psych-soc Flashcards
(618 cards)
1
Q
What is availability heuristic?
A
Describes an individual using information that is more readily available than other information to form their opinions
2
Q
What does the instinct theory of motivation posit?
A
All humans have the same motivations due to our similar biological programming
3
Q
The motivations stated by the instinct theory of motivation are _________, _________, _________, ________, _________, _________, and _________.
A
generally unlearned; uniform in expression; universal in the species; unmodifiable; irresistible; automatic; and do not require training.
4
Q
Valence refers to what?
A
The value that a person sets on the reinforcements or rewards
5
Q
The value that a person sets on the reinforcements or rewards are usually based on _______, _______, _______, and _______.
A
an individual’s values; needs; goals; intrinsic or extrinsic sources of motivation
6
Q
Instrumentality refers to what?
A
The notion that a person will get a reward upon the successful completion of the expected performance.
7
Q
Motivational force refers to what?
A
The product of the other three Expectancy theory variables; expectancy, valence and instrumentality.
8
Q
Self efficacy refers to what?
A
An individual’s belief regarding his own ability to perform a specific behavior.
9
Q
What does the opponent-process theory of motivation state?
A
At least some processes (actions) promote opposite physiological responses
10
Q
Provide an example of the opponent-process theory of motivation being applied
A
A drug user may consume a stimulant, which speeds up his heart rate and keeps him awake. In response, his body will attempt to slow down his heart rate and promote sedative processes. Over time, this opponent process becomes stronger, causing the individual to need to consume more of the drug to counter its effects.
11
Q
What are the three primary components of an attitude?
A
the affective component, the behavioral component, and the cognitive component (think ABC)
12
Q
According to Erikson’s stages of development, the conflict of initiative vs. guilt is associated with which age range?
A
3-6 years
13
Q
The Freudian defense mechanism of displacement involves what?
A
taking stress out on someone else
14
Q
The Freudian defense mechanism of regression involves what?
A
returning to an earlier developmental stage
15
Q
The Freudian defense mechanism of reaction formation involves what?
A
turning an unacceptable desire into its opposite.
16
Q
The Freudian defense mechanism of projection involves what?
A
placing one’s own uncomfortable feelings onto other people
17
Q
What is a hidden curriculum (any lessons learned but not openly intended to be taught)?
A
a side effect of education
18
Q
What are 3 examples of a hidden curriculum?
A
cultural norms, values, and beliefs that teachers may convey in the classroom and the surrounding social environment
19
Q
Social exchange theory posits what?
A
human relationships are formed by the use of a subjective cost-benefit analysis and the comparison of alternatives
20
Q
What is the rational choice theory?
A
principle which states that individuals always make logical decisions that provide people with the greatest benefit or satisfaction
21
Q
Conflict theory posits what?
A
tensions and conflicts arise when resources, status, or power are unequally distributed between groups in society and that these conflicts become the engine for social change
22
Q
What is social constructionism?
A
society is viewed as both a subjective and an objective reality with assumptions people share about the world
23
Q
What is conflict theory?
A
based on the premise that all members of society must compete for limited resources
24
Q
What does the conflict theory suggest?
A
institutions, including mass media, are put in place to perpetuate inequality between those who control the means of production and those who serve as laborers
25
What is the sick role?
Individuals who are sick make a genuine effort to recover in order to ultimately resume their previous role in society
26
Role strain occurs when
an individual feels conflict between different requirements of one role
27
What is role conflict?
refers to a clash between two separate roles
28
What are the 6 characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy?
a hierarchy of authority, promotion based on achievement, specialized division of labor, impersonality, written rules of conduct, and efficiency
29
What is a utilitarian organization?
one that pays its members, typically a business or corporation
30
What is a normative organization?
composed of volunteers who share a moral purpose or goal
31
What is a coercive organization?
formed of members who are forced to join
32
What are ascribed statuses?
conferred by society, often irrespective of the efforts or actions of the individual
33
What are achieved statuses?
earned by individuals based on merit and actions
34
What is a confounding variable?
in an experiment, a variable, other than the independent variable, that could influence the dependent variable
35
What is stigma?
the societal disapproval and judgment of a person or group of people because they do not fit their community's social norms
36
What is deindividuation?
a situation where individuals experience a loss of restraint and individual identity that is replaced with mob mentality
37
What does social constructionism propose?
everything people know as reality is partially, if not entirely, socially situated
38
What happens during the second stage of the demographic transition?
medical advancements are made and sanitation improves causing death (or mortality) rates to decrease and birth (or fertility) rates to remain high
39
What is cultural diffusion?
the transfer of cultural elements from one group to another
40
What is a population pyramid?
a pyramid in which younger age groups are shown on the bottom of the pyramid, while older segments of the population are shown nearer the top
41
What does a bottom-heavy population pyramid describe?
describes a society in which younger individuals predominate in the population implying that the fertility (birth) rate is greater than the mortality (death) rate
42
What is the total fertility rate?
the number of births that the average woman in the population will have over her lifetime
43
What is the crude birth rate?
the number of births per 1,000 individuals in the population over a given time period, typically a year
44
Serotonin can regulate _____, ____ disorders, and ________ disorders
sleep; mood; appetite
45
What is an informal norm?
a rule that is not written down
46
What is a formal norm?
a rule that a government puts in place for people to adhere
47
What is a more?
a subset of informal norms that refer to relatively important norms
48
What are 3 definitional features of antisocial personality disorder?
a lack of empathy, remorse, and regard for others
49
The side effects of agitation, irritability, hallucinations, and aggressive behavior are normally found in what class of drugs?
stimulants
50
What is one important example of stimulants?
methamphetamine
51
What are negative symptoms?
symptoms that reflect a lack or absence of one’s baseline experience
52
What are positive symptoms?
Symptoms that reflect the addition of something extra onto one’s baseline experiences
53
Schizophrenia is thought to involve [abnormal or inadequate] activation of dopaminergic pathways
abnormal
54
Parkinson’s disease is caused by [abnormal or inadequate] dopaminergic activity
inadequate
55
What molecules inhibit the transport of synaptic serotonin back into the presynaptic neuron allowing it to remain in the synaptic cleft for an extended period of time?
SSRIs
56
What are somatic disorders?
psychological disorders characterized by physical symptoms that cause significant stress to the patient
57
Conversion disorder is an example of what kind of disorder?
Somatic disorder
58
Antisocial personality disorder refers to what?
a pervasive pattern of disregarding the rights of others, often manifesting in violence and a sense of remorse
59
What are delusions?
immutable convictions held by people despite clear evidence that disproves these convictions
60
What is an exception to the definition of delusions?
religious or cultural beliefs
61
The brain areas that process linguistic information (both production and comprehension) are lateralized in what hemisphere?
left hemisphere
62
What is the shadowing task?
the inputs to which subjects must attend
63
Based on the standardization system used to score IQ, the Wechsler Scales of Intelligence (WISC) scores are “normalized” to a mean of ___ and a standard deviation of __
100; 15
64
What is the primary function of the hypothalamus?
to maintain homeostatic equilibrium
65
What are the two major symptoms for one to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder?
depressed mood (sadness) or lack of pleasure (anhedonia)
66
What does Brofenbenner's model state?
systems are related and an issue at a community level can impact individuals
67
What does the Cannon-Bard theory posit?
the physiological arousal associated with emotion and subjective feeling of emotion itself arise from separate and independent areas of brain
68
What does the Schacter-Singer theory posit?
the emotion is the result of the brain assessing the context of the physiological arousal experienced in the body
69
What does the James-Lange theory posit?
the emotion follows from and is directly caused by the physiological arousal experienced
70
What is confirmation bias?
refers to the tendency to look for information that supports rather than rejects one's hypothesis
71
What age range corresponds to the preoperational stage of Piaget's stages?
2-7 year olds
72
What age range corresponds to the concrete operational stage of Piaget's stages?
7-12 year olds
73
What age range corresponds to the formal operational stage of Piaget's stages?
12-adulthood
74
At what stage of Piaget's stages are children able to understand the perspectives of others?
formal operational stage
75
Social science protocols require what?
self-reporting
76
What is projection?
a defense mechanism in which a threatening urge or quality is ascribed to others rather than to oneself
77
What is the drive-reduction theory?
humans are motivated to satisfy physiological needs in order to maintain homeostasis
78
Cognitive theories focus on what?
the thoughts that are associated with given phenomena
79
Cognitive theories of motivation focus on what?
how a person's thoughts affect their motivation to carry out certain tasks
80
What is REM rebound?
the increase in frequency and depth of REM stage sleep after sleep deprivation
81
What is anticipatory socialization?
the process by which individuals prepare themselves for their future roles by learning the values and standards of their new group
82
What is secondary socialization?
the process by which further socialization occurs from groups outside the family, such as the community or school
83
What is resocialization?
a deliberate process by which an individual learns new social behaviors and norms
84
What is primary socialization?
the process by which children learn behavioral patterns from the family that are appropriate in the larger society
85
In Stage 1 sleep, an EEG shows what?
alpha waves and the start of theta wave activity
86
In Stage 2 sleep, what appears on an EEG?
theta waves continue to appear on an EEG, but are now interspersed with K-complexes, single high-amplitude, low-frequency theta waves, and sleep spindles
87
In Stage 3 sleep, an EEG shows what?
delta waves
88
During REM sleep, the EEG pattern shows what?
beta waves, similar to the pattern seen during wakefulness
89
Slow-wave sleep, also known as deep sleep, contains what?
non-REM sleep
90
How can the correct response be unambiguously made to a test subject?
shaping procedure
91
What is instinctual drift?
the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors
92
The capacity for ___________ ________ __________ is unaffected by aging
retrieving general information
93
The capacity for ___________ ________ __________ is unaffected by aging
retrieving general information
94
Episodic information consists of what?
the declarative information people have of specific experiences
95
Music is an important part of _______ ________
popular culture
96
Agents of socialization refer to what?
parts of society that are important for socialization
97
What is socialization?
the process of learning the norms and values in a society
98
What is cultural transmission?
culture is passed along from generation to generation through various childrearing practices
99
What is proximal stimulus?
the stimulus registered by the sensory receptors
100
What is Gestalt psychology?
the theoretical approach that emphasized the idea that the ways in which people’s perceptual experience is organized result from how human brains are organized
101
Psychophysical testing methods directly assess what?
our perception of stimuli in relation to their true physical properties
102
According to Kohlberg’s theory, promoting social welfare indicates what?
moral reasoning at the postconventional level
103
Depriving the subject of some undesirable stimulus item for a period of time is usually used, in operant conditioning studies, for what purpose?
to operationally define the subject’s motivational state
104
Monozygotic twins are [identical or fraternal] twins & that dizygotic twins are [identical or fraternal] twins
identical; fraternal
105
Sensitive period identifies what?
a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life
106
The incentive theory of motivation calls attention to what?
how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior
107
Social epidemiology focuses on what?
the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease patterns in populations
108
Cultural capital refers to what?
knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics used to make social distinctions and associated with differences in social status
109
Social cognitive theory suggests that...
behaviors are learned through observing others and modeling their actions
110
Intersectionality calls attention to what?
how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification
111
An individual’s position within a social hierarchy being determined not only by his or her social class, but also by his or her race/ethnicity is an example of _______________
intersectionality
112
Intersectionality can also refer to what?
intersections involving other identity categories such as age, gender, or sexual orientation
113
What is an fMRI?
an imaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting associated changes in blood flow
114
Stage 2 of sleep is characterized by what?
sleep spindles
115
Children in Piaget’s preoperational stage are typically between the ages of what?
2-6 or 7
116
True or False: The cerebellum is a primary structure of the reward system
False, the cerebellum is not a primary structure of the reward system
117
From an evolutionary standpoint, why have humans developed a preference for high caloric foods?
they are a good source of fuel in the form of fat
118
Name the part of the retina that contains a high density of cones for daytime vision
fovea
119
Name of the retina that contains a high density of rods
periphery
120
What is counterbalancing?
a method to control for any effect that the order of presenting stimuli might have on the dependent variable
121
What is emotional flattening with regards to schizophrenia?
a negative symptom of schizophrenia
122
What are negative symptoms defined as?
the absence of appropriate behaviors and emotion
123
Negative priming requires the use of what type of memory?
implicit memory
124
What are neuroleptics?
the first antipsychotic drugs used to treat schizophrenia and are effective in treating positive symptoms
125
The side effects of neuroleptics include __________ ________, which can exacerbate [positive or negative] symptoms
cognitive dulling; negative
126
What is fluid intelligence?
the ability to think on one’s feet, be adaptable, and solve problems using deductive and inductive reasoning
127
Both schizophrenia and Alzheimer’s disease are characterized by what?
cognitive dysfunction
128
Personality traits like neuroticism [do or do not] predict interpersonal attraction
do not
129
___ _______ occurs after being REM-deprived the night before
REM rebound
130
What is the name of the brain structure that controls the pituitary gland, initiating the stress response?
the hypothalamus
131
What is dichotic listening?
the presentation of two different auditory messages, one to each ear
132
Social construction of race refers to what?
the idea that there is little biological basis for race (or ethnicity)
133
NMDA receptors are a subtype of _________ receptor
glutamate
134
The pheromone is detected by what type of neurons?
chemosensory neurons
135
Self-verification refers to what?
the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept
136
The Five Factor model features what five traits?
extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism and openness to experience
137
Serotonin is involved in the regulation of both ____ (specifically, aggression) and ________ (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements)
mood; appetite
138
Role strain refers to what?
stress from different expectations associated with a single role
139
Symbolic interactionism is most directly related to what?
studying social practices and rituals
140
Fundamental attribution error refers to what?
an observer’s bias in favor of internal attributions in explaining another person’s behavior
141
What are latent functions?
aspects of a social institution that may serve an unacknowledged purpose
142
What is sensory interaction?
the idea that one sensory modality (e.g., vision) may influence another (e.g., balance)
143
When does closure, one of the Gestalt principle of perceptual grouping, occur?
when people perceive objects that are incomplete as complete
144
The need for reassurance is an individual characteristic that leads to what?
isolation
145
What is signal detection theory?
the detection of a stimulus is not only dependent on its strength, but also on the psychological state of the individual
146
What happens when an individual has a severed corpus callosum?
images projected to a visual field are represented in the opposite hemisphere of the brain
147
How do people behave when they experience cognitive dissonance?
they tend to change their attitudes to match their behaviors, rather than change their behavior
148
What are the characteristics of a child during Piaget’s sensorimotor stage?
a child is incapable of abstract thought
149
What are the characteristics of a child during Piaget’s preoperational stage?
children are imaginative and unable to reconcile errors in their thinking such as errors in a conservation task
150
What is altruism?
doing something for others without the expectation of receiving anything in return
151
When is group affiliation likely to be greatest?
when the members or participants in the group share similar outlooks, knowledge, preferences, skills, and other aspects of cultural capital
152
The distress criterion takes into account of what?
whether the behavior demonstrates unusual or prolonged levels of stress
153
The maladaptiveness criterion takes into account of what?
whether the behavior negatively impacts the person’s life or poses a threat to others
154
The statistical deviancy criterion takes into account of what?
whether the behavior is statistically rare
155
The violation of social norms criterion takes into account of what?
whether the behavior violates social norms
156
Adolescents struggle with ________ _____ ____ _________ according to Erikson’s theory
identity versus role confusion
157
Young adults struggle with ________ _____ _________ according to Erikson’s theory
intimacy versus isolation
158
A middle-aged person struggles with ____________ _____ __________ according to Erikson’s theory
generativity versus stagnation
159
An elderly person struggles with _________ _____ _______ according to Erikson’s theory
integrity versus despair
160
Gender socialization refers to what?
the learning of norms and values associated with masculinity or femininity
161
Gender norms related to masculinity include what?
the encouragement of high-risk behaviors
162
An attitude is comprised of what three components?
cognitive, affective, and behavioral
163
The behavioral component of an attitude consists of what?
the typical responses made when the individual is in the presence of the attitude object
164
The cognitive component of an attitude consists of what?
an individual’s beliefs about the attitude object
165
The affective component of an attitude consists of what?
the emotional experience evoked by the attitude object
166
What is a longitudinal study?
one that permits comparison of identical measures (including with the same group of participants) at two or more points in time
167
How is implicit memory tested?
by observing a participant’s performance on a task that does not involve any type of recall or recognition (i.e., on an indirect memory task)
168
Retrieving autobiographical information is an important type of what memory?
episodic memory
169
Semantic memory refers to what?
the processing of general world knowledge
170
Procedural memory is a form of what type of memory?
implicit memory
171
Alcohol dependence is most strongly indicated by what?
withdrawal symptoms
172
True or False: Impulsivity is one of the factors identified in Cattell’s Five Factor (the BIG Five) theory
False
173
True or False: Agreeableness is one of the personality traits identified in Cattell’s Five Factor (BIG Five) theory
True
174
What is overextension?
applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance
175
What is bootstrapping?
refers to the initial stage(s) of grammatical (i.e., syntactic) development
176
Shaping involves what?
successive approximations of a behavior and is utilized to establish a novel behavior
177
Using the distance from the object of focus as a depth cue is associated with what?
retinal disparity
178
Retinal disparity is a [monocular or binocular] depth cue
binocular
179
Healthcare utilization and health-seeking behaviors are likely to be affected whenever a disease or disorder is ___________
stigmatized
180
Dementia is an ________ condition, and [is or is not] an inevitable result of normal aging
abnormal; is not
181
What is medicalization?
the process in which a social problem comes to be defined as a disease or disorder
182
What is tolerance?
a need to increase dosage to obtain the desired previous effect
183
Disinhibition is associated with what and often leads to what?
binge drinking; risk taking
184
Availability heuristic has to do with what?
schemas and memory
185
The bystander effect has to do with what?
intervening in social situations
186
Collective efficacy assessed what?
respondents’ perceptions that members of their community would help one another out
187
Self-efficacy refers to what?
a person’s belief in his or her ability to accomplish tasks
188
The concept of assimilation proposes what?
that an immigrant group will eventually adopt the customs (norms, values, etc.) of the majority group in a society
189
Auditory hair cells are classified under what type of receptors?
mechanoreceptors
190
What is spreading activation?
the representation of presented words to semantically related words
191
Depth of processing is generally used to explain what?
superior episodic memory with increasing depth of the encoding task
192
Social reproduction refers to what?
the perpetuation of inequalities through social institutions (like educational systems or the economy)
193
Institutional discrimination refers to what?
differential treatment of sociodemographic groups that is due to institutional culture or policies (rather than individual actions)
194
Social stratification refers to what?
the objective social hierarchy in a society (according to social group characteristics)
195
What is confirmation bias?
the tendency to favor information that confirms existing beliefs, both in the search for evidence and in the interpretation of evidence
196
Is parental concealment a social interaction factor or a cognitive processing factor?
a social interaction factor
197
According to sociology, what is an organization?
a (relatively) formal group with an identifiable membership that engages in concerted action to achieve a common purpose
198
Bodily postures, movements, and gestures are ________ _______ and ___________ ________
socially learned; culturally variable
199
The physical response to the original traumatic event was the _____________ ________
unconditioned response
200
What is the Gestalt grouping principle of proximity?
when characters are seen as interlinked due to their spatial contiguity with one another
201
What is the Gestalt grouping principle of continuity?
some portion of a visual stimulus is occluded and the unseen portion is inferred as continuous with the visible portion
202
The Gestalt grouping principle of common fate refers to what?
the observation that elements that are moving together tend to be perceived as a unified group
203
In which cerebral hemisphere are linguistic abilities lateralized?
left hemisphere
204
Institutional discrimination is a relevant factor under what circumstances?
when procedure utilization differs by race
205
What is psychological repression?
the process of suppressing a thought or desire in oneself so that it remains mostly unconscious
206
What is sublimation?
a type of defense mechanism where socially unacceptable behaviors are unconsciously transformed into acceptable ones
207
The inferiority complex is associated with the theory of whom?
Alfred Adler
208
What is the putamen?
a large structure located within the corpus striatum
209
The putamen is involved in what?
a complex feedback loop that prepares and aids in limb movements
210
What does the James-Lange theory state?
we experience emotions as a result of our physiological response to events
211
What dos the Cannon-Bard theory posit?
we feel emotions and experience physiological symptoms simultaneously
212
What does the Schacter-Singer theory state?
models emotion first as a physiological response followed by an interpretation of that response to context
213
There are how many amygdalae per person normally?
two, with one amygdala on each side of the brain
214
The amygdala are located within what specific lobes?
the temporal lobes
215
What does the James-Lange theory state?
specific emotions are elicited by stimuli that produce specific physiological reactions, which are transmitted as sensory information to the brain via the spinal cord
216
An antiemetic that prevents a recurrence of N/V is [inhibiting an undesirable stimulus or adding a desirable stimulus]
inhibiting an undesirable stimulus
217
What is a conditioned taste aversion?
a specific and powerful type of classical conditioning that occurs when an organism becomes ill after consuming something
218
When does extinction occur?
when a conditioned response gradually stops occurring in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus
219
Acquisition refers to what?
the learning that takes place as an association is formed between the unconditioned stimulus and the neutral stimulus
220
When does stimulus generalization occur?
when the conditioned response is elicited by stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus
221
When does spontaneous recovery occur?
when an extinct response reappears after a period of time
222
What is secularization?
reduced power of religion as religion involvement declines
223
Religiosity refers to what?
the extent to which a religious doctrine is internalized and incorporated into an individual's life
224
What are manifest functions?
intended, obvious purposes of a social structure
225
What are latent functions?
unintended results of a social structure
226
What dos the signal detection theory quantify?
how judgements or decisions are made under uncertain conditions amid noise
227
What is an instinct?
an innate, fixed pattern of behavior that is complex
228
What does an instinctive drift describe?
an animal's innate behaviors overshadowing a learned behavior
229
Comorbidity refers to what?
the simultaneous presentation of two or more psychological disorders
230
What is the alternative hypothesis?
based on prior evidence and assumes that a significant relationship or difference exists between variables
231
What does the null hypothesis state?
there is no significant difference or relationship between the variables measured
232
What is the age range corresponding to Erikson's generativity vs. stagnation?
middle adulthood, or 40-65.
233
Erikson's generativity vs. stagnation is marked by what?
feelings of productivity for individuals who have made successful contributions to society and feelings of stagnation for those who have not
234
When does role conflict occur?
when expectations for two or more roles simultaneously held by an individual are in competition, producing tension
235
When does role strain occur?
when a single role involves multiple competing expectations that produce tension
236
Humanistic psychology emphasizes what?
the higher aspects of human nature, including the drive toward self-actualization and personal growth
237
What does the appraisal theory state?
one's appraisal of a stimulus determines one's emotional response
238
In a primary appraisal, an individual classifies a stimulus as what?
an individual classifies a stimulus as threatening, positive, or irrelevant
239
Under what circumstances does a secondary appraisal take place?
in which the individual evaluates whether their resources/abilities are sufficient to cope with the stressor
240
What is social capital?
the value embedded in social networks, the ability to call in favors, and the ability to rely on others for support in difficult circumstances
241
What is negative reinforcement?
removes an unpleasant factor that was previously present to encourage a behavior to be repeated
242
What is positive punishment?
adds an unpleasant consequence that was not previously present to discourage a behavior from being repeated
243
What is sexual dysfunction?
difficulty experienced by an individual or a couple during any stage of sexual activity
244
What is gender dysphoria?
the feeling of stress or discomfort in which one's sense of one's gender does not align with the gender assigned at birth
245
What is a racial barrier item?
assesses racial adversity in society
246
What is racial centrality?
the extent to which one's race is an important part of the person's overall self-concept
247
What is an independent samples t-test used for?
to compare mean values of two unrelated groups
248
What is regression used for?
to predict scores from independent variables
249
What does Chomsky's view state?
individuals have an innate language acquisition capacity
250
Vgotsky's social learning theory heavily stresses the role of what?
people and interactions in the acquisition of cognitive skills such as language, which would involve mirror neurons
251
The postconventional stage in Kohlberg's stages of moral development is characterized by what?
concern for mortality and the good of society rather than social rules and laws
252
The preconventional stage in Kohlberg's stages of moral development is characterized by what?
more concern for rewards and punishments than social rules and laws
253
What is absolute poverty?
an income cutoff
254
Stage 3 is referred to as what?
Delta sleep because of the delta waves that occur during this stage and typically lasts for about 30 minutes
255
What happens during REM sleep?
breathing becomes more rapid, irregular and shallow; eyes jerk rapidly, and limb muscles are temporarily paralyzed
256
What are the universal emotions?
anger, disgust, fear, surprise, happiness, sadness, and contempt
257
What is a moderating variable?
one that changes the relationship between two variables
258
What is a mediating variable?
one that explains the relationship between two other variables
259
What is an ingroup?
a group for which a person has personal pride in and affinity
260
An outgroup is regarded to be what?
socially undesirable
261
When does a stereotype occur?
when an individual's behavior changes based on perceived negative stereotypes about himself or herself
262
When does cognitive dissonance happen?
when a person's beliefs and reality do not match
263
What is affect heuristic?
the process of making a judgement based on emotions that are evoked
264
What does the context effort refer to?
the influence of environmental characteristics of a person's perception of a stimulus
265
What is a false alarm?
when the participant incorrectly responded positively when the stimulus was not present
266
A miss implies what?
that the stimulus was indeed present on the list but the participant did not recognize it
267
Signal detection theory focuses on what?
the mechanisms by which individuals detect certain stimuli over others
268
The humanistic perspective is centered on what?
the use of free will and achieving self-fulfillment
269
The social cognitive perspective emphasizes the role of what?
both thinking and social learning in personality development
270
The behavioral perspective is related to what?
external stimuli and their effects on observable behaviors
271
Sexual dimorphism refers to what?
the degree to which males and females resemble each other
272
A species with low sexual dimorphism contains what?
males and females that look mostly identical
273
High sexual dimorphism signals what?
intense competition for mates
274
Informative pressure is a subtype of __________ ________
conformity pressure
275
When does informative pressure occur?
when an individual conforms his or her behavior to match that of the rest of the group out of the belief that the group is better informed and knows more than the individual
276
The limbic system plays a key role in what?
human emotion
277
True or False: Feminism is not focused on the influence of systems on individuals
False, feminism is very focused on the influence of systems on individuals
278
What is a subculture?
a group of individuals who are characteristically distinct from the dominant culture, but whose values and norms still generally align with the dominant culture
279
What does the James-Lange theory state?
specific emotions are elicited by stimuli that produce specific physiological reactions
280
As a component of the central nervous system, the spinal cord contains what?
gray matter surrounded by white matter
281
Why are individuals with cervical spinal injury unable to experience emotion?
because sensory information from the body cannot reach the brain
282
What does the Cannon-Bard theory state?
physiological arousal and emotion are independent processes that occur simultaneously
283
What is secularization?
reduced power of religion as religious involvement declines
284
Religiosity refers to what?
the extent to which a religious doctrine is internalized and incorporated into an individual's life
285
Religious affiliation describes what?
the specific religious group to which an individual identifies
286
What is structural functionalism?
a macro-sociological perspective that compares modern society to a biological organism
287
From the structural functionalist perspective, manifest functions are _______
expected
288
From the structural functionalist perspective, latent functions are __________
unintended
289
Division of labor refers to what?
the specialization of tasks in society that are interdependent
290
What is the advantage of division of labor?
when labor is divided among multiple individuals who each perform one task to accomplish the end product, each individual can specialize, which increases efficiency and quantity while reducing costs
291
What is the disadvantage of division of labor?
it can result in the exploitation of labor, reduced quality, and workers becoming bored with monotonous tasks
292
What does the Malthusian theory of population growth suggest?
that human populations increase exponentially but the resources needed to sustain these populations increase much more slowly
293
Intersectionality describes what?
the multiple, interconnected social identities that intersect to impact individuals' lives, perspectives, and treatment in society
294
What are sensory receptors?
specialized neurons that detect stimuli in the internal or external environment and transmit this information to the brain for interpretation and perception
295
Mechanoreceptors are sensitive to what?
mechanical stimulation caused by pressure, vibration, or movement
296
Hair cells are a type of _______________ in the ear
mechanoreceptor
297
Hair cells depolarize in response to what?
mechanical stimulation caused by vibration of this fluid
298
Chemoreceptors play a key role in what?
taste, smell, and senses
299
Behaviors that are learned result from what?
observation and experience
300
Bottom-up processing starts with what?
the sensory input and builds up to a final perception in the brain
301
Top-down processing involves what?
prior knowledge and expectations influencing perception
302
Place theory explains what?
the perception of sound pitch
303
What is the occipital lobe responsible for?
processing visual information from the eyes including color, shape, and motion
304
What is the frontal lobe is responsible for?
initiating movement and higher-level cognitive processes
305
What are mirror neurons?
a type of neuron that fires when an individual both observes and performs a behavior
306
When do vicarious emotions occur?
when an observer intuits the feelings that another might be experiencing
307
Feminist theory attempts to explain what?
differences in power between men and women in society, or gender inequality
308
At the macro level, feminist theory considers what?
how social structures maintain gender inequality
309
At the micro level, feminist theory considers what?
how one-on-one interactions maintain gender inequality by objectifying or devaluing women
310
What is structural functionalism?
a macro-level perspective positing that social structures serve the function in society of maintaining balance or equilibrium
311
What theory would suggest that differences in the emotional expression of men and women maintain equilibrium in society?
structural functionalism
312
What is globalization?
the process by which tangibles and spread across the world, primarily as a result of advances in technology and communication
313
What is world systems theory?
an economic theory of globalization that views the world as a global economy where some countries benefit at the expense of others
314
What are core nations?
wealthy nations with strong, diversified economies and centralized governments
315
What are periphery nations?
poor nations and have weak governments and economies
316
What are semi-periphery nations?
between core and periphery nations, with economies that are relatively more diversified than those of periphery nations
317
McDonaldization describes what?
the process by which extreme efficiency and rationalization produce negative consequences
318
What is ascribed status?
a position in society based on a social construct such as age, gender, or race/ethnicity
319
What is the self-serving bias?
a common type of attributional bias in which an individual attributes success to internal factors but blames failure on external factors
320
What is confirmation bias?
a common cognitive bias that occurs when we tend to favor information confirming beliefs and ignore, disregard, or refute information contradicting those beliefs
321
In scientific research, to operationalize a variable means what?
that a variable that is not directly measurable is defined in such a way that it can be measured for the purposes of testing/assessment
322
Rational choice theory states what?
people are rational decision makers who behave in ways that maximize gain and minimize loss
323
Social exchange theory suggests what?
that individual interactions are based on decisions regarding the costs and benefits accrued to each person in the membership
324
Attribution theory suggests what?
that individual tend to explain behavior as resulting from internal or external causes
325
Internal (dispositional) attributions ascribe behavior to what?
personal factors such as personality, ability, or attitude
326
External (situational) attributions ascribe behavior to what?
environmental factors such as task difficulty, presence of others, or luck
327
Social mobility refers to what?
the movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society
328
What are attributional biases?
cognitive biases that occur when people attempt to explain their own behavior or the behavior of someone else
329
What is the actor-observer bias?
an attributional bias that describes the tendency to attribute one's own actions to external factors but the actions of others to internal factors
330
What is the dependency ratio?
the proportion of unproductive to productive members in a society
331
How can the dependency ratio be calculated?
by adding the number of people below age 15 and above age 64 and dividing that sum by the number of people age 15-64 multiplied by 100
332
How are expanding pyramids characterized?
have broad bases (lots of younger people) and narrow tops (few older people) and are characteristic of developing countries in the early stages of demographic transition, with high birth/death rates and increasing population sizes
333
How are stationary pyramids characterized?
have broad bases and tops and are characteristic of developed countries in the later stages of demographic transition, with low birth/death rates and stable population sizes
334
How are contracting pyramids characterized?
have narrower bases than middles and are characteristic of developed countries in the final stage of demographic transition, with very low birth rates and a gradually declining population size
335
What is a confirmation bias?
a type of cognitive bias in which individuals tend to embrace evidence supporting their beliefs, dismiss or ignore evidence refuting their beliefs, and interpret ambiguous evidence as support
336
When does self-serving bias occur?
when success is credited to internal factors but failure is blamed on external factors
337
When does actor-observer bias occur?
when an individual is more likely to blame his or her own bad behavior on external circumstance
338
What is hindsight bias?
a cognitive bias in which an event is perceived as being likely or predictable after it has occurred, even if it was not likely to happen
339
Nonverbal communication involves what?
all wordless cues that convey meaning when exchanged between individuals
340
What is structural functionalism?
a macro-level sociological perspective suggesting that all aspects of society work together to maintain dynamic equilibrium
341
What does the elaboration likelihood model propose?
that when an individual is uninterested in a message, superficial factors may be most persuasive
342
What is symbolic interactionism?
a micro-level sociological theory that suggests that people communicate using symbols
343
Classical conditioning is closely related to what approach?
the behaviorist approach
344
What forms the outermost layer of the front of the eye, in which it directly contacts the back of the eyelid?
the cornea
345
What does Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) state?
an organism's stress response always follows a similar course, regardless of the exact nature of the stressor
346
Motor tasks require the proper functioning of what?
the cerebellum
347
What does the median represent?
the middle of the distribution, splitting the sample distribution of values in half (half of the values are above the median while the other half are below it)
348
Gentrification describes what?
the process in which relatively affluent individuals move into a neighborhood that recently consisted of residents with low to moderate income
349
In Erikson's theory, the major crisis facing adults is what?
generativity versus stagnation
350
Assimilation refers to what?
the process in which new members of a society adopt the norms and values of the dominant culture
351
What are three of the elements of assimilation?
cultural adaptation, adopting new norms, and relinquishing old norms
352
What is chunking?
when a sequence is combined into a single unit, making it easier to recognize
353
What does the Atkinson-Shiffrin multistore memory model state?
the initial registration of the information is briefly processed in a form of sensory memory, which is extremely brief in duration
354
What are reference groups?
groups that an individual would like to join and are important for self-evaluation and identity formation
355
What is a peer group made up of?
individuals in a similar social position or social role
356
When does role conflict occur?
when a person experiences stress or tension from having to manage the social responsibilities of two or more social roles
357
Conflict theory emphasizes what?
competition between social groups over the allocation of resources
358
Conflict theory assumes what?
power and authority are unequally distributed across a society, and that groups attempt to maintain their advantages
359
The functionalist theory assumes what?
social phenomena have specific functions that work within a systematic whole
360
What is shadowing?
testing for selective attention
361
The brain areas that process linguistic information are lateralized in what hemisphere?
the left hemisphere
362
The ________ ____ operationally defines the inputs to which subjects must attend
shadowing task
363
The hypothalamus is concerned largely with what?
the maintenance of homeostatic equilibrium
364
Damage restricted to the hypothalamus would be [likely or unlikely] to interfere with discrimination learning or attention skills
unlikely
365
The correct response must first be unambiguously made known to the subject, generally through a ________ procedure
shaping
366
What is instinctual drift?
the phenomenon whereby established habits, learned using operant techniques, eventually are replaced by innate food-related behaviors
367
What is operant extinction?
when a behavior is no longer exhibited after the reinforcer is removed
368
Popular culture is an agent of what?
socialization
369
What are some examples of agents of socialization?
popular culture, schools, family, and religion
370
Agents of socialization to refer to what?
parts of society that are important for socialization
371
What is socialization?
the process of learning the norms and values in a society
372
Cultural transmission addresses what?
how culture is learned
373
In cultural transmission, how is culture passed along from generation to generation?
through various childrearing practices
374
Culture lag refers to what?
the fact that culture takes time to catch up with technological innovations, resulting in social problems
375
Unconditioned responses occur naturally, [with or without] learning
without
376
When do conditioned responses occur?
when a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus
377
What does positive reinforcement refer to?
a desirable stimulus being applied
378
What is negative reinforcement?
an undesirable stimulus being withdrawn
379
What is taste aversion?
a specific and powerful type of classical conditioning that occurs after just one instance of becoming ill following food/beverage consumption
380
In classical conditioning, when does extinction occur?
when a conditioned response gradually stops occurring in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus
381
What are the effects of stimulants on the central nervous system?
increase feelings of well-being, energy, and alertness
382
What are the effects of depressants on the central nervous system?
slow down or inhibit the central nervous system and reduce anxiety
383
What are narcotics?
analgesics
384
What are the effects of hallucinogens on the central nervous system?
they can alter the mind
385
How does intragenerational social mobility occur?
within a single generation
386
How does intergenerational social mobility occur?
over multiple generations
387
In operant conditioning, reinforcement [increases or decreases] the likelihood a behavior will occur again
increases
388
Positive reinforcement involves what?
the application of a desirable stimulus
389
Negative reinforcement involves what?
the withdrawal of an undesirable stimulus
390
What is implicit/nondeclarative memory?
memory for things that cannot be consciously recalled such as skills, tasks, emotions, and reflexes
391
Classically conditioned responses rely on what?
implicit memory
392
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is characterized by what?
inattention and impulsivity
393
What type of memory has the shortest duration and smallest capacity?
sensory memory
394
How long does short-term memory last for?
half a minute
395
What are the two types of long-term memory?
explicit (declarative) and implicit (procedural)
396
What are the two types of declarative memory?
episodic (personal experiences) and semantic (facts)
397
Motion parallax is important for what?
motion and distance
398
Motion parallax describes what?
when objects in the foreground appear to be moving faster than objects in the background
399
What is the phi phenomenon?
an optical illusion in which a series of still photographs presented in rapid succession appear to be moving
400
When does divided attention occur?
when an individual attends to more than one stimulus or task simultaneously
401
Multitasking is impacted by what?
task similarity, difficulty, and practice
402
The cocktail party effect describes what?
when attention quickly shifts from an attended stimulus to an unattended stimulus when something significant occurs
403
What is proactive interference?
when old information prevents recollection of new information
404
What is retroactive interference?
when new information prevents recollection of old information
405
The education system's hidden curriculum includes what?
implied, informal mechanisms by which certain values and behaviors are reinforced
406
The formal curriculum includes what?
explicit, official content taught to students
407
The Gestalt principle of similarity refers to what?
our tendency to group together objects that share similar features
408
The Gestalt principle of common fate describes what?
our perception that things moving together are grouped together
409
The Gestalt principle of continuity describes what?
our tendency to perceive elements as continuing on a smooth path
410
The Gestalt principle of proximity describes what?
our tendency to perceive things that are physically closer to one another as a group
411
Those in the upper class tend to have what?
the most power and prestige in society
412
Social stratification refers to what?
a society's categorization of its people into rankings of socioeconomic tiers based on factors like wealth, income, and power
413
What is the nuclear family?
the basic social unit composed of primary kin (two married adults and their offspring)
414
What is spatial inequality?
the unfair distribution of wealth and resources across a geographic area
415
Spatial inequality results in what?
poor health outcomes for lower-income individuals
416
Erikson's theory focuses on what?
how personality is shaped by social interaction
417
Piaget's theory contends what?
that children progress through four universal stages that reflect the acquisition of predictable mental skills
418
Freud's theory proposes what?
that progression through psychosexual stages as a child determines adult personality
419
Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development proposes what?
that humans progress through stages of moral and ethical reasoning throughout their lifetime, starting with basic moral reasoning during childhood and progressing to more abstract reasoning in adulthood
420
When does a self-fulfilling prophecy occur?
when a belief about oneself causes behavior that makes the belief come true
421
What are attributional biases?
cognitive biases that occur when individuals attempt to understand their own behavior or the behavior of others
422
What is the just world phenomenon?
an attributional bias that occurs when one believes that the world is fair and good things happen to people who are bad or lazy
423
What is the fundamental attribution error?
an attributional bias that occurs when one attributes another's behavior to internal factors such as personality instead of external or situational factors
424
What is a population pyramid?
a type of bar graph that depicts the number or percentage of men and women in certain age cohorts in a given population
425
What do expanding pyramids reflect?
growing populations with more young than old individuals
426
What do stationary pyramids reflect?
stable populations
427
What do contracting pyramids reflect?
gradually declining populations
428
Long-term potentiation (LTP) describes what?
the neural changes responsible for learning, memory, and associations
429
When does long-term potentiation (LTP) occur?
when a neuron's firing rate increases after repeated stimulation or simultaneous stimulation by multiple inputs
430
What are the two mechanisms LTP can occur?
an increase in the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron and an increase in the number of receptors in the postsynaptic neuron
431
What is state-dependent memory?
a phenomenon whereby memory retrieval is most efficient when an individual's internal state at the time of retrieval is the same as when the memory was encoded
432
What are tonic receptors?
sensory receptors that continue to produce action potentials throughout the duration of a stimulus
433
What does a rigid behaviorist approach state?
only actual outcomes of a behavior determine whether that behavior will be repeated
434
Extrinsic motivation refers to what?
any motivation that results from incentives to perform a behavior that are not inherent to the behavior itself
435
Incongruence refers to what?
the gap between a person’s actual self and ideal self
436
The retina contains photoreceptors, which serve what function?
detect light and transduce light to energy
437
What is the function of the cornea and iris?
can accommodate and focus the incoming light rays
438
What function do the lens serve?
can focus the incoming light rays on the photoreceptors
439
What is socialization?
learning of norms and values
440
What is a reference group?
a group by which participants will evaluate themselves based on thoughts about the group
441
What is an in-group?
a group that an individual feels an affinity toward
442
The distress criterion takes into account of what?
whether the behavior demonstrates unusual or prolonged levels of stress
443
The maladaptiveness criterion takes into account of what?
whether the behavior negatively impacts the person’s life or poses a threat to others
444
The statistical deviancy criterion takes into account of what?
whether the behavior is statistically rare
445
According to Erikson’s theory, adolescents struggle with what?
identity versus role confusion
446
According to Erikson’s theory, young adults struggle with what?
intimacy versus isolation
447
According to Erikson’s theory, a middle-aged person struggles with what?
generativity versus stagnation
448
According to Erikson’s theory, an elderly person struggles with what?
integrity versus despair
449
Observation is important to what theory?
social learning theory
450
What is habituation?
the loss of reduced levels of responsiveness due to repeated exposure
451
What does the behavioral component consist of?
the typical responses made when the individual is in the presence of the attitude object
452
What does the cognitive component of an attitude consist of?
an individual’s beliefs about the attitude object
453
What does the affective component consist of?
the emotional experience evoked by the attitude object
454
Alcohol dependence is most strongly indicated by what?
withdrawal symptoms
455
Bootstrapping refers to what?
the initial stage(s) of grammatical (i.e., syntactic) development
456
Overextension is the term for what?
applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance
457
Shaping involves what?
reinforcing successive approximations of a behavior
458
Retinal height, occlusion, and texture gradient, are all [monocular or binocular] depth cues
monocular
459
Retinal disparity is a [monocular or binocular] depth cue
binocular
460
What is medicalization?
the process in which a social problem comes to be defined as a disease or disorder
461
What is role conflict?
tensions stemming from multiple social roles
462
Role strain involves what?
tensions in the demands from a single social role
463
What is generalized anxiety disorder?
an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry
464
People with GAD may experience what?
muscle tension, difficulty concentrating or sleeping, and restlessness, fatigue, or irritability
465
REM sleep is characterized by what?
rapid closed-eye movements, body paralysis, and brain activity
466
Dreaming is most common during what stage of sleep?
REM sleep
467
What are somatic symptom and related disorders?
a group of disorders in which bodily symptoms or illnesses are associated with psychological factors
468
What is somatic symptom disorder?
an SSRD characterized by extreme distress and concern regarding one or more actual bodily/physical symptoms
469
What does the null hypothesis (H₀) state?
there is no difference between 2 groups
470
What does the alternative hypothesis suppose?
a difference does exist
471
What is a type I error?
a true null hypothesis
472
What is a type II error?
failing to reject a false null hypothesis
473
When does escape learning occur?
when an organism learns how to terminate an ongoing unpleasant stimulus
474
When does avoidance learning occur?
when an organism learns how to prevent coming into contact with an unpleasant stimulus before it occurs
475
Primary reinforcers are what?
naturally rewarding
476
Secondary reinforcers are what?
conditioned to be desirable
477
Tokens can be exchanged for what?
something the individual wants
478
Fluid intelligence involves what?
logic and creativity
479
Crystallized intelligence involves what?
knowledge and skills
480
What is selective attention?
the ability to focus on one stream of information while ignoring other stimuli
481
What is divided attention?
the ability to attend to more than one stimulus at a time
482
Each stage of Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory of personality is associated with what?
a crisis involving a conflict that provides an opportunity for growth
483
Successful resolution of stages results in what?
healthy personality
484
Unsuccessful resolution leads to what?
psychopathology
485
When does retroactive interference occur?
when recently encoded information prevents the recall of older information
486
When does proactive interference occur?
when previously encoded information prevents the recall of new information
487
What is context-dependent memory?
the process whereby information is more easily recalled when an individual is in the same context where he or she first learned the information
488
Reinforcement schedules can be ____________ or _______
continuous; partial
489
What is fixed ratio?
reward given after a consistent number of behaviors
490
What is variable ratio?
reward given after an inconsistent number of behaviors
491
What is fixed interval?
a reward given after consistent amount of time
492
What is variable interval?
a reward given after an inconsistent amount of time
493
Ratio schedules produce [rapid or slow] response rates, whereas interval schedules produce [faster or slower] response rates
rapid; slower
494
Fixed interval reinforcement schedules tend to produce [increased or decreased] behavior just before the reward and [increased or decreased] behavior just after
increased; decreased
495
What must be controlled for at the outset of a study?
potential confounding variables
496
If the groups do not vary in terms of the potential confounding variable, then any significant differences may be attributed to what?
the independent variable
497
The expectancy theory of motivation proposes what?
that motivation results from expectancy, instrumentality, and valence
498
What is expectancy?
the belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome
499
What is instrumentality?
the belief that one has the control over the desired outcome
500
Valence involves what?
the value placed on the desired outcome
501
The Maslow hierarchy of needs proposes what?
that basic needs must be met before psychological needs can be attained
502
What are some examples of basic needs?
physiological and safety
503
What are some examples of psychological needs?
love and belonging and esteem
504
All lower needs must be addressed before one can reach the pinnacle of safety, which is what?
self-actualization
505
A correlation coefficient with an absolute value close to 1 indicates what?
a strong linear relationship between variables
506
Positive correlations reflect what?
scores that move in the same direction
507
Negative correlations reflect what?
scores that move in opposite directions
508
What does the principle of grouping by similarity state?
things that look alike are more likely to be grouped together during perceptual processing
509
What is Gestalt psychology?
the theoretical approach that emphasized the idea that the ways in which people’s perceptual experience is organized result from how human brains are organized
510
Context effects reflect what?
how both the context in which stimuli are presented and the processes of perceptual organization contribute to how people perceive those stimuli
511
What is the method used to operationally define the subject’s motivational state?
depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time
512
Cultural capital refers to what?
knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status
513
Learning that a specific facial expression means one feeling, rather than another, is an example of what?
discrimination
514
What is discrimination?
the ability of an individual to tell apart differing stimuli
515
What is acquisition?
the initial learning of a conditioned response to a stimulus
516
The human body responds to chronic stress by producing what from the pituitary gland?
the adrenocorticotropic hormone
517
The production of the adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulates the release of what from the adrenal gland?
cortisol
518
What is released in the bloodstream from the adrenal gland as part of the acute stress response?
epinephrine
519
When does body dysmorphic disorder occur?
when a subject perceives a defect in the appearance of part of his or her body, and becomes excessively preoccupied with this defect
520
Feelings or sensations caused by a missing limb are known as what?
Phantom Limb pain
521
What are some symptoms of Phantom Limb pain?
tingling and itching to burning and aching
522
Somatoform disorders are concerned with what?
symptoms that cannot be explained by a general medical condition
523
What is a fixed ratio schedule?
Receiving a reward every time the subject responds correctly
524
The sociological paradigm of conflict theory broadly calls attention to what?
competition among social groups, including generational conflict
525
What is the dependency ratio?
a ratio of the number of economically dependent members of the population to the number of economically productive members
526
When do source monitoring errors occur?
when the details of an event are correctly remembered, but the origin or context of the information is incorrectly attributed
527
Dissociative disorder is marked by what?
an apparent “escape from reality” to avoid stressors in the environment
528
Retrograde amnesia involves what?
the inability to remember things before the accident/disease onset
529
Meritocracy assumes what?
that opportunity is based on a combination of talent and effort
530
Hallucinogens have [low or high] risk of dependence
low
531
Conflict theory is most often associated with what?
class-based conceptions of society
532
Social stratification refers to what?
a society's categorization of its people into rankings of socioeconomic tiers based on factors like wealth, income, and power
533
Individuals 12 years and older who acquire abstract reasoning skills reach which of Piaget’s cognitive developmental stages?
Formal operational stage
534
According to Erikson, infants who are 3 to 4 months old and 6 to 7 months old are faced with what issues?
trust versus mistrust
535
According to Freud, the oral stage occurs at what point in an individual's life?
from birth to 12–18 months
536
The oral stage is characteristic of what?
interest in oral gratification from sucking, eating, and biting
537
What occurs during the anal stage?
toddlers and preschool-aged children begin to experiment with urine and feces
538
Vocabulary skills tend to be lateralized to what hemisphere?
the left hemisphere
539
Visuospatial skills, music perception, and emotion processing tend to be lateralized to what hemisphere?
the right hemisphere
540
Emotional intelligence refers to what?
the ability to perceive, express, understand, and manage one’s emotions
541
Bottom-up processing refers to what?
processing details first and then processing the whole
542
What happens in top-down processing?
perceptions begin with the most general and move toward the more specific
543
What does invariance state?
that a drawing of an object can be perceived as the same object even if it has been changed in size
544
What is multistability?
when an image can be perceived in two or more ways
545
Bluish-violet light is [short or long] wavelength light
short
546
With more information, the brain is able to create a [less or more] accurate interpretation of the information
more
547
450 nm corresponds to what range of colors on the visible spectrum?
indigo-violet end
548
What is phototransduction?
the process by which light is converted into electrical signals in the rods, cones, and photosensitive ganglion cells of the retina of the eye
549
What is phototaxis?
the movement of an organism towards or away from a light source
550
A discrepancy between a belief and a behavior creates what?
cognitive dissonance
551
What does fundamental attribution error refer to?
he tendency of individuals to attribute other's behaviors to dispositional factors while attributing one's own behaviors to situational factors
552
What does the incentive theory of motivation posit?
that humans respond rationally to external incentives and focuses largely on extrinsic motivation
553
What is social facilitation?
the phenomenon wherein people do better on simple, familiar tasks when others are present, but worse on less familiar or less well-practiced tasks when others are present
554
Demographic transition theory addresses what?
changes in the birth rate and the death rate that are associated with economic development
555
The pattern of demographic transition theory begins with what?
begins with a drop in the death rate, leading to population growth, followed by a drop in the birth rate, leading to population stabilization
556
Stage 2 of sleep is characterized by what?
sleep spindles
557
Piaget’s preoperational stage are typically between the ages of what?
2–6 or 7
558
True or False: The cerebellum is a primary structure of the reward system
False, the cerebellum is a primary structure of the reward system
559
What do infants commonly begin to express around 8 months of age?
stranger anxiety
560
What does the place theory posit?
that one is able to hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea’s basilar membrane
561
What is counterbalancing in research?
a method to control for any effect that the order of presenting stimuli might have on the dependent variable
562
Negative priming requires the use of what kind of memory?
implicit memory
563
What is fluid intelligence?
the ability to think on one’s feet, be adaptable, and solve problems using deductive and inductive reasoning
564
Both schizophrenia and Alzheimer’s disease are characterized by what?
cognitive dysfunction
565
Associative learning is based on what?
conditioning a response to stimuli
566
When is associative punishment administered?
when an organism exhibits behavior without the stimulus
567
What is vicarious reward or punishment?
when subjects watch others get rewarded or punished
568
What is a good technique for conditioning any new behavior?
continuous reinforcement
569
What kind of schedule creates a behavior that is most resistant to extinction?
a variable ratio schedule
570
What are primary reinforcers?
things that are directly biological
571
What are some examples of primary reinforcers?
food, drink, or sex
572
What are secondary reinforcers?
things that are conditioned
573
What are some examples of secondary reinforcers?
money or grades in school
574
What is perceptual narrowing?
losing the ability to discern certain stimuli from disuse
575
What is an example of perceptual narrowing?
losing the ability to hear or pronounce certain sounds if these sounds are not used in an individual's language
576
According to Piaget, the infants between 0-24 months are in what period?
the sensorimotor period
577
During the sensorimotor period, humans learn what?
object permanence
578
What is object permanence?
when objects continue to exist when they are not perceivable
579
When does symbolic thinking occur?
during the preoperational stage
580
When does logical thinking occur?
during the concrete operational stage
581
A mediating variable explains what?
a counterintuitive relationship between a dependent variable and an independent variable
582
A moderating variable modulates what?
the intensity of a certain relationship
583
What is avoidance learning?
a type of negative reinforcement where an attitude or behavior is learned that causes avoidance of something in the future
584
What is escape learning?
a learned behavior to escape something in the present
585
Central route processing of the elaboration likelihood model involves what?
elaboration upon persuasive and concrete information
586
Peripheral route processing of the elaboration likelihood model involves what?
consideration of more subjective and superficial information
587
A cross-sectional design focuses on what?
data from a specific point in time
588
The more distinctive behavior is, the [less or more] likely an observer is to attribute that behavior to the situation
more
589
What is intergenerational class mobility?
a change in social class from one generation to the next
590
What does intragenerational class mobility refer to?
a change in social mobility of an individual throughout the course of his or her life
591
Stage 1 of a society is what?
preindustrial and has high birth and mortality rates
592
When does Stage 2 of a society occur?
when a country has begun industrializing and the mortality rates decline, and birth rates remain at a high level
593
Stage 3 of society sees what?
a drop in both mortality and birth rates
594
When does Stage 4 of a society occur?
when a society is fully industrialized and both birth and mortality rates are low and fluctuate only to a small degree
595
What is the old-age dependency ratio?
the population ages 65 or above divided by the population ages 16-64
596
Experiencing psychological distress when observing someone in pain is an element of what?
empathy
597
What is the brain structure that controls the pituitary gland, initiating the stress response?
hypothalamus
598
What is the operational definition of dichotic listening?
two different stimuli are presented to different ears
599
The social construction of race refers to what?
the idea that there is little biological basis for race (or ethnicity). Instead, racial/ethnic categories result from history, culture, and society
600
What is the best imaging tool for measuring brain activation in particular regions?
a PET scan
601
Peer groups is what type of group?
a type of primary group
602
What is groupthink?
when individuals who are part of a cohesive in-group will agree to the same behavior
603
A functionalist is focused on what?
social solidarity
604
A conflict theorist is focused on what?
social control and social inequality
605
Different generational cohorts will have distinct life experiences based on what?
their place in history
606
What is one example of a generational difference?
patterns of internet usage
607
NMDA receptors are a subtype of what receptor?
glutamate receptor
608
Self-verification refers to what?
the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept
609
What are the Big Five traits from the Five Factor model?
Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness
610
What is serotonin involved in?
the regulation of both mood (specifically aggression) and appetite
611
The use of maintaining homeostasis is consistent with what theory?
drive reduction theory
612
Symbolic interactionism is most directly related to what?
studying social practices and rituals
613
When does closure, one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping, occur?
when people perceive objects that are incomplete as complete
614
What does the fundamental attribution error refer to?
an observer’s bias in favor of internal attributions in explaining another person’s behavior
615
What is learned helplessness?
when one gives up after enduring repeated aversive stimuli beyond his or her control
616
The symbolic interactionist perspective is predicated on what?
interaction and interpretation
617
What is one possible adaptive coping response?
support-seeking
618
Impression management addresses what?
how individuals actively manifest their sense of self in social interactions
