

Albert Bandura and his experiment

Answer 626

Studies social cognitive theory in performing the Bobo Doll Experiment Exp: children were playing and then a man came in and started beating and screaming at a Bobo Doll. Some children observed and some were unphased. Then the children were given an impossible puzzle to solve in order to elicit frustration. Many children came up to the doll and hit it, yelling similar things that the man did earlier. Key takeaway: children learn from examples

Question 627

Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory

Answer 627

Attention, Memory, Imitation, Motivation Think: Am I Motivated?

Question 628

Defense Mechanisms

Answer 628

Psychological shields against anxiety or discomfort of unconscious psychological processes. Four categories: pathological, immature, neurotic, and mature

Question 629

Pathological Defense Mechanisms

Answer 629

Distort reality through denial. Person pretends something hasn't happened. Most important defense mechanism

Question 630

Immature Defense Mechanism

Answer 630

Projection- throw your attributes to someone else, like accusing another person of being jealous when you are the one being jealous Passive Aggression - aggressively doing something fr someone and failing to do it or doing it slowly. A passive way to express your anger

Question 631

Projective Identification

Answer 631

A potential result of a person being the target of another's projection as their defense mechanism. The victim may actually start to feel the way that the projector is making them out to be

Question 632

Neurotic Defense Mechanisms

Answer 632

Think: 3R-I-D Intellectualization, rationalization, regression, repression, displacement

Question 633

Mature Defense Mechanisms

Answer 633

Think: Mature HASS Humor, Altruism, Sublimation, Suppression

Question 634

Pleasure Principle

Answer 634

Young children (or immature adults) want to immediately feel pleasure to avoid suffering. Not willing to compromise

Question 635

Reality Principle

Answer 635

With maturation, short-term reward gets replaced by long-term gratification. Not always going to get what you want and the outside world might tolerate your behavior or it might not. You have to play by the rules

Question 636

Eros Drives

Answer 636

LivLife Drives like health, safety, sex. Comes with love, cooperation, collaboration. Working with others to promote your and others well-being

Question 637

Thantos

Answer 637

Death Drive. Self-destructive/harmful to others. Comes with fear, anger (inward or outwar), hate

Question 638

Neustress

Answer 638

Natural type of stress. Happens when you are exposed to something stressful, but it doesn't actively or directly affect you. Ex: a hurricane on the other side of the world may be stressful. but your body doesn't perceive it as good or bad stress

Question 639

ICD-10 vs DSM-5

Answer 639

ICD-10: International classification of diseases put out by the WHO. 11 top-level categories DSM-5: Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders, put out by the APA. 20 top-level categories

Question 640

Dysgraphia

Answer 640

Learning disability in which writing is impaired

Question 641

Schizophrenia

Answer 641

Long-term. High distress and disability. Characterized by high levels of dopamine. Due to a combination of genetics and environmental effects. Symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, isolating themselves, disorganization, and lack of emotion. Equal rates in males and females. Prodrome: the period of time before schizophrenic symptoms present. Leads to the disorder

Question 642

Avolition

Answer 642

The reduction, difficulty, or inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed behavior. It is often mistaken for apparent disinterest. Person is UNABLE. A symptom of schizophrenia

Question 643

Alogia

Answer 643

Poverty of speech. T - low fluency and productivity, though tot reflect slowing or blocked thoughts and often manifested as short, empty replies to questions

Question 644

Catatonic schizophrenia

Answer 644

A subtype in which the patient cannot move, speak, or respond

Question 645

Areas of the brain and neurotransmitters affected in depression

Answer 645

Brain: frontal lobe and limbic structures NTs: serotonin, NE, and dopamine (all low)

Question 646

Phobias

Answer 646

Focused anxiety. Can be debilitating (agoraphobia) or not affect your daily life much at all (fear of snakes). Tends to form a pattern

Question 647

Dissociate Identity Disorder

Answer 647

Used to be called multiple personality disorder. The two identities are distinct. RARE. Potentialy caused by stress

Question 648

Somatic Symptomn Disorders

Answer 648

Mental disorders manifesting in physical symptoms

Question 649

Conversion Disorder

Answer 649

A somatic symptom disorder in which the symptoms are ONLY neurological, and the symptoms can not be explained by test or physical exam

Question 650

Factitious Disorder / Munschausen's Syndrome

Answer 650

Patient wants ot be sick, so they will falsify disease signs or symptoms to get diagnosis/treatment/attention

Question 651

Clusters of Personality Disorders

Answer 651

Cluster A: odd, eccentric trains Cluster B: dramatic, emotional, erratic traits Cluster C: anxiety and fearful Think: ABC = weird, wild, worried

Question 652

Three potential areas of sleep problem occurrence and their corresponding forms of apnea

Answer 652

Brain: Central Sleep Apnea Upper Airways: Obstructive Sleep Apnea Lungs or Chest Walls: Hypoventilation Disorder

Question 653

Central Sleep Apnea

Answer 653

Brain is no longer properly controlling ventilation. Cheynes-Stroke breathing occurs: crescendo then decrescendo breathing followed by stop in breathing.

Question 654

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

Answer 654

When upper airways are obstructed. Soft tissues around our neck can relax at night and potentially cause obstruction of airflow for a short period of time.

Question 655

Hypoventialtion Disorder

Answer 655

Sleep disorder in which the lungs/chest wall stops lungs from being able to expand --\> we are then unable to fully remove all CO2. Low O2 levels occur as well

Question 656

What happens to the brain during Alzheimer's?

Answer 656

Loss of neurons, presence of amyloid plaques, clumping/tangles of neuro fibers and the protein tau/ Nucleus basalis is often lost early in the disease --\> the absence decreases ACh levels in the brain

Question 657

What happens to the brain during Parkinson's?

Answer 657

Substantia nigra becomes less dark or not dark at all (it is black in healthy brains). Dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra and other areas of the brain are lost. Abnormal Lewy bodies form in the diseased dopaminergic neurons of the Sibstantia Nigra

Question 658

Symptoms of Parkinson's

Answer 658

Slowed movements, tremors, increased muscle tone, abnormal walking, and poor balance (leading to falls).

Question 659

Symptoms of Depression/MDD

Answer 659

Think: SIG: E CAPS Suicidal thoughts/low mood, interests decreased, guilt, energy decreased, concentration decreased, appetite disturbance, psychomotor changes/symptoms, sleep disturbances

Question 660

Biopsychosocial Factors of Depression

Answer 660

Bio: genetic, decreased activation in prefrontal cortex, decreased levels of serotonin and norepinephrine (both monoamines) Psycho: learned helplessness, cognitive distortions (trapped in a negative thought pattern), attribution (linking negative experiences with internal causes), low self-esteem, poor coping mechanisms Sociocultural/Environmental: co-rumination (peer/partner with depression increases risk of own depression), low SES, social isolation/child abuse, internalization of prejudice

Question 661

Dependent stressor of MDD

Answer 661

Depressed person would be more likely to experience a greater number of stressors that he or she influences

Question 662

Independent stressor of MDD

Answer 662

Occurs without the person's influence.

Question 663

Hypomania

Answer 663

Mild form of mania that is usually not that bad. Lots of energy, happiness, and productivity, and little need for sleep.

Question 664

Bipolar I Disorder

Answer 664

When hypomania becomes manic, with OR without major depressive disorder. Mania is a requirement. Depression may or may not be present

Question 665

Bipolar II Disorder

Answer 665

Manic episode is NOT present. It is hypomania with at least one major depressive episode

Question 666

Cyclothymic Disorder

Answer 666

Hypomania + dysthymia

Question 667

Social Psychology

Answer 667

How individuals think, feel, and behave, in social interactions. People act differently in groups compared to individually

Question 668

Informative infuence

Answer 668

Look to a group for guidance when you don't know what to do and you assume the group is correct. Think: trusting the \*informants\*

Question 669

Normal influence

Answer 669

Even if you know what's right, do what group's negative actions are to avoid social rejection. Think: peer pressure is normal

Question 670

Privately conform

Answer 670

Change behaviors and core opinions to align with group

Question 671

Publically conform

Answer 671

Outwardly changing, but inside actually maintaining core beliefs. You only appear to be agreeing with the group

Question 672

Groupthink

Answer 672

Occurs when maintaining harmony among group members is more important than carefully analyzing problem at hand, often for the sake of group "unity". Happens among cohesive, insulated groups. Often have important/respected leaders, Often, the first suggestion proposed by the leader is adopted. Espeically if there is little hope of finding a better solution. Explains what is wrong with the US Congress lol

Question 673

Group polarization

Answer 673

A phenomenon where group decision-making amplifies the original opinion of group members. A stronger version of the decision is adopted

Question 674

Confirmation Bias

Answer 674

Group members seek out information that supports the majority view

Question 675

Life Course Approach to illness

Answer 675

Examines the risk factors (psychological, biological, and sociocultural) that have a cumulative effect on health and wellness

Question 676

Taste Aversion

Answer 676

A powerful and specific type of classical conditioning, the neutral (soon to be conditioned) stimulus of which is the food, and the unconditioned stimulus is whatever unpleasant experience occurred while you were eating/near the food.

Question 677

Medicalization

Answer 677

The effort to describe a type of behavior as a symptom of an underlying illness that should be treated by a doctor

Question 678

Subculture

Answer 678

Groups within a dominant culture that hold values distinct from the dominant, although not directly opposed

Question 679

Looking-glass self

Answer 679

Psychological concept which states that a person's self grows out of society's interpersonal interactions and the perceptions of others. Refers to people shaping their self-concepts based on their understanding of how others perceive them.

Question 680

Deindividuation

Answer 680

Describes how people lose their sense of self-awareness in a large group setting, which provides a high degree of arousal and also sense of responsibility. Main contributing factors: anonymity, diffused responsibilty, and group size

Question 681

Bystander effect

Answer 681

AKA bystand apathy - people do not offer help to a victim if there are other people present The likelihood of responding and helping a victim decreases as number of bystanders increases. Explained by diffusion of responsibility theory

Question 682

Actor-observer bias

Answer 682

We tend to place our own actions as due to external factors rather than on our personalities

Question 683

Self-serving bias

Answer 683

Tendency to credit one's own successes to themselves and their failures either to the actions of others or to the situation

Question 684

In-group bias

Answer 684

People are biased towards those vied as being part of their in-group

Question 685

Attributional bias

Answer 685

Judging the cause of a behavior based on prior beliefs or expectations. "Refers to the systematic error make when people evaluate or try to find reasons for their own and others' behaviors"

Question 686

Framing Bias

Answer 686

The way an option or decision is presented to a person will change how they feel about it and influence their likelihood to make a particular decision

Question 687

Egocentric Bias

Answer 687

The tendency to overstress changes between the past and present in order to make oneself appear more worthy or competent than one actually is.

Question 688

Automation Bias

Answer 688

The tendency to excessively depend on automated systems --\> can lead to erroneous automated info overriding correct decisions.

Question 689

Ethnocentrism

Answer 689

Judging another culture by one's own cultural values

Question 690

Ecological validity

Answer 690

Refers to how findings from an experimental setting can be generalized to the environmental considerations in the real world

Question 691

Objective vs Subjective Personality Tests

Answer 691

Objective: Measures specific personality characteristics based on a set of discrete options (ex: Meyers-Briggs) Subjective: Allows patients to project their subjective feelings, perceptions, and thoughts onto the assessment stimuli. The results are open for inaccuracy as different physicians may reach different conclusions

Question 692

Differential Association Theory

Answer 692

Individuals engage in crime because they are exposed to it, while individuals that do not commit crimes have not been exposed to this behavior. Asserts that criminal behavior is simply learned

Question 693

Strain Theory

Answer 693

If a person is blocked from attaining a culturally accepted goal, they may become frustrated/STRAINED and turn to deviance. An attempt to reduce crime regarding this theory: Deemphasizing the importance of values, like material worth, that previously motivated people to commit crimes

Question 694

Labeling Theory

Answer 694

A theory of deviance that asserts the idea that a behavior is deviant if people have judged the behavior and labeled it as deviant. It depends on what is acceptable in a specific society

Question 695

T/F: Wernicke's aphasia does not affect one's ability to connect meaning to language Also, where is Wernicke's area? Broca's?

Answer 695

FALSE Wernicke's: temporal lobe Broca's: frontal lobe

Question 696

Where does logical processing occur in the brain? What about emotional processing?

Answer 696

Logical: Frontal Lobe Emotional: Temporal Lobe

Question 697

Expert Power

Answer 697

Experts tend to exert power through knowledge of subject matter; likely appealing to high-motivation, high-knowledge people

Question 698

Referent power

Answer 698

Exerted by appealing to the audience members' desires. Likely appeals to low-motivation/low-knowledge individuals

Question 699

Coercive power

Answer 699

Exerted via force or threat of force

Question 700

Proactive Interference

Answer 700

Currently existing long-term memories can interfere with the process of forming new long-term memories

Question 701

Korsakoff's Syndrome

Answer 701

A neurological disorder in which patients experience chronic memory impairment, commonly due to alcohol abuse. Major characteristic is thiamine deficiency --\> reduces the activity of certain enzymes, decreasing mitochondrial activity, energy production, and eventually causing neuronal death

Question 702

Social Anomie

Answer 702

Breakdown of social bonds between an individual and community. Results in social groups disbanding and alienation from social groups. This means there is a weakened sense of morality and criteria for behavior Resolution: Strengthening of social norms and redevelopment of shared norms

Question 703

Folkways

Answer 703

Social norms that have absent/non-serious consequences if they are broken Ex: they way you are "supposed to" stand in an elevator

Question 704

Mores

Answer 704

Social norms that are deemed highly necessary to the welfare of a society. There are consequences if they are broken. Ex: seeking medical attention for a serious acute illness

Question 705

Taboo

Answer 705

Behaviors that are completely forbidden/wrong in any circumstance Serious social norms, the breaking of which results in consequences more serious than for breaking a more (like rejection from the specific society) Ex: Certain religions not eating certain animals

Question 706

Conformity

Answer 706

"Peer Pressure" - how we adjust our behavior/thinking to match a group's. CAn be positive or negative

Question 707

Obedience

Answer 707

Describes how one follows orders given by an authority figure. No cognitive component. Can be positive or negative. High obedience correlates with lower status, close proximity of the authority figure, legitimacy, consensus of the group, and collectivism (societies that value the group over the individual)

Question 708

Compliance

Answer 708

Situations where we do behavior to get a reward or avoid punishment. Tendency to go along with behavior without questioning why

Question 709

Identification

Answer 709

When people act/dress a certain way in order to emulate someone they respect. Freud believed that a part of child development included reaching a certain age at which the child adopts characteristics of one of the parents (ie young boy stats acting more like his father than his mother)

Question 710

Internalization

Answer 710

The act of an idea/belief/behavior becoming integrated into our own values. It happens privately and is stronger than other types of conformity.

Question 711

Normative Social Influence

Answer 711

When we do something to gain the respect/support of peers, we are complying with social norms

Question 712

Informational Social Influence

Answer 712

When we conform based on a feeling that others are more knowledgeable than us - we think they know something that we don't

Question 713

Solomon Asch

Answer 713

A Gestal Psychologist who believed that human behavior must be considered as a whole (broken into parts is near meaningless). Studies the influence of group behavior on an individual --\> Asch's Line Studies

Question 714

Asch's Line Studies

Answer 714

Experimenter asked participants to identify which line on a card matched the target line (very easy task). All subjects were present for each others' trials. Error rate was extremely low, except when the first participant (confederate) intentionally answered incorrectly --\> 75% of following participants conformed to the wrong answer at least once, and 37% conformed every single time

Question 715

Perceptual Error

Answer 715

An incorrect answer given because of a genuine belief that others were correct in proposing it before

Question 716

Demand characterisitcs

Answer 716

Describes how participants change behavior to match expectation of experimenter. Conformed because that's what experimenter wanted them to do

Question 717

Motivation behind Milgram Studies

Answer 717

Milgram wanted to know whether Nazi officers were "just following orders" in committing such horrible acts towards prisoners in the Holocaust. Studying obedience.

Question 718

Experiment of the Milgram Study

Answer 718

There were two subjects in each trial (but one was a confederate that was always assigned the role of learner and the real subject was the teacher). Teacher was instructed to shock the learner every time a wrong answer was given. Teacher and learner were visually separated but not audibly. The shocks were not real, but the confederate cried out like they were. Findings: VERY FEW PEOPLE RESISTED AUTHORITY AND OBEYED TO SHOCK THE PATCIPANTS

Question 719

"Just world phenomenon"

Answer 719

Idea that the universe is fair so people must get what they deserve (good happens to good ppl, bad to bad). Some people use it to justify their actions

Question 720

Fundamental Attribution Error

Answer 720

Tendency to believe that others in out-groups behave certain ways based on inherent personality traits/flaws rather than situational factors

Question 721

Zimbardo Study

Answer 721

Stanford Prison Experiment - studies conformity/obedience. Assigned subjects the title of either "prisoner" or "guard." All of them knew that the assignments were random. Outcome: guards began acting too viciously to prisoners Conclusion: situations have major impacts on behavior. The guards were able to easily behave badly towards others due to deindividuation. The guards' behavior caused them to experience cognitive dissonance. The prisoners internalized their roles as prisoners

Question 722

Issues with the Stanford Prison Experiment

Answer 722

Zimbardo himself was participating by acting as the prison warden - he allowed the bad behavior to ensue. Selection bias - subjects were voluntary students from Stanford. Demand characteristics - the participants knew this was an experiment.

Question 723

Factors affecting conformity and obedience

Answer 723

Group size, unanimity, group status, group cohesion, observed behavior, public response, internal factors (prior commitments, feelings of insecurity), type of authority giving orders and one's closeness to them (mentally and physically), legitimacy of authority, institutional authority, victim distance, depersonalization, role models for defiance, one's mood

Question 724

Yerkes-Dodson Law

Answer 724

The presence of others improves performance on simple tasks and hinders performance on difficult/unpracticed tasks

Question 725

Hawthorne Effect

Answer 725

AKA the observer effect: a type of reactivity in which individuals modify or improve an aspect of their behavior in response to their awareness of being observed. A participant changes their behavior solely based on the fact that they know they are being observed Think: Observe the Thorns

Question 726

Socialization and Agents of Socialization

Answer 726

The life-long process in which we learn how to interact with others. It is how we learn what is considered normal in society Agents: family (most important), school, peers, popular culture (mass media including TV, internet, radio, books, magazines), and religion

Question 727

Norms

Answer 727

Standards for what behaviors are acceptable - set by groups of individuals. Usually guided by some sort of moral standard or ethical value that is easily understood and internalized by all members of the group. Provides structure

Question 728

Sanctions

Answer 728

Modes of reinforcing norms - they are rewards (positive) or punishments (negative). Can be formal (officially recognized and enforced) or informal (unofficially recognized and does not result in specific punishmnet)

Question 729

Deviance

Answer 729

When a norm is violated. Not always negative - simply characterized by individuals behaving differently from what society feels in normal. Deviance is relative - depends on context, individuals, group, and country

Question 730

Symbolic Interactionism

Answer 730

Society is a product of everyday interactions and individuals - This concept looks at how people behave in normal everyday situations and helps us to better understand and define deviance. Addresses the subjective meanings people believe to be true. Developed by George H Mead, continued by Herbert Blumer.

Question 731

Key difference in Bottom-Up vs Top-Down Processing

Answer 731

Bottom-Up: Interpretation is driven by sensory stimuli Top-Down: Interpretation is driven by beliefs, ideas, and expectations

Question 732

Primary Deviance

Answer 732

No major consequences. The reaction to this type of deviance is usually very mild and does not affect person's self-esteem, Individual is able to continue to behave in the same way without feeling immoral/wrong. Ex: all athletes on a particular team use steroids, so a player participating in this act is not labeled as deviant

Question 733

Secondary deviance

Answer 733

More serious consequences, characterized by severe negative reaction that produces a stigmatizing label and results in more deviant behavior. Ex: Teammates of an athlete label player's behavior as deviant and they exclude him from practices and call him a terrible player. His reaction: continued use of steroids to be a better player.

Question 734

Collective behavior

Answer 734

Involves short social interactions. Collectives can be open (vs. groups, which are exclusive), and have loose norms. Generally violates widely held social norms, Driven by group dynamics, like deindividuation. NOT the same as group behavior.

Question 735

Fad

Answer 735

"Fleeting behavior" - becomes incredibly popular, but loses popularity just as quickly. Reaches a large number of people in a given time. Not necessarily in line with normal behavior. Perceived as "cool." Ex: cinnamon challenge

Question 736

Mass hysteria

Answer 736

Large number of people who experience unmanageable delusion and anxiety at the same time (high emotional/irrational responses). Reactions spread rapidly and reach others through rumors and fears. Often takes the form of panic reactions and negative news or potential threat Can be spread by panic and spread of information by the media

Question 737

Mass psychogenic illness/epidemic hysteria

Answer 737

Mass hysteria can be the result of psychology, like when large amount of people believe they have the same illness despite lack of disease.

Question 738

Habituation

Answer 738

Person tunes out an ongoing stimulus

Question 739

Sensitization

Answer 739

Person becomes more responsive to a stimulus

Question 740

Associative learning

Answer 740

When one event is connected to another. The two forms: classical and operant

Question 741

Classical conditioning

Answer 741

Pavlov's Dogs! An innate response to a potent stimulus comes to be elicited in response to a previously neutral stimulus; achieved by repetitive pairings of the neutral and potent stimuli

Question 742

Unconditioned stimulus

Answer 742

Stimulus that causes the unconditioned (innate) response. In Pavlov's experiment, UCS was the meat

Question 743

Generalization in Classical Conditioning

Answer 743

Tendency of stimulus similar to conditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response. The more similar the stimulus is to the original CS, the greater the conditioned response

Question 744

Discrimination in Classical Conditioning

Answer 744

Demonstrated when subject has learned NOT to exhibit the CR to objects that are similar to the CS - they have made this distinction

Question 745

Extinction in Classicla Conditioning

Answer 745

If the CS happens over and over without the UCS, the subject stops displaying the conditioned response

Question 746

Spontaneous recovery

Answer 746

When an old conditioned stimulus elicits the conditioned response (CR would have been extinct for a period, but now it occurs with inconsistency)

Question 747

Extinctive Burst

Answer 747

When an animal no longer receives regular reinforcement (ie in the process of extinction), its conditioned behavior will sometimes INCREASE. Ex: pigeon that has been given food every time it pushes a button is no longer receiving food. Just before extinction of the pigeon's button-pushing behavior, it may push the button over and over again

Question 748

Aversive Conditioning

Answer 748

A form of behavioral therapy that is used to stop a negative habit. The negative behavior is paired with an unpleasant stimulus.

Question 749

Systematic Desensitization

Answer 749

Form of classical conditioning therapy in which feelings of anxiety are replaced with relaxation. Includes implosive therapy

Question 750

Implosive therapy

Answer 750

Subject is exposed to a great deal of anxiety-provoking stimuli with the intent that they will see they survived and realize now that their fear is irrational

Question 751

Counterconditioning

Answer 751

The conditioning of an unwanted behavior into a wanted behavior by associating positive actions with the stimulus. Similar to extinction in that the original behavior disappears, but different in that it is replaced with a different one

Question 752

BF Skinner

Answer 752

Major psychologist associated with operant conditioning. Created "Skinner boxes" - bare boxes in which rats were operantly conditioned to perform certain tasks

Question 753

Primary reinforcers

Answer 753

Innately satisfying/desirable. Ex: food, water, sexual activity

Question 754

Secondary reinforcers

Answer 754

Those learned to be desired (so they were previously neutral). REquires a pairing or association with a primary reinforcer in order for it to come to hold value. Ex: money

Question 755

Token Economy

Answer 755

System of behavior modifications based on systematic reinforcement of target behavior, reinforcers are "tokens" that can be exchanged for other reinforcers Ex: prizes

Question 756

Operant Extinction

Answer 756

After successfully operantly conditioning a subject, the desired response is no longer being reinforced. Over time, the desired response stops occurring

Question 757

Instinctual Drift

Answer 757

Operantly learned techniques eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors. Thus, the learned behavior "drifts" to the organism's species-specific instinctual behavior

Question 758

Shaping

Answer 758

Facilitating learning by successively reinforcing behaviors that approximate the target behavior

Question 759

Partial Reinforcement Schedule

Answer 759

Behavior is only reinforced sometimes. More resistant to extinction than continuous reinforcement. Requires prior shaping

Question 760

Fixed-Ratio

Answer 760

Reinforcement only occurs after a specific, fixed number of responses

Question 761

Fixed-Interval

Answer 761

Time is constant between reinforcements. Ex: Paycheck every two weeks. Response rate is slower

Question 762

Variable Ratio

Answer 762

Reinforcement is delivered after varying numbers of desired responses. The numbers vary but create a desired average. MOST effective --\> VR = Very Rapid

Question 763

Variable-Interval

Answer 763

Responses are reinforced after a variable amount of time has passed, regardless of amount. Ex: pay bonus can come randomly on different days

Question 764

Simple innate behaviors

Answer 764

Reflexes, taxis, kinesis

Question 765

Complex innate behavior

Answer 765

Fixed action patterns, migration, circadian rhythms

Question 766

Habituation

Answer 766

Response to alarm decreases over time

Question 767

Insight Learning

Answer 767

The "aha" moment when solving a problem using past skills

Question 768

Latent learning

Answer 768

Learned behavior is not expressed until required

Question 769

Innate Learning

Answer 769

Fixed action patterns that are "hard wired"

Question 770

Aversive Control

Answer 770

Situations where behavior is motivated by threat of something unpleasant. Types: escape and avoidance/avoidant learning

Question 771

Escape

Answer 771

"Get me out of here" response to aversive stimuli. The behavior that produces the escape is negatively reinforced

Question 772

Avoidance

Answer 772

Signal of behavior is given before an aversive stimulus. The behavior is to avoid the situation, which results in continued avoidance because it is reinforced by removal of the pain/undesirable stimulus. These behaviors are incredibly persistent even when there is nothing to avoid. Negative reinforcement in the form of relief. This is actually self-reinforcing behavior

Question 773

Drive-reduction reinforcement type

Answer 773

Negative

Question 774

Non-associative Learning

Answer 774

Learning where no punishment/reward is occurring with an increase or decrease in response. The two types: sensitization and habituation

Question 775

Taste Aversion

Answer 775

A previously enjoyed food that becomes associated with negative experiences and feelings so much so that the person stop enjoying it

Question 776

Adaptive associations

Answer 776

Those that have a biological advantage - they are learned faster than learning with no biological value

Question 777

Elaboration likelihood model

Answer 777

Explains how attitudes are formed and likely they are to be changed. The most important characteristics of this model are the Target Chracteristics. Determines when people will be influenced by the content of a speech (central route processing) vs more superficial features (peripheral route).

Question 778

Three stages fo the elaboration likelihood model

Answer 778

1: Pre-processing stage due to target characteristics (info is filtered by the listener) 2: Processing Stage by message/source 3: Change in attitude

Question 779

Reciprocal Determinism

Answer 779

The interaction between a person's behaviors, personal factors, and environment are all determined by one another

Question 780

Social-Cognitive Theory

Answer 780

View behaviors as being influenced by people's traits/cognitions and their social context (the interaction between individual and the situation they are in). Developed by Bandura

Question 781

Tyranny of choice

Answer 781

Too many choices can negatively impact our cognition and behavior. Results: information overload, decision paralysis, and increased regret

Question 782

Ego depletion

Answer 782

The idea that self-control is a limited resource. If you use a lot of it, it can get used up so that there is less of it to use in future tasks. Self-control is similar to a muscle in that it can be strengthened through exercise, but it can also be fatigued/depleted with overuse

Question 783

Existential Self

Answer 783

The most basic part of self-concept - the sense of being separate and distinct from others, and awareness that the self is constant throughout life.

Question 784

Categorical self

Answer 784

Comes one baby realizes they are separate in several different groupings. Age and gender are the first categories that babies learn, then skills and size, and eventually traits, comparisons, and careers

Question 785

Self-Concept

Answer 785

AKA self-identity - how someone thinks/perceives/evaluates themselves. AKA self-awareness

Question 786

Carl Rogers

Answer 786

Believed self-concept had 3 different components: self-image, self-esteem, ideal self. Major supporter of humanistic theory

Question 787

Social identity theory (has two parts)

Answer 787

Includes personal and social identities (separate). Personal: Thinhings unique to each person. like personality traits Social: Includes groups you belong to in the community

Question 788

Self-esteem vs Self-worth

Answer 788

Esteem = how you think/feel about yourself Worth = the value you place on your self "Self-esteem does not work or last without self-worth"

Question 789

4 Sources to determine if person has strong/weak self-efficacy

Answer 789

1. Mastery of experience: strengthens 2. Social modeling: seeing others who are similar to ourselves complete the tasks increases self-efficacy 3. Social persuasion: hearing others' encouragement helps overcome self-doubt 4. Psychological responses: learning how to minimize stress and control/elevate mood in difficult situations ups self-efficacy

Question 790

Psychosexual Theory of Development

Answer 790

Freud's Theory Believed that most of children's personality development occurs before age 5. There are five stages, and if one of them is disrupted, then fixation occurs due to due to the concept of libido (a natural energy source that fuels mechanisms of mind). Libido is centered at different parts of the body at different times of development: Oral, anal, phallic, latent, genital

Question 791

Psychosocial Development

Answer 791

By Erikson Believed that development occurred throughout life (not just in childhood like Freud). Assumed that a crisis can occur at each stage of development between the individual and society. There is a virtue associated with each stage (can be used by ego to resolve future conflicts), Failure in certain stage results in reduced ability to move on to further stages or unhealthy personality/sense of self

Question 792

Sociocultural Development

Answer 792

Put forth by Vygotsky Focused on social interactions between growing children and interactions with those around them in development of cognition - higher-order learning. Babies have 4 elementary mental functions: attention, sensation, perception, and memory (AMPS), which get developed into higher mental functions based off a tutor/model/parent/teacher. Child learns through internalization of their observations/instructions

Question 793

Zone of Prroximal Development

Answer 793

Part of Vygotsky's Theory of Sociocultural Development The link between the cognitive zones of "can" and "can't" do. Most sensitive instruction/guidance should be given here to allow the learner to use the skills that they already have to develop new skills.

Question 794

Positive Symptoms of Schizophrenia

Answer 794

Hallucinations, delusions, mania (including decreased need for sleep), confused thoughts, disorganized speech, movement disorders

Question 795

Kohlberg Moral Development

Answer 795

There are three levels of moral reasoning: pre-conventional, conventional, and post-conventional Based on cognitive development.

Question 796

Pre-conventional level of moral reasoning

Answer 796

Part of Kohlberg's Stages. Pre-adolescent. Reasoning is based on physical consequences of actions, so one obeys the rules in order to avoid punishment (obedience vs punishment) Self-interest! Recognize not just one right view by authorities, different individuals have different iew points. Doing what is right for personal gain

Question 797

Conventional level of moral reasoning

Answer 797

Societal norms/acceptance - Authority is internalized, but not questioned, and reasoning is based on group to which person belongs. Individual is good in order to be seen as good by others. Emphasis on conformity Law and Order - maintains social order, chlder is aware of wider roles of society and obeying laws

Question 798

Post-Conventional level of moral reasoning

Answer 798

Higher moral reasoning. Social contract - Individual becomes aware that even though rules and laws exist for greater good, there are times this law works against interest of particular people Universal Ethical principle - people develop their own set of moral guidelines. which may or may not fit the law, and principles apply to everyone. Very few few people reach this stage (ex: Ghandi, Mandela, MLKJ)

Question 799

Andre Meltzoff

Answer 799

Suggested that babies are born with a built-in capacity to imitate others. Published a study on newborns that examined their tendency to imitate facial expressions of the experimenters. Findings support the existence of mirror neurons - one fires when we observe the an action performed by another person.

Question 800

Culture and socialization

Answer 800

Important contributions of society to our personal development, emphasizes interaction between the people and culture in which we live

Question 801

George Herbet Mead

Answer 801

Developed the idea of social behaviorism - the mind and self-emerge through the process of communicating with others (beginning of symbolic interactionism). Infants and children are not influenced by others in any way, merely imitate others and focus on themselves. As we grow up, our belief of how others perceive us becomes more important - happens in three stages: preparatory stage, play stage, game stage

Question 802

Social Reproduction

Answer 802

The perpetuation fo inequalities through social institutions (like educational systems or the economy)

Question 803

Social stratifciation

Answer 803

The objective social hierarchy in specific societies (according to social group characteristics). It is a system of ranking individuals and groups within societies into socioeconomic tiers based on factors like wealth, income, race, education, and power.

Question 804

An Organization

Answer 804

A formal collection of individuals joining together to coordinate their interactions toward a specific purpose

Question 805

T/F: Creation of laws is an organizational change

Answer 805

False - a legal change in which norms are being formalised into laws goes beyond the level of organizational change

Question 806

Organizational change

Answer 806

An alteration in the structure of a formal organization

Question 807

Mead's Definition of "I"

Answer 807

The spontaneous, autonomous, less socialized part of the unified self. It is the response of the self to the "me." The non-conforming, non-socialized part of the self who "makes dIck moves all the time"

Question 808

Mead's Definition of "me"

Answer 808

The social self that conforms due to interactions with others and the environment. This part of the self tries not to make any dick moves

Question 809

Actual Self

Answer 809

The balance of the "I" and "me" according to Mead.

Question 810

Social Constructionism

Answer 810

The perspective that focuses on how knowledge and experiences are not real, but exist because individuals and society give them meaning

Question 811

Where in the structure of the eyeball has the greatest density of rods?

Answer 811

The periphery of the retina

Question 812

Cultural Relativism

Answer 812

The belief that there are no "right" or "wrong" cultural practices. It is inclusive of cultural differences

Question 813

Master Status

Answer 813

One's dominant social position

Question 814

Achieved Status

Answer 814

One that is attained through successes and failures. Includes occupation/student status

Question 815

Assigned/Ascribed Status

Answer 815

Status assigned from birth, you cannot change it. e.g. race, family origins

Question 816

Intersectionality

Answer 816

Describes how all individuals hold multiple, interconnected identities that simultaneously impact their lives and perspectives. Ex: gender pay gap exemplifies how the inequality in pay between female and male workers is related to both gender and age

Question 817

Rational Choice/Social Exchange Theory

Answer 817

People act to minimize loss and maximize gain

Question 818

The Nativist Hypothesis

Answer 818

Sometimes called the biological theory. States that humans have an innate ability to speak and use language.

Question 819

Linguistic relativity

Answer 819

The structure of a language affects the ways in which its respective speakers conceptualize their worldview or otherwise influence their cognitive processes. Similar to linguistic determinism

Question 820

Linguistic determinism

Answer 820

The idea that language and its structure limit and determine human knowledge or thought, categorization, memory, and perception

Question 821

Whorf-Sapir hypothesis

Answer 821

People from different cultures think differently because of differences in their languages

Question 822

Role Strain

Answer 822

The tension that results from competing demands within the context of a single social role. Different demands go along with contrasting expectations of a certain individual

Question 823

Role Conflict

Answer 823

When a person experiences stress or tension from having to manage the social responsibilities of two or more social roles

Question 824

Ethnographic Models

Answer 824

Research methodology that involves the extended systematic observation of a complete social environment

Question 825

Confounding variable

Answer 825

Uncontrolled variables that have an effect on the independent and/or dependent variables.

Question 826

Halo Effect

Answer 826

An attributional error resulting when an individual with a positive quality, like physical attractiveness, is assumed to have other positive qualities, like warmth or intelligence.

Question 827

Game theory

Answer 827

The study of how beings can cooperate with each other and use strategies for their own reason, whether for personal gain or altruism. Examines conscious decision making

Question 828

Match each of the five senses with the key receptor type

Answer 828

Taste: Chemoreceptors Smell: Chemoreceptors Touch: Mechanoreceptors Vision: Photoreceptors Audition: Mechanoreceptors

Question 829

Dependency Ratio

Answer 829

Ratio of the number of dependent individuals in a society to the number of individuals that support them DR = (economically dependent) / (economically productive) = # \<14 or \>65 / # between 15-64

Question 830

Source Monitoring Error

Answer 830

An error in which the source of a particular piece of information is incorrectly attributed to some specific recollected experience

Question 831

Functionalism

Answer 831

Macro-sociological view that looks at society as a whole and how institutions that make up the society adapt to keep society stable and functioning. Society is an organism, and each part of the organism must contribute to maintain equilibrium

Question 832

Conflict Theory

Answer 832

Macro-sociological view in which the ideal society is made of institutions that benefit powerful and create inequalities. Large groups are at ods until conflict is resolved. Society = a struggle for limited resources. Inequalities are based on social divisions Based on the ideal of Karl Marx who believed that society evolved: feudalism→capitalism→socialism

Question 833

Symbolic Interactionism

Answer 833

Micro-sociological perspective that focuses on the individual and the significance they give to objects, events, symbols, and everything else in their lives.

Question 834

Evolutionary Game Theory

Answer 834

Those with the best fit to the environment will survive and pass on genes to offspring. Those genes will become more common in successive generations

Question 835

Looking glass self

Answer 835

Charles Cooley developed this idea that a person's sense of self develops from interpersonal interactions with others. Develops from interactions with others based on three steps: (1) How do I appear to others, (2) What must others think of me? And (3), Revise how I think about myself

Question 836

Kelley's Co-variation Model

Answer 836

Attribution depends on 3 cues: consistency (time), distinctiveness (situation), and consensus (people). High consistency → Internal attribution Distinctiveness → Situational attribution High degree of consensus → Situational attribution

Question 837

Optimism bias

Answer 837

The belief that bad things happen to others, but no to us

Question 838

Stereotyping

Answer 838

Attributing a certain thought/cognition to a group of individuals, and overgeneralizing

Question 839

Stereotype Threat

Answer 839

Self-fulfilling fear that one will be evaluated based on a negative stereotype. Ex: women performing worse on a math test after being told that males are superior at math compared to women who are not told this

Question 840

Prejudice

Answer 840

A positive or negative evaluation of another person based on their perceived group membership. 3 components: Cognition (stereotype), affect (emotional component), and discrimination (behavior). THINK: ABC = Affect, Behavior, Cognition (no particular order) Aggression is directed toward Scapegoats

Question 841

Scapegoats

Answer 841

Group of people towards whom prejudice-based aggression is targeted Ex: Jews in WWII

Question 842

Frustration Aggression Hypothesis

Answer 842

Not personality-based, rather, emotional. Someone getting frustrated can lead to prejudice. Frustrations turn into aggressive impulses, which should be directed to their source. However, if the source is someone like a boss at work, then aggressions will be directed elsewhere (often towards minorities)

Question 843

Hypothesis of Relative Deprivation

Answer 843

Upsurge in prejudice/discrimination when people are deprived of something they feel entitled to

Question 844

Social stigma

Answer 844

Extreme disapproval/discrediting of individual by society, fuelled or associated stereotypes, prejudices, and/or discrimination. Social stigma against mental health (stereotyping the mentally ill as violent, so people are afraid, and do not hire or interact with them)

Question 845

Self-stigma

Answer 845

When an individual internalizes all the negative stereotypes, prejudices, and discriminatory experiences they've had, and begin to feel rejected by society and avoid interaction with society

Question 846

First Impressions

Answer 846

Lasting, strong, and easily built upon. More important than later data due to the primacy bias

Question 847

Recency Bias

Answer 847

Your later actions are more important in peers' judgments of you than previous actions

Question 848

Just-World Hypothesis

Answer 848

Predictable result as a consequence of our actions. Good deeds are rewarded, evil acts are punished

Question 849

Xenocentrism

Answer 849

Judging another culture as superior to one's own culture

Question 850

Cultural imperialism

Answer 850

The deliberate imposition of one's own cultural values on another culture

Question 851

Mere Exposure Effect

Answer 851

Repeated exposure to novel people or objects increases our liking for them. The more often we see something, the more often we like it. Applies to everything (music, nonsense syllables, numbers, objects, etc.)

Question 852

Similarity bias

Answer 852

Implies that we will not befriend people that are different from us

Question 853

Projection bias

Answer 853

We assume that others share the same beliefs as us

Question 854

False consensus

Answer 854

When we assume everyone else agrees with what we do, even if they do not

Question 855

Mary Ainsworth's Strange Situation

Answer 855

Goal: To determine why some babies have stranger anxiety and some do not. Put mother and baby in a room with a stranger and allowed baby to explore without interaction of either adult. Examined response to baby when mother left the room and then when they came back. 60% had secure attachment and 40% insecure

Question 856

Secure attachment

Answer 856

Baby is distressed by mother leaving the room, and is then happy when she comes back Caused by sensitive/responsive parenting style

Question 857

Insecure attachment

Answer 857

Baby is upset my mother leaving the room and is then not comforted by her return. OR baby is indifferent to her leaving the room and coming back. Caused by insenseitive/unresponsive parenting style

Question 858

Authoritarian Parenting

Answer 858

Very strict, the break will of child. Punishment-heavy.

Question 859

Authoritative parenting

Answer 859

BEST:) Strict, consistent, and loving, but more pragmatic and issue-oriented and listen to children's arguments. They balance responsibility with the rights of the child

Question 860

Permissive/Indulgent Parenting

Answer 860

Non-directive and lenient. Few behavioral expectations for the child

Question 861

Testosterone and Aggression

Answer 861

Higher in men, which partly explains why men are more aggressive than women as a whole

Question 862

Frustration-aggression principle

Answer 862

The idea that frustration creates anger which can spark aggression

Question 863

Reinforcement-modeling

Answer 863

Can lead to aggression through positive reinforcement. Parents who give into the demands of a child who is throwing a tantrum will lead to more tantrums in the future. Also, child will pick up on the event of a parent hitting/yelling at the other parent and then not getting punished for it → they learn through observation that this is okay

Question 864

Socio-cultural Factor of Aggression

Answer 864

People act more aggressively in groups due to de-individuation

Question 865

Empathy-Altruism Hypothesis

Answer 865

Suggests that some people are more altruistic due to empathy. High empathy = high altruism

Question 866

Primary Groups

Answer 866

Closest members of the group to you. Close, intimate, long-term relationships. Strong, lasting ties

Question 867

In-group

Answer 867

The group you are affiliated with based on identification - can be ethnicity, nationality, gender, religion, etc. (Different from primary group because you do not know everyone in your in-group)

Question 868

Secondary groups

Answer 868

Formal, impersonal, temporary, and business-like relationships. May be based on a limited purpose or goal.

Question 869

Dramaturgical Approach

Answer 869

The metaphor of theater to understand social interactions Involves the concepts of front stage self, backstage self, impression management, and communication

Question 870

Impression Management

Answer 870

Our attempt to control how others see us on the front stage. We adjust in order to be viewed in a positive way. You work on impression management in the backstage

Question 871

Social Discrimination

Answer 871

Differential treatment and harmful **actions** against minorities. Can be based on different factors and can occur at the individual OR organizational/institutional levels

Question 872

Past-in-Present Discrimination

Answer 872

How things don in the past, even if they are no longer allowed they can still have consequences for people in the present

Question 873

Utilitarian Organizations

Answer 873

Members are paid/rewarded for their efforts. Ex: Businesses, governments, university (jobs and diplomas)

Question 874

Normative Organizations

Answer 874

Members come together through shared goals. Positive sense of unity and purpose Ex: Religions, Mothers Against Drunk Driving

Question 875

Coercive Organizations

Answer 875

Members don't have a choice about membership. Usually highly structured and have very strict rules. Ex: Prison, military

Question 876

Bureaucratization

Answer 876

Process by which organization become increasingly governed by laws and policy Ex: Customer service, now you have to move through 12 menu options before reaching someone to help you

Question 877

McDonaldization

Answer 877

Policies of fast-food organizations have come to dominate other organizations in society - Principles of efficiency, calculability, predictability, uniformity, and control

Question 878

Max Weber's 5 Main Characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy

Answer 878

1. Division of labor 2. Hierarchy of organization 3. Written rules and regulations 4. Impersonality 5. Employment based on technical qualifications

Question 879

Peter Principle

Answer 879

Every employee in hierarchy keeps getting promoted until they reach level of incompetence (meaning they lack the knowledge or skills to go any higher)

Question 880

Antrhopomorphism

Answer 880

Attributing human characteristics to non-human animals. Ex: You assume that your dog lies next to you because they love you, but really it may just be because they want your body heat

Question 881

Random Mating

Answer 881

All individuals within a species are equally likely to mate with each other. Mating is not influenced by environment/heredity or any behavioral/social limitation. Ensures a large amount of genetic diversity.

Question 882

Assortive mating

Answer 882

Non-random mating where individuals with certain phenotypes/genotypes/similarities/genes/physical appearance tend to mate with **each other** at higher frequency

Question 883

Dis-assortative (Non-assortative) Mating

Answer 883

Individuals with different characteristics are more likely to mate with each other than with those similar to them

Question 884

Inclusive Fitness

Answer 884

Concerns the number of offspring an animal has, how they support them, and how the offspring support each other. Looks at fitness on a larger scale and considers the evolutionary advantage

Question 885

Evolutionary Game Theory

Answer 885

Those with best-fit strategies and behaviors for the environment will survive and pass on these habits to their offspring. Such strategies/behaviors may NOT be conscious

Question 886

Hidden Curriculum

Answer 886

In school, this involves how we are taught to stand in line, wait our turn, and treat our peers.

Question 887

Ecclesia

Answer 887

Dominant religious organization that includes most members of a society Ex: Lutheranism in Sweden, Islam in Iran

Question 888

Fundamentalism

Answer 888

Reaction to secularization (weakening social and political power of religion), goes back to strict religious beliefs. Creates social problems when people become too extreme

Question 889

Social epidemiology

Answer 889

Looks at health disparities through social indicators like race, gender, and income distribution, and how social factors affect a person's health Focuses on the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease patterns in populations, emphasizes how social factors affect the distribution of disease and health

Question 890

Ludwig Gumplowicz

Answer 890

Conflict theorists who expanded on Marx's ideas by proposing that society is shaped by war/conquest, and cultural/ethnic conflicts lead to certain groups becoming dominant over others

Question 891

Social Constructionism

Answer 891

Macro or micro view of society. Argues that people actively shape their reality through social interactions/agreement - it's something constructed, not inherent. Things are social products made of the values of the society that created it.

Question 892

Social Construct

Answer 892

A concept/practice everyone in society agrees to treat a certain way regardless of its inherent value Ex: Money, knowledge (books), the self (identity)

Question 893

Feminist Theory

Answer 893

Macro-perspective of society. Looks beyond the more common male-based perspective to focus on gender inequalities in society. Women face discrimination, objectification, oppression, and sterotyping

Question 894

Rational Choice Theory

Answer 894

People act in self-interest, driven by personal desires and motivated by goals. They act in ways that will maximize gain and minimize loss

Question 895

Exchange Theory / Exchange-Rational Choice Theory

Answer 895

Application of rational choice theory to social interactions. Addresses decision-making via const-benefit analyses. Looks at society as a series of interactions between individuals

Question 896

Social selection

Answer 896

Idea that an individual's health can influence their social mobility

Question 897

Greatest generation

Answer 897

1901-1924 - oldest people alive today. Born in first quarter fo the 20th century

Question 898

Silent generation

Answer 898

Born 1925-1945. Born during the great depression

Question 899

Baby Boomers

Answer 899

Born 1946-1964. Large population in the US. Grew up in post-WWII periods, currently leaving the workforce (which is opening jobs for younger people), also becoming reliant on families for support depending on financial status

Question 900

Generation X

Answer 900

Born 1965-1980.

Question 901

Millennials

Answer 901

Born 1980s-2000s. AKA Generation Y

Question 902

Generation Z

Answer 902

Born 1995-2003.

Question 903

Always-On Generation

Answer 903

Born 2004 and later

Question 904

Life Course Theory

Answer 904

Aging is a social, psychological, and biological process that beginsfrom the time you are born to the time you die.

Question 905

Age Stratification Theory

Answer 905

Suggests age is a way of regulating behavior or a generation

Question 906

Activity Theory

Answer 906

Looks at how older generation looks at themselves. Certain activities or jobs lost, those social interactions need to be replaced so elderly can be engaged and maintain moral/well-being

Question 907

Disengagement Theory

Answer 907

Older adults and society separate, assumes they become more self-absorbed as they age. Separation allows for self-reflection. But considers elderly people still involved in society as not adjusting well, which is debatable.

Question 908

Continuity Theory

Answer 908

People try to maintain same basic structure throughout their lives over time. As they age, people make decisions that preserve that structure and use it to adapt to external changes and internal changes of aging

Question 909

Race

Answer 909

A socially defined category based on physical differences between groups of people

Question 910

Ethnicity

Answer 910

Socially defined, ut not defined by physical characteristics (like race). These groups share language, religion, nationality, history, or some other cultural factor. Less statistically defined than racial groups and definitions can change over time

Question 911

Population transfer

Answer 911

Group is forcefully moved from territory

Question 912

Inter-colonialism

Answer 912

Minority groups are segregated and exploited

Question 913

Pluralism

Answer 913

Def: A condition or system in which two or more states, groups, principles, sources of authority coexist Encourages racial and ethnic variation

Question 914

Gender

Answer 914

Main components: Identity and Expression One's identity in terms of behaviors, roles, activities in society. One's own choice. Asocial construction theory states that gender is not a fixed or innate fact

Question 915

Fornification

Answer 915

Gender that one is sexually attracted to

Question 916

Gender queer

Answer 916

One who does not identify as either male or female

Question 917

Agender

Answer 917

Rejecting gender categories

Question 918

Gender fluid

Answer 918

Moving across genders

Question 919

Non-binary

Answer 919

Not identifying with any specific gender

Question 920

Third gender

Answer 920

Cultures that recognize non-binary gender

Question 921

Gender Role vs Gender Norm

Answer 921

Role: a set of societal norms dictating what types of behaviors are generally considered appropriate for a person based on their actual/perceived sex Norms: Learned from birth through childhood socialization. Ways that are expected of our gender (ex: girls like pink)

Question 922

Racialization

Answer 922

Racial identity asci=ribed to a minority group

Question 923

Statistical differences between racial ad ethnic group

Answer 923

Racial and ethnic groups have bigger families, less access to healthcare, higher incarceration rates, lower-paying jobs, and high school dropout rates Most differences are due to educational differences

Question 924

Gender Schema Theory

Answer 924

Explains how individuals should be gendered in society, how sex-linked characteristics are maintained and transmitted to other members of a culture. What constitutes male/female characteristics and how stereotypes become ingrained in society. AKA: Cognitions regarding what constitutes a sex identity

Question 925

Gender script

Answer 925

What we expect males and females to do. Organized information regarding the order of actions that are approximate to a familiar situation

Question 926

Demographic requirement of “rural”

Answer 926

Anywhere with less than 1000 people per square mile. Has to have less than 25,000 residents

Question 927

How many people, minimum, in a city? Metropolis? Megalopolis?

Answer 927

City: 50,000 Metropolis: 500,000 Megalopolis: Connection of metrolpolises

Question 928

Cosmopolites

Answer 928

City-dwellers that were drawn to the city due to cultural benefits and convenience. Ex: students, artists, entertainment, intellectuals

Question 929

Urban Decline

Answer 929

People move out of city centers, causing the city to fall into disrepair (abandoned buildings, unemployment and crime rise, population declines

Question 930

Urban renewal

Answer 930

Revamping old parts of cities to become better. But can lead to gentrification (targeted at wealthy)

Question 931

Gentrification

Answer 931

Urban renewal with the purpose of drawing in a wealthier group of people. Makes it so that poorer people can no longer afford to live there and must leave.

Question 932

Rural rebound

Answer 932

People getting sick of cities and moving back out to rural areas (people who can afford to leave the city and and look for simpler/slower life)

Question 933

Ghettoes

Answer 933

Areas where specific racial, ethnic, or religious minorities are concentrated, usually due to social or economic inequality

Question 934

Fecundity

Answer 934

The potential reproductive capacity of a female

Question 935

Population Pyramid

Answer 935

Graphs the age and sex distribution of a population. Males and females on x-axis, increasing age on y-axis

Question 936

Equation for current population

Answer 936

Initial pop + births - deaths + immigrating - emigrating

Question 937

Demographic transition

Answer 937

Models changes in a country's population growth/fall. Population will eventually stop growing when country transitions from high birth/death rates to low birth/death rates. 5 stages

Question 938

Five stages of the Demographic transition model

Answer 938

1. High birth rates due to limited birth control, but also high death rates – Population remains relatively stable 2. Population rises as death rate decreases – Population rises 3. Death rates continue to drop and birth rates begin to fall – Population continues to grow 4. Population stabilizes – both birth and death rates are low and balance each other out 5. Speculation: World population will be forced to stabliize

Question 939

Group Identification

Answer 939

The extent to which one identifies themself as part of a larger collective

Question 940

Social Identity

Answer 940

Describes how one's self-concept is shaped by group membership. Defines individual in relation to society. Defined by society

Question 941

Flashbulb Memory

Answer 941

Memories that are especially vivid, memorable, and more likely to be remembered with greater detail due to strong emotional associations

Question 942

Reproductive Memory

Answer 942

A type of idealized memory where we recall info exactly the way it occurred. This is very unusual because our recall memory of events is often flawed by intrusions (memory is reconstructive)

Question 943

Somatic Symptom Disorder

Answer 943

Psychologically constructed distress/disability symptoms similar to those that may occur with non-mental illnesses. May or may not have a general medical condition at the same time

Question 944

Malthusian Theorem

Answer 944

Suggests that we will run out of resources, there will be a global food shortage. We won't be able to maintain natural resources for everyone on the planet

Question 945

World-Systems Theory

Answer 945

Importance of world as a unit rather than individual countries. Divides world into 3 counties: core, periphery, and semi-periphery

Question 946

Skeptical Perspective (of globalization)

Answer 946

Criticizes globalization, considers it as being regional instead of global. Third world countries are not being integrated into global economy with the same benefits as first world countries. Current economy is not leading towards global capitalism.

Question 947

Transformationalist Perspective

Answer 947

No specific cause or outcome. Believes in the fact that world order is changing, not in one particular way, just that a new order is being developed

Question 948

Social movement

Answer 948

Requires organization, leadership, and resources to gain momentum to make their desired social impact. A small group with an idea is not a social movement

Question 949

Mass Society Theory

Answer 949

Skepticism about groups that were involved in social movements → said social movements would only form for people seeking refuge from main society. People who joined such movements were dysfunctional, irrational, and dangerous. Theory did not persist. Ex: Nazism, Fascism, Stalinism

Question 950

Relative Deprivation Theory

Answer 950

Movements are started by groups that are oppressed/deprived of rights that others in society enjoy. Ex: Civil Rights Movement in US

Question 951

Resource Motivation Theory

Answer 951

Focuses on factors that help/hinder a social movement, like access to resources, money, political influence, media, and strength of organizational base to recruit members

Question 952

Rational Choice Theory

Answer 952

People compare the pros and cons of different courses of action and choose the one they think is best for themselves

Question 953

Definitions of Culture vs. Society

Answer 953

Culture = Rules that guide the way people live Society = Structure that provides organization for people Society requires ideas from human ideas from culture in order to work

Question 954

High culture

Answer 954

Patterns of experiences and attitudes that exist in the highest class segments of a society. Tends to be associated with wealth and formality

Question 955

Normative culture

Answer 955

Refers to values and behaviors that are in line with larger societal norms (like avoidance of crime)

Question 956

Sub-culture vs micro-culture

Answer 956

Sub-cultures are smaller than a nation but are large enough the support people throughout their entire lifespan. In contrast, micro-cultures cannot support people throughout their entire lifespan (these are groups/organizations that affect a limited portion of one's life, e.g. Girl Scouts)

Question 957

Counterculture

Answer 957

Form of sub-culture that rejects some of the larger culture's norms and value, usually develop and live by their own set of norms

Question 958

Mass Media

Answer 958

Dissemination of info and how info is transmitted within a culture. Includes print media and digital media.

Question 959

Tokenism

Answer 959

The practice of completing an act (like hiring someone who belongs to a minority group) only to prevent criticism and give the appearance that people are being treated fairly

Question 960

Cultural Universals

Answer 960

All cultures have ways of dealing with specific events like illness, medicine, healing, weddings, funerals, languages

Question 961

Glass ceiling effect

Answer 961

Females being poorly represented in higher positions in companies

Question 962

Meritocracy

Answer 962

Concept that people achieve social position solely based on ability and achievements. Highly idealized. Extreme social mobility. Equal opportunity

Question 963

Absolute Poverty

Answer 963

An absolute level below which one's survival is threatened. Minimum level of resources a human being needs to survive. Applies to all humans in all countries. Approx $1-2 per day

Question 964

Relative Poverty

Answer 964

Developed countries' poverty line. A percent level below the median income of the country. Ex: in the US, approx $80 per day

Question 965

Social Reproduction

Answer 965

Offspring winding up in the same social class/SES as their parents

Question 966

Environmental Justice

Answer 966

Looks at the fair distribution of the environmental benefits and burden within society across all groups

Question 967

Forms of Segregation

Answer 967

Residential, concentration, centralization

Question 968

Index of disimilarity

Answer 968

Measurement of segregation. 0 = total segregation 100 = perfect distribution

Question 969

Spatial Mismatch

Answer 969

Opportunities for low-income people in segregated communities may be present but farther away and harder to access. There is a clear gap between where people live and where opportunities are

Question 970

Class consciousness

Answer 970

Workers can develop class consciousness and realize they have solidarity with one another and struggle to overcome this oppression and exploitation

Question 971

Poverty Magnet

Answer 971

Can drag people away from the core part of society, and experience a greater degree of social exclusion

Question 972

Ill health magnet

Answer 972

Drags people away from core society so that they cannot participate is society

Question 973

Discrimination magnet

Answer 973

Factor of social exclusion that involves discrimination based on a group/person's race/gender/sexual orientation etc.

Question 974

Social isolation

Answer 974

Community voluntarily isolates itself from mainstream based on their own religious/cultural/other beliefs

Question 975

Three by Tow factorial design study

Answer 975

Study in which we have three levels of the first variable crossed with two levels of the second variable. There are 6 total treatment conditions in the experiment

Question 976

validity

Answer 976

Extend to which causal conclusion based on a study is warrantd. Confounding factors often impact the internal validity of an experiment

Question 977

External validity

Answer 977

Whether results of the study can be **generalized** to other situations and other people. For best external validity, sample must be completely random and all situational variables must be tightly controlled

Question 978

Population validity

Answer 978

Type of external validity which describes how well the sample used can be extrapolated to a population as a whole. Generalizability.

Question 979

Ecological validity

Answer 979

Ecological validity is a type of external validity which looks at the testing environment and determines how much it influences behavior

Question 980

Concurrent validity

Answer 980

Measures the test against a benchmark test, and a high correlation indicates that the test has a strong criterion validity

Question 981

Predictive Validity

Answer 981

Measure of how well a test predicts abilities. Involves testing a group of subjects for a certain construct and them comparing them with results obtained at some point in the future

Question 982

Criterion Validity

Answer 982

Assesses whether a test reflects a certain set of abilities. “IS the test valid” - Refers to whether a variable is able to predict a certain outcome

Question 983

Construct Validity

Answer 983

Describes the extent to which the theory is supported by the data or results of the research. “Does the test have results that are supported by what is expected?” How the terms are defined

Question 984

Convergent validity

Answer 984

Tests whether constructs that are expected to be related are, in fact related

Question 985

Discriminant validity

Answer 985

Tests whether constructs that should have no relationship do, in fact, not have any relationship

Question 986

Content validity

Answer 986

The extent that the test measures the construct accurately. The estimate of how much a measure represents every single element of a construct. Content validity measures the entire construct fully. “Does the test measure what its supposed to?”

Question 987

Face validity

Answer 987

Measure of how representative a research project is ‘at face value’ The degree to which a lay person who takes a cursory look at an experiment agrees than an experimenter is measuring what they say they intend to

Question 988

Confounding variables

Answer 988

Changes in dependent variable may be due to existence of or variations in a third variable

Question 989

Temporal confounds

Answer 989

Time related confounding variables

Question 990

Vehicular control

Answer 990

What experimental group does without the directly desired impact

Question 991

Type I Error

Answer 991

False positive

Question 992

Type II error

Answer 992

False negative

Question 993

Bias

Answer 993

Failure to be objective

Question 994

Normalcy Bias

Answer 994

Causes people to underestimate both the possibility of a disaster occurring and its possible effects

Question 995

Reconstructive Bias

Answer 995

Related to memory and how our memories are really not as accurate as we may think, especially when we are remembering times of high stress

Question 996

Attrition bias

Answer 996

When participants drop out of a long-term experiment or study

Question 997

Selection bias

Answer 997

Related to how people are chose to participate in a study

Question 998

Subjective bias

Answer 998

Self-reported info is always vulnerable to subjective bias

Question 999

Implicit bias

Answer 999

Refers to the attitudes or stereotypes that affect an individual's understanding, actions, and decisions in an unconscious manner

Question 1000

Cognitive Bias

Answer 1000

Tendency to think in certain ways. Often cause deviations from a standard of rationality or good judgment

Question 1001

Operationalization

Answer 1001

The process of strictly defining variables into measurable factors. The process defines fuzzy concepts and allows them to be measured, empirically and quantitatively. Allows for the establishment of a causal relationship between variables. You want to manipulate the variable at varying levels for this to occur

Question 1002

Embedded field study

Answer 1002

When researchers pose as participants

Question 1003

Sampling bias

Answer 1003

In statistics, a bias in which a sample is collected in such a way that some members of the intended population are less likely to be included than others. It results in a biased sample

Question 1004

Antecedent Predisposition

Answer 1004

A stimulus that cues an organism to perform a learned behavior

Question 1005

Prosopagnosia

Answer 1005

Neurological disorder characterized by the inability to recognize familiar people's faces

Question 1006

Neuroleptics

Answer 1006

Drugs that decrease positive symptoms of schizophrenia but an increase negative symptoms

Question 1007

Incongruence (Rogers)

Answer 1007

The gap between the ideal self and the actual self. Can cause unpleasant feelings, feelings of discomfort