Psych Sosc Flashcards
(399 cards)
1
Q
What are visual cues?
A
Depth, form, motion, and constancy.
2
Q
What are binocular cues?
A
Retinal disparity and convergence.
3
Q
What are monocular cues?
A
Relative size, interposition, relative clarity, texture gradient, relative height, relative motion, linear perspective, light and shadow.
4
Q
What is Weber’s Law?
A
ΔI=I/k.
5
Q
What is the absolute threshold of sensation?
A
The minimum intensity of stimulus needed to detect a particular stimulus 50% of the time.
6
Q
What is the Just Noticeable Difference Threshold?
A
The smallest difference between two stimuli that is detectable 50 percent of the time.
7
Q
What are semicircular canals?
A
Three fluid-filled canals in the inner ear responsible for our sense of balance.
8
Q
What are otolithic organs?
A
Utricle and saccule; they help us detect linear acceleration and head positioning.
9
Q
What is Signal Detection Theory?
A
How we make decisions under conditions of uncertainty, discerning between important stimuli and unimportant ‘noise.’
10
Q
What is bottom-up processing?
A
Analysis that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain’s integration of sensory information.
11
Q
What is top-down processing?
A
The use of preexisting knowledge to organize individual features into a unified whole.
12
Q
What are rods?
A
Retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision.
13
Q
What are cones?
A
Retinal receptor cells that function in daylight and detect fine detail and color sensations.
14
Q
What is the phototransduction cascade?
A
What occurs when light hits the retina, turning a rod off and activating bipolar and retinal ganglion cells.
15
Q
What is rhodopsin?
A
A light-sensitive pigment found in rod cells formed by retinal and opsin.
16
Q
What are photoreceptors?
A
Rods and cones.
17
Q
What is the fovea?
A
The central focal point in the retina, around which the eye’s cones cluster.
18
Q
What is a blindspot?
A
The point at which the optic nerve leaves the eye, creating a ‘blind’ spot.
19
Q
What is trichromatic theory?
A
Theory of color vision proposing three types of cones: red, blue, and green.
20
Q
What is a hair cell?
A
One of the receptor cells for hearing in the cochlea.
21
Q
What are sound waves?
A
Air molecules pressurized and trying to escape, creating areas of high and low pressure.
22
Q
What is basilar tuning?
A
The organization of the basilar membrane that allows us to hear frequencies from 20-20000 Hz.
23
Q
What is tonotypical mapping?
A
The primary auditory cortex has parts specialized for varying frequencies.
24
Q
What is sensory narrow hearing loss?
A
A problem with conduction of sound waves from cochlea to brain.
25
What are cochlear implants?
Sound is converted to electrical impulses that stimulate the cochlea and send signals to the brain.
26
What is somatosensation?
The body senses, including body position, touch, skin temperature, and pain.
27
What is thermoception?
Temperature perception.
28
What is mechanoreception?
Detection of pressure, vibration, and movement, perceived as touch, hearing, and equilibrium.
29
What is nociception?
Perception of pain.
30
What is sensory adaptation?
Change over time of receptor to a constant stimulus - downregulation.
31
What is the sensory cortex?
Area at the front of the parietal lobes that registers and processes body touch and movement sensations.
32
What is proprioception?
The ability to tell where one's body is in space.
33
What is kinaesthesia?
Sense of limb movement.
34
What is the TrypV1 receptor?
Allows us to sense temperature and is also sensitive to pain.
35
What are A-beta fibers?
Fast fibers that are thick and covered in myelin.
36
What are A-delta fibers?
Fibers with smaller diameter and less myelin.
37
What are C fibers?
Small diameter, unmyelinated fibers.
38
What is olfaction?
Sense of smell.
39
What is the olfactory bulb?
The first brain structure to pick up smell information from the nose.
40
What are pheromones?
Chemical signals released by an animal that communicate information and affect the behavior of other animals of the same species.
41
What is gustation?
The sensation of taste.
42
What are the 5 main tastes?
Sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami.
43
What are the 3 types of taste buds?
Fungiform (anterior), foliate (side), and circumvallate (back).
44
What is the labelled lines model?
Every taste cell has its own line towards a specialized part of the cortex.
45
What is consciousness?
Our awareness of ourselves and our environment.
46
What is alertness?
The default state of consciousness; most people are generally alert when awake.
47
What is daydreaming?
A variation of consciousness where attention shifts to memories, expectations, desires, or fantasies.
48
What is drowsiness?
A state of impaired awareness associated with a desire or inclination to sleep.
49
What is sleep?
Periodic, natural loss of consciousness.
50
What are the 4 sleep stages?
NREM-1, NREM-2, NREM-3, REM.
51
What is the sleep stage order?
N1 -> N2 -> N3 -> N2 -> REM.
52
What characterizes NonREM 1?
Dominated by theta waves; includes hypnagogic hallucinations.
53
What characterizes NonREM 2?
Deeper stage of sleep; harder to awaken; includes sleep spindles and K-complexes.
54
What characterizes NonREM 3?
Slow wave sleep characterized by delta waves; where sleepwalking/talking occurs.
55
What characterizes REM sleep?
Most muscles are paralyzed; most dreaming occurs; important for memory consolidation.
56
What are sleep spindles?
Short bursts of brain waves detected in stage 2 sleep.
57
What are K complexes?
Large single spikes in the EEG that suppress cortical arousal.
58
What is circadian rhythm?
The biological clock; regular bodily rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle.
59
What did Sigmund Freud say about dreams?
Dreams are our unconscious thoughts and desires that need to be interpreted.
60
What is the evolutionary biology perspective on dreams?
Dreams serve as threat simulation to prepare for the real world.
61
What is manifest content?
According to Freud, the remembered story line of a dream.
62
What is latent content?
According to Freud, the underlying meaning of a dream.
63
What is the activation-synthesis hypothesis?
The brain interprets random neural impulses from the brainstem, suggesting dreams may not have meaning.
64
What is sleep deprivation?
Any significant loss of sleep, resulting in problems in concentration and irritability.
65
What is insomnia?
Persistent trouble falling asleep or staying asleep.
66
What is narcolepsy?
A sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks.
67
What is sleep apnea?
A disorder in which the person stops breathing for brief periods while asleep.
68
What is obstructive sleep apnea?
A disorder where a person stops breathing because their throat closes.
69
What is Cheyne-Stokes breathing?
A distinct pattern of breathing characterized by quickening and deepening respirations followed by apnea.
70
What is central sleep apnea?
A disorder with periods of interrupted breathing due to disruption in brain signals.
71
What is the dissociation theory of hypnosis?
Hypnotism is an extreme form of divided consciousness.
72
What is the social influence theory of hypnosis?
People do and report what's expected of them, like actors in roles.
73
What are depressants?
Drugs that reduce neural activity and slow body functions.
74
What are barbiturates?
Drugs that depress the activity of the central nervous system.
75
What are benzodiazepines?
The most common group of antianxiety drugs, including Valium and Xanax.
76
What are opiates?
Opium and its derivatives that depress neural activity and lessen pain.
77
What are stimulants?
Drugs that excite neural activity and speed up body functions.
78
What is cocaine?
A powerful and addictive stimulant derived from the coca plant.
79
What are amphetamines and methamphetamines?
Drugs that trigger release of dopamine, producing euphoria.
80
What are hallucinogens?
Psychedelic drugs that distort perceptions and evoke sensory images.
81
What is ecstasy?
A synthetic stimulant and mild hallucinogen that produces euphoria.
82
What is LSD?
A powerful hallucinogenic drug that interferes with serotonin.
83
What is marijuana?
A mild hallucinogen with THC that heightens sensitivity to sensory input.
84
What is homeostasis and drugs?
The brain recognizes cues and prepares the body for drug effects.
85
What is the oral route of drug administration?
Ingesting something; one of the slowest routes.
86
What is the inhalation route of drug administration?
Breathing or smoking; effects felt within 10 seconds.
87
What is the injection route of drug administration?
Most direct method; effects felt within seconds.
88
What is transdermal drug administration?
Drug absorbed through the skin, like a nicotine patch.
89
What is intramuscular drug administration?
Drug injected into muscle; can deliver drugs quickly or slowly.
90
What is the ventral tegmental area?
A portion of the midbrain that produces dopamine.
91
What is tolerance?
The diminishing effect with regular use of the same dose of a drug.
92
What are substance induced disorders?
Disorders such as intoxication induced by using psychoactive substances.
93
What is methadone?
Activates opiate receptors but acts more slowly to reduce cravings.
94
What is motivational interviewing?
A collaborative, person-centered form of guiding to elicit motivation for change.
95
What is cognitive behavioral therapy?
Recognizes problematic situations and develops positive thought patterns.
96
What is attention?
Focusing awareness on a narrowed range of stimuli or events.
97
What is divided attention?
Doing two things at once, switching between tasks.
98
What is selective attention?
Focusing conscious awareness on a particular stimulus.
99
What are exogenous cues?
Environmental stimuli that attract attention without conscious effort.
100
What are endogenous cues?
Cues that require internal knowledge to understand and follow.
101
What is the cocktail party effect?
The ability to attend to only one voice among many.
102
What is change blindness?
Failing to notice changes in the environment.
103
What is the shadowing task?
Repeating one sound while ignoring another presented to the other ear.
104
What is Broadbent's Early Selection Theory?
Information is filtered early in the sensory register.
105
What is Deutsch & Deutsch's Late Selection Theory?
Information is filtered after perceptual processes.
106
What is Treisman's Attenuation Theory?
Information is attenuated rather than completely filtered.
107
What is the spotlight model of attention?
Attention is restricted in space and moves from one point to the next.
108
What is the priming effect?
The activation of certain associations that predispose perception.
109
What is the resource model of attention?
Attention is a limited resource.
110
What is task similarity?
Multitasking is more difficult with similar tasks.
111
What is the information processing model?
Model of memory processing similar to how a computer processes information.
112
What is iconic memory?
A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli.
113
What is echoic memory?
A momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli.
114
What is working memory?
A newer understanding of short-term memory focusing on active processing.
115
What is the phonological loop?
The part of working memory that processes verbal and auditory information.
116
What is the central executive?
The part of working memory that directs attention and processing.
117
What is the episodic buffer?
A component of working memory where information interacts with long-term memory.
118
What is the magic number 7?
Miller's concept that short-term memory has a capacity of about 7 items (+ or - 2).
119
What is the dual coding hypothesis?
It's easier to remember words associated with images than either one alone.
120
What is the method of loci?
A mnemonic technique associating items with familiar physical locations.
121
What is long-term memory?
The relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system.
122
What is explicit memory?
Memory of facts and experiences that can be consciously declared.
123
What is implicit memory?
Memories we don't deliberately remember or reflect on.
124
What is procedural memory?
A type of implicit memory involving motor skills and behavioral habits.
125
What is encoding?
The processing of information into the memory system.
126
What are retrieval cues?
Stimuli used to bring a memory to consciousness or behavior.
127
What is state-dependent memory?
Memory retrieval is most efficient when in the same state of consciousness as when formed.
128
What is free recall?
Recalling without any cues.
129
What is cued recall?
Recalling with significant hints about the material.
130
What is recognition?
Identifying previously learned items, as in a multiple-choice test.
131
What is a schema?
A concept or framework that organizes and interprets information.
132
What is false information?
Inaccurate recollections of an event.
133
What is misleading information?
Information that may alter a witness's memory for a crime.
134
What is a source monitoring error?
When a memory from one source is misattributed to another.
135
What is a flashbulb memory?
A clear memory of an emotionally significant moment or event.
136
What is long-term potentiation?
An increase in a synapse's firing potential after rapid stimulation.
137
What is synaptic plasticity?
The ability of synapses to strengthen or weaken over time.
138
What is decay?
Loss of memory due to the passage of time without use.
139
What is relearning?
A measure of memory assessing time saved when learning material again.
140
What is retroactive interference?
The disruptive effect of new learning on recall of old information.
141
What is proactive interference?
The disruptive effect of prior learning on recall of new information.
142
What cognitive abilities remain stable with age?
Implicit memory and recognition.
143
What cognitive abilities improve with age?
Semantic memories and crystallized IQ.
144
What cognitive abilities decline with age?
Recall, episodic memories, processing speed, and divided attention.
145
What is proactive interference?
The disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information.
146
What cognitive abilities remain stable with age?
Implicit memory (e.g., riding a bike) and recognition.
147
How do cognitive abilities improve with age?
Semantic memories improve around age 60, leading to better verbal skills, along with crystallized IQ and emotional reasoning.
148
What cognitive abilities decline with age?
Recall, episodic memories, processing speed, divided attention, and prospective memory.
149
What is dementia?
A slowly progressive decline in mental abilities, including memory, thinking, and judgment, often accompanied by personality changes.
150
What characterizes Alzheimer's disease?
A progressive and irreversible brain disorder characterized by gradual deterioration of memory, reasoning, language, and physical functioning.
151
What are amyloid plaques?
Clusters of dead or dying neurons mixed with fragments of protein molecules, characteristic of Alzheimer's disease.
152
What is Korsakoff's Syndrome?
A condition caused by chronic alcoholism, also known as wet brain, which severely impairs short-term memory.
153
What is Wernicke's encephalopathy?
An encephalopathy that causes ocular palsies, confusion, and gait abnormalities related to lesions in the mammillary bodies and/or dorsomedial nuclei of the thalamus.
154
What is retrograde amnesia?
An inability to retrieve information from one's past.
155
What is anterograde amnesia?
An inability to form new memories.
156
What are Piaget's stages of cognitive development?
Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational.
157
What occurs in the sensorimotor stage?
(0-2 years) Involves sensory experiences and the development of object permanence.
158
What occurs in the preoperational stage?
(2-7 years) Children engage in pretend play and exhibit egocentrism.
159
What occurs in the concrete operational stage?
(7-11 years) Children learn the idea of conservation.
160
What occurs in the formal operational stage?
(12+) Children begin to reason abstractly and develop sophisticated moral reasoning.
161
What is an algorithm?
A logical procedure of trying solutions until the correct one is found.
162
What are heuristics?
Shortcut strategies or guidelines that suggest a solution to a problem but do not guarantee an answer.
163
What is means-end analysis?
A problem-solving method where the main problem is analyzed and broken down into smaller problems.
164
What is fixation?
The inability to see a problem from a new perspective.
165
What is insight?
A sudden and often novel realization of the solution to a problem.
166
What is a Type I error?
A false positive.
167
What is a Type II error?
A false negative.
168
What is the availability method?
Using examples that come to mind; helpful but may not match the real state of the world.
169
What is the representativeness heuristic?
Judging the likelihood of things based on how well they seem to represent particular prototypes.
170
What is the conjunction fallacy?
When people believe that two events are more likely to occur together than either individual event.
171
What is confirmation bias?
A tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions while ignoring contradictory evidence.
172
What are framing effects?
When people give different answers to the same problem depending on how it is phrased.
173
What are semantic networks?
Mental representations of clusters of interconnected information.
174
What is spreading activation?
A method for searching associative networks, neural networks, or semantic networks.
175
What is general intelligence?
A general intelligence factor that underlies specific mental abilities, measured by every task on an intelligence test.
176
What are the three intelligences according to Sternberg?
Analytical, creative, and practical intelligences.
177
What is fluid intelligence?
The ability to reason speedily and abstractly; tends to decrease during late adulthood.
178
What is crystallized intelligence?
Accumulated knowledge and verbal skills; tends to increase with age.
179
What is the nature vs. nurture controversy?
Debate over whether genetics or environment is responsible for driving behavior.
180
What is a fixed mindset?
The belief that abilities are set and cannot change.
181
What is a growth mindset?
The belief that abilities are malleable and can be cultivated.
182
What are the eight intelligences proposed by Gardner?
Linguistic, musical, logical-mathematical, spatial, kinesthetic, naturalistic, interpersonal, intrapersonal.
183
What is hereditary genius?
The idea that intelligence is a biological capacity that is inherited.
184
What is mental age?
A measure of intelligence test performance corresponding to a given level of performance.
185
What do behaviorists believe about language?
They believe language is just conditioned behavior.
186
What do nativists believe about language?
They argue that language must be innate.
187
What do materialists believe about language?
They focus on brain activity during thinking, speaking, and writing.
188
What do interactionists believe about language?
They emphasize the interplay between environmental cues and innate biology.
189
What is universalism?
The theory that thought completely determines language.
190
What is linguistic determinism?
Whorf's hypothesis that language determines the way we think.
191
What is the Sapir-Whorfian hypothesis?
The idea that people understand their world through language, which shapes their experiences.
192
What is the language acquisition device?
Chomsky's concept of an innate mechanism in the brain that allows children to acquire language naturally.
193
What is the learning theory of language development?
Language is learned through operant conditioning and interaction with environmental reinforcement.
194
What is the interactionist approach to language development?
The view that language development results from a combination of genetic predispositions and environmental circumstances.
195
What is the linguistic relativity hypothesis?
The theory that thought processes and concepts are controlled by language.
196
What is Broca's area responsible for?
Speech production.
197
What is Wernicke's area responsible for?
Language comprehension.
198
What is global aphasia?
Nonfluent aphasia with impaired comprehension, affecting both Broca's and Wernicke's areas.
199
What is conduction aphasia?
A speech disorder characterized by the inability to repeat words despite intact spontaneous speech production and comprehension.
200
What is agraphia?
An inability to write.
201
What is anomia?
An inability to name objects.
202
What is neural plasticity?
The ability of the brain to change in response to experience.
203
What is the corpus callosum?
The large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres.
204
What is the limbic system?
A neural system associated with emotions and drives, including the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus.
205
What is the thalamus?
The brain's sensory control center that directs messages to sensory receiving areas in the cortex.
206
What is the amygdala involved in?
Memory and emotion, particularly fear and aggression.
207
What is the hippocampus's function?
Helps process explicit memories for storage.
208
What does the hypothalamus regulate?
Eating, drinking, body temperature, and governs the endocrine system.
209
What is the prefrontal cortex responsible for?
Thinking, planning, and language.
210
What is executive control?
The ability to solve problems and make decisions in social situations.
211
What does the sympathetic nervous system do?
Prepares the body for fight or flight responses.
212
What does the parasympathetic nervous system do?
Controls rest and digest functions.
213
What are the three components of emotion?
Physiological, behavioral, and cognitive.
214
What are the six universal emotions?
Happiness, sadness, fear, disgust, anger, and surprise.
215
What is the James-Lange theory of emotion?
The theory proposing that emotions result from our interpretations of bodily reactions to stimuli.
216
What is the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion?
The theory that physiological reactions and emotions occur simultaneously.
217
What is the Schachter-Singer theory of emotion?
The theory that emotional experience results from interpreting bodily responses in context.
218
What is the Lazarus theory of emotion?
The experience of emotion depends on cognitive appraisal of the situation.
219
What is the Yerkes-Dodson Law?
The principle that performance increases with arousal only up to a point, beyond which it decreases.
220
What is stress?
The strain experienced when an organism's equilibrium is disrupted.
221
What is a stressor?
An event or situation that causes stress.
222
What is a stress reaction?
The physical and emotional response to stress.
223
What is the appraisal theory of stress?
Stress arises less from actual events and more from our interpretation of those events.
224
What is primary appraisal?
Evaluating the presence of a potential threat.
225
What is secondary appraisal?
Assessing capability to cope with the threat or stressor.
226
What are the four major categories of stressors?
1) Significant life changes, 2) Catastrophic events, 3) Daily hassles, 4) Ambient stressors.
227
What is the reticular activating system?
The part of the brain involved in attention, sleep, and arousal.
228
What is the endocrine response to stress?
Adrenal glands release epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol.
229
What is the tend-and-befriend response?
Under stress, people often provide support to others and seek support from them.
230
What is oxytocin?
A hormone important for peer bonding, released by the posterior pituitary.
231
What is General Adaptation Syndrome?
Selye's concept of the body's adaptive response to stress in three phases: alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
232
What are the physical effects of stress?
Cardiovascular disease, weight gain, alcohol dependence, hair loss, diabetes, digestive problems, impaired immunity, impotence.
233
What are the behavioral effects of stress?
Depression, anger, anxiety, addiction, learned helplessness.
234
What is learned helplessness?
The hopelessness and passive resignation learned when unable to avoid repeated aversive events.
235
What are some stress management techniques?
Perceived control, optimism, and social support.
236
What is the central nervous system?
The brain and spinal cord.
237
What is the peripheral nervous system?
The sensory and motor neurons connecting the central nervous system to the rest of the body.
238
What are the basic functions of the nervous system?
Motor, sensory, and automatic functions.
239
What are the higher functions of the nervous system?
Cognition, emotions, and consciousness.
240
What are lower motor neurons?
Efferent neurons of the PNS that control skeletal muscle.
241
What is the neuromuscular junction?
The point of contact between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle cell.
242
What are signs of damage to lower motor neurons?
Atrophy of skeletal muscle, fasciculations, hypotonia, and hyporeflexia.
243
What are afferent neurons?
Sensory neurons.
244
What are efferent neurons?
Motor neurons.
245
What is the muscle stretch reflex?
A protective response causing a muscle to contract after being stretched.
246
What is the knee-jerk response?
A stimulus causing the thigh muscle to contract and the knee to kick out.
247
What is grey matter?
The portions of the CNS abundant in cell bodies of neurons.
248
What is white matter?
The whitish nervous tissue of the CNS consisting of neurons and their myelin sheaths.
249
What are upper motor neurons?
Neurons that control muscles of limbs and trunk.
250
What is the corticospinal tract?
Connections between the brain and spine.
251
What are signs of upper motor neuron damage?
Hyperreflexia, clonus, hypertonia, and extensor plantar response.
252
What is the frontal lobe responsible for?
Motor functions, prefrontal functions, and Broca's area.
253
What is the parietal lobe responsible for?
Somatosensory processing and spatial manipulation.
254
What is the occipital lobe responsible for?
Vision, specifically the striate cortex.
255
What is the temporal lobe responsible for?
Sound processing and Wernicke's area.
256
What is the cerebellum responsible for?
Controlling fine motor skills.
257
What is the brainstem?
The oldest part of the brain responsible for automatic survival functions.
258
What are long tracts?
Collections of axons connecting the cerebrum and brainstem.
259
What are cranial nerves?
12 pairs of nerves that carry messages to and from the brain.
260
What is the internal capsule?
A band of projection fibers running between the basal nuclei and the thalamus.
261
What are basal ganglia?
Subcortical structures that direct intentional movements.
262
What is glutamate?
The most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.
263
What is GABA?
A major inhibitory neurotransmitter.
264
What is glycine?
A major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord.
265
What is acetylcholine?
A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory and triggers muscle contraction.
266
What is histamine?
A neurotransmitter important for stimulating wakefulness.
267
What is norepinephrine?
A neurotransmitter involved in arousal and mood regulation.
268
What is serotonin?
A neurotransmitter affecting hunger, sleep, arousal, and mood.
269
What is dopamine?
A neurotransmitter associated with movement, attention, learning, and the brain's pleasure system.
270
What are radiofrequency lesions?
Used to destroy tissue on the surface and deep inside the brain.
271
What are neurochemical lesions?
Excitotoxic lesions that cause calcium influx, killing neurons.
272
What is cortical cooling?
Involves cooling neurons until they stop firing.
273
What is a CAT scan?
A method of creating static images of the brain through computerized axial tomography.
274
What is an MRI?
A technique using magnetic fields and radio waves to produce images of brain structures.
275
What is an EEG?
An amplified recording of electrical activity across the brain's surface.
276
What is an MEG?
A technique with better resolution than EEG, requiring a large machine and special room.
277
What is an fMRI?
A technique for revealing blood flow and brain activity by comparing successive MRI scans.
278
What is a PET scan?
A visual display of brain activity detecting where radioactive glucose goes during tasks.
279
What is temperament?
A person's characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity.
280
What is heredity?
The passing of traits from parents to offspring.
281
What is personality?
An individual's characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting.
282
What are adoption studies?
Assess hereditary influence by examining resemblance between adopted children and their biological and adoptive parents.
283
What is gene-environment interaction?
The effects of genes depend on the environment in which they are expressed.
284
What is the Central Dogma?
The process of DNA -> RNA -> Protein -> Trait.
285
What is epigenetics?
Changes to gene expression that do not involve alterations to the DNA sequence.
286
What is adaptation?
Behavior coordinated as an internal and external response to the environment.
287
What is ethology?
The study of animal behavior.
288
What are inherited behavioral traits?
Innate behaviors encoded by DNA.
289
What are intrinsic behavioral traits?
Traits present even if raised in isolation.
290
What are stereotypic behavioral traits?
Behaviors performed the same way each time.
291
What are inflexible behavioral traits?
Traits not modifiable by experience.
292
What are consummate behavioral traits?
Traits fully developed at first performance, not influenced by experience.
293
What are non-inherited behavioral traits?
Traits acquired only through observation or experience.
294
What are extrinsic behavioral traits?
Traits absent when animals are raised in isolation.
295
What are permutable behavioral traits?
Traits that are changeable.
296
What are adaptable behavioral traits?
Traits capable of being modified in response to changing conditions.
297
What are progressive behavioral traits?
Traits that improve or refine with practice over time.
298
What is complex behavior?
Behaviors that lie between innate traits and learned traits.
299
What is the evolutionary view on motivation?
The role instincts play in motivation.
300
What is drive-reduction theory?
The idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state that motivates satisfaction.
301
What is optimal arousal theory?
The theory that people are motivated to maintain an optimal level of arousal.
302
What is the cognitive view of motivation?
Thought processes drive behavior.
303
What is Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
A theory that we want to satisfy needs in a particular order: physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, self-actualization.
304
What is incentive theory?
The idea that rewards are presented after an action.
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What is positive reinforcement?
Increasing behaviors by presenting positive stimuli, such as food.
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What is negative reinforcement?
Increasing behaviors by removing a negative stimulus.
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What is positive punishment?
Decreasing behavior by presenting a negative stimulus.
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What is negative punishment?
Decreasing behavior by stopping or reducing positive stimuli.
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What is attitude?
A learned tendency to evaluate things in a certain way.
310
What is the order of needs according to Maslow's hierarchy?
Physiological -> Safety -> Love/Belonging -> Esteem -> Self-Actualization
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What is incentive theory?
Reward, either intangible or tangible, is presented after an action.
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What is negative reinforcement?
Increasing behaviors by removing a stimulus.
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What is positive punishment?
Decreasing behavior by presenting a negative stimulus (adding something bad).
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What is negative punishment?
Decreasing behavior by stopping or reducing positive stimuli (subtracting something good).
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What is an attitude?
A learned tendency to evaluate things in a certain way.
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What are the three components of attitude?
Cognitive, affective, and behavioral.
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What is the ABC model of attitudes?
A multidimensional perspective stating that attitudes are jointly defined by affect, behavior, and cognition.
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What is the Theory of Planned Behavior?
We consider the implications of our intentions before we behave.
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What does the attitude to behavior process model state?
An event triggers one's attitude which affects perception of the event and behavior.
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What is the Prototype willingness model?
Behavior is a function of past behavior, attitudes, subjective norms, intentions, willingness to engage in specific behavior, and prototypes/models.
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What is the Elaboration Likelihood Model of Persuasion?
Central route is more effective when people are willing and able to pay attention; peripheral route is effective when people are not paying close attention.
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What is the principle of aggregation?
The idea that an attitude affects a person's aggregate or average behavior, but cannot necessarily predict each isolated act.
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What is cognitive dissonance?
An unpleasant mental experience of tension resulting from two conflicting thoughts or beliefs.
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What does social psychology emphasize?
The influence of changing environmental circumstances over stable personality traits.
325
What is attribution?
An inference about the cause of a person's behavior.
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What is psychoanalytic theory?
A theory developed by Freud that attempts to explain personality, motivation, and mental disorders by focusing on unconscious determinants of behavior.
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What is libido?
Motivation for survival, growth, pleasure, etc.
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What is the death instinct?
Drives aggressive behaviors fueled by an unconscious wish to die or hurt oneself/others.
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What is projection?
Projecting one's own feelings of inadequacy onto another.
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What is reaction formation?
A defense mechanism where someone says or does the exact opposite of what they actually want/feel.
331
What is regression?
A defense mechanism where one regresses to the position of a child in problematic situations.
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What is sublimation?
A defense mechanism where unwanted impulses are transformed into something less harmful.
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What does fixation imply in Freud's theory?
That the person is unable to move to the next stage.
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What is the id?
Demands immediate gratification.
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What is the ego?
The largely conscious, 'executive' part of personality that mediates among the demands of the id, superego, and reality.
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What is the superego?
The moral conscience.
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What is a Freudian slip?
A verbal mistake that is thought to reveal an unconscious belief, thought, or emotion.
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What does humanistic theory focus on?
Healthy personality development, viewing humans as inherently good.
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What is the actualizing tendency in Roger's theory?
The innate drive to maintain and enhance oneself.
340
What are the steps to self-actualization?
1. Be genuine 2. Growth nurtured through acceptance
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What is self-concept?
All our thoughts and feelings about ourselves, in answer to the question, 'Who am I?'
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What does the biological theory of personality focus on?
Biological contributions to certain traits, influenced by heredity and baseline temperament.
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What is the social potency trait?
The degree to which a person assumes leadership roles in social situations.
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What is traditionalism?
Tendency to follow authority, shown to be common in twins.
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What does the behaviorist theory of personality emphasize?
That personality is derived from the interaction between a person and their environment.
346
What is classical conditioning?
A type of learning in which one learns to link two or more stimuli and anticipate events.
347
What is the cognitive theory of personality?
The analysis of your own perceptions, thoughts, and feelings.
348
What is Trait Personality Theory?
We have certain stable and enduring characteristics.
349
What are surface traits?
Aspects of personality that can easily be seen by others in the outward actions of a person.
350
What are source traits?
The more basic traits that underlie the surface traits, forming the core of personality.
351
Who is Gordon Allport?
He proposed that all of us have different traits and created a list of 4500 descriptive words for traits.
352
What did Raymond Cattell propose?
That we all have 16 essential personality traits that represent basic dimensions of personality.
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What are the three major dimensions of personality according to Hans Eysenck?
Extroversion, neuroticism (emotional stability), and psychoticism (degree to which reality is distorted).
354
What is the 5 factor model of personality?
Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism.
355
What is factor analysis?
A statistical method that categorizes and determines major categories of traits.
356
What is observational learning?
Learning by observing others.
357
What are mirror neurons?
Frontal lobe neurons that fire when performing certain actions or when observing another doing so.
358
What is social cognitive theory?
A theory of behavior change that emphasizes interactions between people and their environment.
359
What was the Bobo doll experiment?
Children model the behavior of adults.
360
What is the learning/performance distinction?
Learning a behavior and performing it are two different things.
361
What is the biomedical model?
A perspective that explains illness solely in terms of biological factors.
362
What is the psychosocial model?
The theory that mental disorders arise from an interaction between the person and the social environment.
363
What is ICD-10?
A system to classify and code diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures.
364
What is DSM-5?
A widely used system for classifying psychological disorders.
365
What are neurodevelopmental disorders?
Involve distress/disability due to abnormality in the development of the nervous system, including intellectual disability, autism spectrum disorders, and ADHD.
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What are neurocognitive disorders?
Loss of cognitive/other functions of the brain after the nervous system has developed.
367
What are sleep-wake disorders?
Result in distress/disability from sleep-related issues, including insomnia and breathing-related sleep disorders.
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What are anxiety disorders?
Abnormal worry/fear, including specific phobias and generalized anxiety disorder.
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What are depressive disorders?
Abnormally negative mood with a high risk of suicide.
370
What are bipolar and related disorders?
Abnormal mood with periods of abnormally positive mood called mania.
371
What are schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders?
Involve distress/disability from psychosis, including delusions and hallucinations.
372
What are trauma/stressor-related disorders?
Occur after stressful/traumatic events, such as post-traumatic stress disorder.
373
What are substance-related and addictive disorders?
Distress/disability from the use of substances that affect mental function.
374
What are personality disorders?
Related to personality, involving long-term mental and behavioral features characteristic of a person.
375
What are the three clusters of personality disorders?
Cluster A: Odd/Eccentric; Cluster B: Intense Emotional/Relationship Problems; Cluster C: Anxious/Avoidant/Obsessive.
376
What are disruptive, impulse-control, and conduct disorders?
Inability to control inappropriate behaviors.
377
What are obsessive-compulsive and related disorders?
Compulsions are unwelcome thoughts that occur repeatedly.
378
What are somatic symptom and related disorders?
Distress/disability from symptoms similar to those that may occur to illness unrelated to mental disorder, but of psychological origin.
379
What are feeding and eating disorders?
Behavioral abnormalities related to food, e.g., anorexia, bulimia.
380
What are elimination disorders?
Urination/defecation at inappropriate times.
381
What are dissociative disorders?
Abnormalities of identity/memory, including multiple personalities or lost memories.
382
What are sexual dysfunctions?
Abnormalities in the performance of sexual activity.
383
What is gender dysphoria?
Caused by a person identifying as a different gender.
384
What are paraphilic disorders?
Having sexual arousal to unusual stimuli.
385
What are other disorders?
Any person that appears to have a mental disorder causing distress/disability but doesn't fit into other categories.
386
What is the biological basis of schizophrenia?
Genetic Predisposition + Environmental Trigger.
387
What are the positive signs of schizophrenia?
1) Dopamine hypothesis 2) Hyperactivation of temporal lobes.
388
What are the negative signs of schizophrenia?
1) Hypofunctioning frontal lobes 2) Smaller brains due to atrophy.
389
What is the mesocorticolimbic pathway?
Leads to dysfunction in parts of the frontal cortex that cause cognitive symptoms.
390
What is the biological basis of depression?
Genetic Basis (increased risk) and hypofunctioning of dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine pathways.
391
What is the biological basis of Alzheimer's disease?
Cortical disease due to formation of neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.
392
What is the biological basis of Parkinson's?
Decreased dopamine production in substantia nigra of basal ganglia.
393
What is conformity?
The tendency for people to bring behavior in line with group norms.
394
What is groupthink?
Occurs when maintaining harmony among group members is more important than carefully analyzing the problem.
395
What is informative influence?
Looking to the group for guidance when unsure, assuming the group is correct.
396
What is normative influence?
Conformity based on a person's desire to fulfill others' expectations.
397
What is public conformity?
A superficial change in overt behavior without a corresponding change of opinion due to group pressure.
398
What is private conformity?
The change of beliefs that occurs when a person privately accepts the position taken by others.
399
What is group polarization?
The tendency of group members to move to an extreme position after discussing an issue as a group.
