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MCAT > Psychology > Flashcards

Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

transduction

A

the process by which auditory, electromagnetic, physical, and other kinds of information from the environment are converted into electrical signals within the human nervous system

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2
Q

sensation

A

raw signals are detected and information is communicated through stimuli entering the nervous system through receptors

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3
Q

perception

A

processing of the raw information.

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4
Q

sensory receptors

A

neurons that triggers electrical signals in response to stimuli from the environment. These receptors can encode multiple aspects of a stimulus. Receive stimulus through ganglia

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5
Q

ganglia

A

a group of nerve cells found outside of the CNS

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6
Q

four properties of sensory receptors communicate to the CNS

A

modality (type), location(where), intensity(frequency of APs produced by the stimulus), duration(how long)

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7
Q

Threshold

A

minimum amount of stimulus required to deliver a difference in perception

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8
Q

what are the three types of threshold

A

absolute threshold, threshold of conscious perception, difference threshold

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9
Q

absolute thereshold

A

minimum amount of stimulus energy that is required to activate a sensory system. Absolute threshold is one of sensation, not perception.

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10
Q

Threshold of conscious perception

A

minimum amount of stimulus energy that is needed for a signal to be sent to the CNS and perceived

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11
Q

Difference threshold

A

minimum difference in magnitude between two different stimuli before the difference can be perceived. also called the just-noticeable difference.

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12
Q

Weber’s Law

A

Change in magnitude of a stimulus that will make it noticeable is a constant ratio of the magnitude of the original stimulus.

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13
Q

Does Weber’s Law work in extreme conditon?

A

No

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14
Q

Signal Detection Theory

A

Perception of stimuli can be affected not only by the stimuli themselves, but also nonsensory considerations like expectations, experiences, and motives.

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15
Q

Adaptation

A

Simply how the detection of stimuli can change over time, either through physiological or psychological means, which affects, respectively, sensation and perception.

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16
Q

Cornea

A

The clear portion at the front of the eye. It’s highly curved , light is refracted as it passes through it.

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17
Q

Sclera

A

The white part of the eye

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18
Q

Choroid

A

responsible for absorbing excess light with pigmented cells.

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19
Q

Retina

A

part of CNS, that contains the photoreceptors that convert light into electrical impulses to be sent to the brain.

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20
Q

Anterior Chamber

A

The space in front of iris

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21
Q

iris

A

the colored part of the eye which has an opening called pupil

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22
Q

pupil

A

the opening of the iris

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23
Q

posterior chamber

A

the space between the iris and the lens

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24
Q

lens

A

helps control the further refraction of the incoming light

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25
Q

vitreous chamber

A

contains vitreous humor, a transparent gel that support the retina

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26
Q

dilator pupillae

A

opens the pupil when stimulated sympathetically

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27
Q

constrictor pupillae

A

constrict the pupil when stimulated parasympathetically

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28
Q

ciliary body

A

the tissue that produces aqueous humor

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29
Q

aqueous humor

A

the liquid that bathes the front part of the eye before it drains into the canal of Schelemm

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30
Q

ciliary muscle

A

part of the ciliary body, responsible for changing the shape of the lens via parasympathetic movements of the suspensory ligaments

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31
Q

Accomondation

A

the shape of the lens is changed

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32
Q

Is there more cones or rods?

A

rods - 120 millions, cones 6 millions

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33
Q

three types of cones?

A

red, green and blue

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34
Q

which color of cone has the highest wavelength?

A

red

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35
Q

which color of cone has the lowest wavelength?

A

blue

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36
Q

Rods

A

contains rhodopsin, allow for the perception of light and dark.

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37
Q

macula

A

central section of the retina, has high concentration of cones

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38
Q

fovea

A

the central point of retina, no rods are present

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39
Q

optic disc

A

the area where the optic nerve leaves the eye, this is also called the blind spot

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40
Q

bipolar cells

A

nerve cells that have only one axon and one dendrite

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41
Q

ganglion cells

A

axons of which form together to make up the optic nerve

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42
Q

Amacrine/horizontal cells

A

helps to optimize the process of photoreceptor - they receive input from retinal cells before any information is passed onto to ganglion cells. This allows them to accentuate subtle differences between information being transferred to each bipolar cell. This increase our perception of visual contrasts, making them important for edge detection.

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43
Q

Visual pathway

A

both the physical connections between the eyes and the occipital lobe and the movement of information through them

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44
Q

optic chiasm

A

optic fibers from the nasal half of each retina cross paths.

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45
Q

optic tracts

A

reorganized optic pathways

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46
Q

lateral geniculate nucleus

A

in the thalamus and is the primary relay center for information received from the retinae. the LGN then radiates the information through the temporal and parietal lobes to the occipital lobe, where it finally reaches the visual cortex.

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47
Q

Parallel processing

A

the ability to analyze and combine several pieces of information regarding color, motion, and shape at once. Through this process, the new information that is received through the visual pathways can be compared with memories.

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48
Q

Feature detection theory

A

explains why different areas of the brain are activated when a person is looking at different things. Different parts of the visual pathway contain different kinds of cells that are specialized to detect shape or motion

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49
Q

shape

A

detected by parvocellular cells, allow us to see very fine detail when looking at a stationary object

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50
Q

parvocellular cell

A

these cells have high spatial resolution

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51
Q

motion

A

detected by magnocellular cells

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52
Q

magnocellular cells

A

high temporal resolution. Low spatial resolution, details of an image is lessened when it’s in motion

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53
Q

Pinna

A

Auricle, outwardly visible part of the ear, functions as a funnel for sound

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54
Q

External auditory canal

A

Sound waves channelling from the Pinna through this tunnel and to the tympanic membrane

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55
Q

Tympanic menbrane

A

Eardrum, where sound wave is reached and cause it to vibrate. The frequency of those sound waves determines the rate of vibration of tympanic membrane.

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56
Q

Middle ear

A

Ossicles, included malleus, incus, and stapes

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57
Q

Malleus

A

Hammer, connected to the tympanic membrane

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58
Q

Incus

A

Anvil, send the vibration to stapes

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59
Q

Stapes

A

Stirrup, connection between the middle ear and the inner ear

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60
Q

Cochlea

A

On the oval window. A spiral-shaped structure divided into three scalae.

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61
Q

Eustachian tube

A

Connects the middle ear to the nasal activity and helps to equalize pressure between ear and the environment

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62
Q

Personality

A

Amalgamation of characteristics and qualities that come together to complete a person’s character

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63
Q

Self-concept

A

Self-identity, is our understanding of ourselves and our personalities.

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64
Q

Self awareness

A

An awareness of oneself as an individual

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65
Q

Self-discrepancy theory

A

Every person has three conceptions of self- actual self, ideal self, our ought self

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66
Q

Actual self

A

How we see ourselves at the current moment

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67
Q

Ideal self

A

How we would like to see ourselves

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68
Q

Our ought self

A

How we think other people would like us to be

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69
Q

Identity

A

Sociologist use term to describe the relationship of one’s self concept with the social groups that one belongs to

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70
Q

Identity formation

A

Individuation, the process through which we develop our individual identities, which rely upon the development of our personalities and self concept.

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71
Q

Erik Erikson theory

A

An individual’s identity forms as he or she deals with these crises, these 8 crises are all the result of tension between personal needs and social demands

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72
Q

First conflict of Erik Erikson

A

Age 0-1. Trust vs mistrust. A young child can either resolve the conflict and trust the people in its life and its environment, or else learn to mistrust the world.

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73
Q

Second conflict of Erik Erikson

A

Age 1-3 year. Autonomy vs shame/doubt. A toddler either resolves towards autonomy, and therefore develops a feeling of control and self-restraint, or else resolves towards constant doubt, shame, and ongoing external locus of control.

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74
Q

Third conflict of Erik Erikson

A

Age 3-6, initiative vs. guilt. A child can resolve towards initiative and develop an ability to self-start, as well as a sense of purpose and the ability to enjoy successes, or else resolve toward guilt and develop a propensity for self-restriction and fear of punishment.

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75
Q

Fourth conflict of Erik Erikson

A

Age 6-12. Industry vs. inferiority. A child can resolve towards industry and develop a feeling of competency and a freedom to do the work he or she wants to do or else resolve towards feelings of inferiority, incompetency, and low self-esteem.

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76
Q

Fifth conflict of Erik Erikson

A

Age 12-20. Identity vs role confusion. A teenager/young adult can resolve towards identity and develop the ability to see herself as unique, sufficient individual, or else resolve to confusion about her identity, having no set personality.

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77
Q

Sixth conflict of Erik Erikson

A

Age 20-40. Intimacy vs isolation. An adult can resolve toward intimacy and develop the ability to be in an intimate, loving relationship, and develop the ability to commit oneself to people, things, or ideas, or else resolves towards isolation and develops a penchant for avoiding commitment

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78
Q

Seventh conflict of Erik Erikson

A

Age 40-65. Generality vs stagnation. A middle aged adult can resolve toward generate its and become capable of productivity and contributing to society, or else resolve toward stagnation and develop self-indulgent, egocentric, and unmotivated qualities.

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79
Q

Eighth conflict of Erik Erikson

A

Integrity vs despair. A person over 65 can resolve toward integrity and become able to accept that his life has been worth living, and therefore, the notion of death or else resolve towards despair and develop feelings of worthlessness and a fear of death. Erikson beloved those who resolve for integrity experience wisdom, a detached but sympathetic concern with the very notion of life.

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80
Q

vestibule

A

accounts for linear acceleration, contains the utricle and saccule. This helps us to balance and determine our orientation in space. The utricle and saccule contain otoliths.

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81
Q

semicircular canals

A

accounts for rotational acceleration. Each canal ends in an ampulla, which houses hair cells. Endolymph in the ampullas resist motion when the head rotates, stimulating hair cells to send information to the brain.

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82
Q

bony labryinth

A

a thick layer of bone that protects the inner ear

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83
Q

membranous labyrinth

A

filled with endolymph, formed together the structures of the inner ear form a mass

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84
Q

endolymph

A

a potassium rich fluid

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85
Q

perilymph

A

transmits vibrations from the stapes through the oval windows of the cochlea, and also protects the membranous labyrinth

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86
Q

Organ of Corti

A

Inside of the the central scala, and protected by the flexible basilar membrane, the actual hearing apparatus of the ear. Made up of hair cells that are bathed in endolymph. The hair cells in the organ of Corti converts physical stimulus into electrical information

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87
Q

Two other scalae

A

Filled with perilymph, surround the organ of Corti, and are continuous with the oval and round windows of cochlea, which connects to the middle ear.

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88
Q

Otilith

A

Specialized hair cells that resist motion as the body accelerates, and sends information to the brain.

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89
Q

Auditory nerve

A

also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, transfer the electrical information to the central nervous system

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90
Q

stereocilia

A

cover the surface of the hair cells. Vibrations in the endolymph cause the stereocilia of the hair cells to sway from side to side, causing ion channels to open, which in turn creates a receptor potential.

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91
Q

medial geniculate nucleus

A

In the thalamus, where the electrical information is sent through the auditory nerve, along to the brainstem, to here.

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92
Q

auditory cortex

A

Where the information from MGN is mainly sent to the temporal lobe of the brain and processed here

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93
Q

superior olive

A

localize sound information

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94
Q

inferior collicus

A

startle reflex and vestibulo-ocular reflex.

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95
Q

Vestibulo-ocular reflex

A

helping to keep the eyes fixed on a single point in space while the head rotates

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96
Q

somatosensation

A

touch.

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97
Q

olfactory chemoreceptors

A

located in the olfactory epithelium in the upper part of the nasal cavity

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98
Q

olfactory bulb

A

once chemoreceptors convert physical stimuli into electrical information, it is sent here. located in the front of the brain

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99
Q

olfactory tract

A

information from olfactory bulb passed to here to beprocessed

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100
Q

limbic system

A

a complex structure located on both sides of the thalamus

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101
Q

5 tastes

A

sweet, bitterness, salty, sour, savory(umami)

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102
Q

4 modalities of somatosensation

A

pain, pressure, temperature, and vibration

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103
Q

free nerve endings

A

pain and temperature

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104
Q

Miessner’s corpuscles

A

light touch

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105
Q

Merkle discs

A

deep pressure and texture

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106
Q

Pacinian corpurscle

A

deep pressure and vibration

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107
Q

Ruffini endings

A

stretch

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108
Q

Two-point threshold

A

minimum distance between two points being stimulated concurrently on the skin where those two points will be felt distinctly from one another.

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109
Q

Physiological zero

A

normal temperature of the skin, between 86 and 97 F

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110
Q

The gate theory of pain

A

Our bodies have the ability to gate pain signals, turning them on and off with a special mechanism in the spinal cord, which can be preferential of which signals from which modalities of somatosensation it sends to the brain.

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111
Q

somatosensory cortex

A

In the parietal lobe. once stimuli are transduced, electrical information from somatosensation is sent to here.

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112
Q

kinesthetic sense

A

also known as proprioception, this sense, with its receptors found mostly in the muscles and joints, allows us to perceive where our bodies are in space.

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113
Q

consciousness

A

the awareness that we have of our surroundings, our internal states, and ourselves.

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114
Q

Four general states of consciousness

A

alertness, sleep, dreaming, and altered states of consciousness

115
Q

alertness

A

state of being awake, being attentive to what is going on within us and around us, and being able to think. The function of an interplay between the reticular formation and the prefrontal cortex of the brain.

116
Q

Reticular formation

A

located in the brainstem

117
Q

electroencelography

A

A tool to measure the electrical activity of the brain

118
Q

sleep

A

A state of consciousness in which the nervous system is relatively inactive and the normal brain activity that is typical during consciousness is, for the most part, suspended.

119
Q

Polysomnography

A

A multi-faceted method for examining and measuring physiological processes that occur during sleep.

120
Q

Electromyograph

A

A tool to measure the skeletal and muscular movements

121
Q

Electrooculogram

A

A tool to measure the eye movement

122
Q

beta wave

A

high frequency, low amplitude. This wave is picked up when a person is fully awake. These waves, which have the highest frequency of all brain waves, are not very consistent in their pattern, and are therefore considered desynchronous.

123
Q

stage 1 sleep

A

theca waves(low amplitude and irregular frequency). EOG- slow rolling movement. EMG- moderate activity

124
Q

alpha wave

A

high frequency, low amplitude. More consistent than beta waves. These waves are picked up when a person is tired and less alert.

125
Q

stage 2 sleep

A

K-complexes, sleep spindles. EOG- no eye movement. EMG- show moderate activity.

126
Q

K complexes

A

single high amplitude, low frequency waves. occurs in stage 2 sleep

127
Q

sleep spindles

A

burst of multiple high-frequency moderate amplitude waves, occurs in stage 2 sleep

128
Q

stage 3 sleep

A

slow wave sleep, delta wave. EOG- no eye movement. EMG-moderate muscular and skeletal activity

129
Q

delta wave

A

high amplitude, low frequency

130
Q

stage 4 sleep

A

slow wave sleep, delta wave. EOG- no eye movement. EMG-moderate muscular and skeletal activity

131
Q

REM sleep

A

EEG- beta wave. EOG-bursts of rapid eye movements EMG-show very low skeletal movement

132
Q

Circadian rhythm

A

24 hour cycle that, influenced by biochemical signals, regulate the daily progression from sleep to being awake and back to sleep. External stimuli, like light, also play a part in regulating this daily cycle.

133
Q

Melatonin

A

A hormone derived from serotonin and produced in the pineal gland of the brain, plays a role in causing sleepiness.

134
Q

adrenal cortex

A

found in the adrenal glands, produces steroid hormone cortisol.

135
Q

corticotropin releasing factor

A

released by hypothalamus.

136
Q

adrenocorticotropic

A

CRF released to cause anterior pituitary gland of the brain to release this molecule, this molecule finally cause the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex.

137
Q

Activation-synthesis theory

A

random activation of neurons throughout the brain, which emulate sensory information being sent from receptors to the brain, causes dreams. Additionally, experiences, memories, and preoccupations are also included and mixed in with the false sensations, creating the odd details we encounter in dreams.

138
Q

problem-solving dream theory

A

dreams are a way for the brain to find solutions to problems without the constraints of reality.

139
Q

cognitive dream theory

A

dreams are simply stream-of-consciousness events that happen while we sleep.

140
Q

manifest content

A

plotlines and details of dreams

141
Q

latent content

A

hidden drives and desires that informed the manifest content

142
Q

neurocognitive models of dreaming

A

combine anatomical and psychological perspectives by relating the actual experience of dreaming with physiological changes that can be measured with PSG.

143
Q

Dyssomnias

A

includes insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea. They make it more difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, or in the case of narcolepsy, avoid sleep.

144
Q

Parasomnias

A

sleepwalking and night terrors. They cause abnormal behaviors and movement during sleep.

145
Q

Insomnia

A

Makes it difficult to fall asleep

146
Q

narcolepsy

A

has no control over when they fall asleep

147
Q

cataplexy

A

when the body reacts to an emotional trigger and goes suddenly from being awake into REM sleep, causing total loss of muscle control.

148
Q

sleep paralysis

A

cause an inability to move while a person is awake but entering or leaving sleep

149
Q

hypnagogic hallucinations

A

occurs when going in sleep. sleep paralysis

150
Q

hypnopompic hallucinations

A

occur when waking up. sleep paralysis

151
Q

sleep apnea

A

cause a person to be unable to breathe during sleep, making them wake up throughout the night to catch their breath. Sleep is either obstructive, meaning it is caused by a physical blockage in the pharynx or trachea, or central, meaning the brain does not actually send the proper signals to make the body breathe.

152
Q

sleep walking

A

somnambulism, occurs during stage 3 and 4, or SWS. It causes the sleeper to walk, talk, and engage in other daily activities while being soundly sleep. This activity is typically not remembered in the morning.

153
Q

Night terrors

A

during SWS and are brief bouts of intense anxiety that cause a person’s heart rate and respiration to increase to high levels. It is difficult to wake up someone having a night terror as they are in SWS.

154
Q

pons

A

a part of brainstem, keeps the body from acting out dreams. The pons does not do this during night terrors. Night terror sufferer typcially do not remember them the next morning.

155
Q

attention

A

ability to focus on a single aspect of sensorium, or the sensory environment around us.

156
Q

selective attention

A

allow us to sense and perceive one input at a time

157
Q

Broadbent model of selective attention

A

an early model for selective attention developed, considered the brain a low-capacity processing system and sought to trace the process by which the brain makes sensory data into memories. Multiple sensory inputs entered what Broadbent called a sensory buffer, where one of them was selected, while the others that were not selected decayed. The chosen information then entered into short-term memory storage, from where it was processed semantically.

158
Q

Cocktail party phenomenom

A

Selective attention lets us focus on a single thing while other stimuli are still processed, though to a lesser degree, and if one of those other stimuli happens to be significant to us, we can attune to it.

159
Q

Treisman’s Attenuation Model

A

Attempting to account for the cocktail party phenomenon, claiming the brain had an attenuator which can turn down the intensity of an unattended-to-stimulus. This gives the impression that the brain is not attending to the stimulus, but it can turn up the intensity as needed.

160
Q

Divided attention

A

the ability to multi-task

161
Q

resource model of attention

A

the brain has a limited set of resources available for handling tasks: if the resources required to handle two tasks at once are greater than the limited set, the tasks will not be able to carried out simultaneously.

162
Q

Three factors that can affect multi-tasking ability

A

Task similarity, task difficulty, and task practice

163
Q

controlled processing

A

take a lot of effort to focus to get right

164
Q

automatic processing

A

allow us to divide our attention and focus on the other tasks

165
Q

a list of depressants

A

alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepine, opiate, opiods

166
Q

a list of stimulants

A

Amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA(ectasy)

167
Q

alcohol

A

stimulating the production of gamma-aminobutyric acid.

168
Q

barbiturate

A

stimulating the production of gamma-aminobutyric acid.

169
Q

benzodiazepines

A

stimulating the production of gamma-aminobutyric acid.

170
Q

opiate

A

includes drugs such as morphine and codeine. Cause a sense of euphoria and a decreased reaction to pain by binding to opiod receptors in the nervous system.

171
Q

opiod

A

includes drugs such as oxycodone, hydrocodone, and heroin. Cause a sense of euphoria and a decreased reaction to pain by binding to opiod receptors in the nervous system.

172
Q

amphetamines

A

release dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin while simultaneously inhibiting their reabsorption, effectively increasing arousal, increase heart rate and blood pressure, and creating effects on anxiety, delusions of grandeur, euphoria, hypervigilance, and paranoia. Meanwhile, appetite and need for sleep are decreased. Brain damage and stroke can result from prolonged, heavy use, as well as withdrawal symptoms after stopping intake.

173
Q

cocaine

A

release dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Creating intense pleasure for a short duration, which is then followed by a depressive crash. Additionally, cocaine has vasoconstrictive properties, meaning it can lead to heart attacks and strokes.

174
Q

MDMA(ectasy)

A

Stimulating the release of dopamine and serotonin while blocking reabsorption of serotonin. Using ecstasy can cause emotional elevation, euphoric feelings, alertness, and a sense of well being. If use long-termed, it can damage and neurons that produce serotonin, which reduces its production and cause depression.

175
Q

alcohol myopia

A

a short-sighted view of the world, unable to recognize the consequences of actions

176
Q

hallucinogens

A

distort perception, enhance sensory experiences, and cause introspection, all while increasing heart rate and blood pressure, increased body temperature, and a dilation of the pupils.

177
Q

LSD

A

a hallucinogen

178
Q

ketamine

A

a hallucinogen

179
Q

mesaline

A

a hallucinogen

180
Q

peyote

A

a hallucinogen

181
Q

psiocybin

A

a hallucinogen

182
Q

marijuana

A

has a qualities of stimulant, depressant, and hallucinogenic. THC affects cannabinoid, glycine, and opiod receptors in the brain, increases the production of GABA and dopamine. THC can cause an increase in appetite, dry mouth, fatigue, eye redness, lowered blood pressure, and increased heart rate.

183
Q

mesolimbic pathway

A

made up by the nucleus accumbens, the ventral tegmental area, and the area that connects them, the medial forebrain bundle. When activated by addictive drugs, it can give chemical, positive reinforcement for their continued usage.

184
Q

Cognition

A

process by which our brains acquire knowledge and understanding of that knowledge through experience, sensations, and thought.

185
Q

language

A

primary method of human communication, whether written, spoken, or signed, and makes community possible. It is a means through which the brain’s cognitive ability can extend outward into the world.

186
Q

cognitive development

A

refers to the development of thinking and problem solving abilities from early childhood into adulthood.

187
Q

schema

A

patterns of thought that served to organize information into categories, like a mental scaffolding or framework.

188
Q

assimilate

A

put those experiences into our existing schema

189
Q

accommodate

A

adjusting our existing schemas

190
Q

4 stages of cognitive development

A

sensorimotor stage, preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, formal operational stage.

191
Q

Sensorimotor stage

A

birth to age 2, we experience the world exclusively through sensing our environment and crudely moving through it. Object permanence

192
Q

Object permanence

A

An object continue to exist even though we are not looking at or touching them.

193
Q

preoperational stage

A

age 2 to 7, develop symbolic thinking, centration, and are egocentric.

194
Q

symbolic thinking

A

we learn that things and ideas can be represented through symbols such as words, gestures, or pictures.

195
Q

Centration

A

children tend to focus on single aspect of a thing or experience

196
Q

conservation

A

a quantity remains the same despite a change in shape

197
Q

concrete operational stage

A

age 7 to 11, children develop an understanding of conservation, ability to grasp mathematics, become less egocentric, gaining the ability to consider that other people have different perspectives.

198
Q

formal operational stage

A

12 to adulthood. people develop the abilities of abstract and moral reasoning. At this point, the human brain can logically consider and comprehend abstract ideas.

199
Q

recall

A

ability to retrieve information from memory without any clues

200
Q

recognition

A

ability to retrieve information from memory with any clues

201
Q

Lev Vygotsky

A

proposed that the most important driver of cognitive development was how a child internalizes the values of his or her culture.

202
Q

Herditary and environmental influences on cognitive development

A

genetics are responsible for our biological, neurological dispositions, but sociological and cultural factors help to shape those dispositions and point them in certain directions.

203
Q

mental set

A

a similar framework for thinking about problems and solutions that can be used again and again.

204
Q

trial and error

A

most effective when there are relatively few solutions to a problem

205
Q

algorithm

A

step-by-step procedure for solving a problem.

206
Q

deductive reasoning

A

the process of solving a problem by beginning with a set of rules and drawing conclusions and solutions from those rules. Top-down reasoning.

207
Q

inductive reasoning

A

begins with particular instances or information and draws conclusions and solutions from them. bottom-up reasoning.

208
Q

heuristics

A

simply mental shortcuts or simplified iterations of principles that can help us make decisions but can also lead to poor judgment.

209
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

tendency to make decisions about actions or events based upon our standard representations of those events

210
Q

availability heuristic

A

tendency to make decisions about how likely an action or event is based upon how readily available similar information is in our memories.

211
Q

belief bias

A

tendency that people have to judge a thing based not upon sound logic, but upon already held beliefs.

212
Q

confirmation bias

A

tendency that people have to focus on information that is in agreement with the beliefs they already have, rather than the information that is contrary to those beliefs.

213
Q

overconfidence

A

when a person overestimates the accuracy and validity of their judgments and knowledge. It can be the result of heuristics and biases.

214
Q

belief perseverance

A

the human tendency to stick with one’s initial beliefs about something even after receiving new information that disproves or nullifies that initial belief.

215
Q

intuition

A

the ability, developed by experience, to make choices or decisions based on ideas or perception that are not evident based on available information.

216
Q

recognition-primed decision model

A

the brain, in the face of a problem, can sort through a vast amount of information in order to find a proper solution.

217
Q

Emotion

A

instinctive state of mind a person has based upon mood, circumstances, and relationships and and it can often influence a person’s problem solving and decision-making.

218
Q

intelligence

A

the ability to acquire knowledge and skills, and then to apply them.

219
Q

multiple intelligence

A

accounting for seven distinct types of intelligence: bodily-kinesthetic interpersonal, intrapersonal linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, and visual-spatial.

220
Q

a single general intelligence

A

g-factor, that accounted for performance in many difference areas.

221
Q

Stanford-Binet IQ test

A

the test that incorporated Binet’s early work that is used to find intelligent quotient, that is meant to measure a person’s intellectual ability.

222
Q

language acquisition

A

refer to the way that infants rapidly develop a capacity for their native tongue

223
Q

learning theory

A

also known as behavior theory, developed by B.F. Skinner, posits that, because language use is a form of behavior, language acquisition is a direct result of operant conditioning. Within this theory, language acquisition results from an infant behaving in a particular way and its parents providing positive reinforcement, compelling the infant to continue behaving in that particular way.

224
Q

Nativist Theory

A

also known as biological theory. This theory centers around what Chomsky called the “language acquisition device”, an innate element of the human brain that allows people to gain a mastery of language simply through limited exposure during sensitive developmental years, from two years old up until puberty.

225
Q

The social interactionist theory

A

maintains that language develops from the relationship between biological and social phenomena. In this way, a child’s language acquisition is motivated by the child’s desire to communicate and behave socially. Brain development is central to this theory in that the biological capacity for language develops hand in hand with the child’s first exposure to language. As the brain develops, it organizes together sounds and meanings from the words the child is exposed to. As this child interacts socially, proper brain circuits for language are reinforced where others are not, resulting in atrophy of the unused circuits.

226
Q

linguistic relativity hypothesis

A

also known as Whorfian hypothesis, holds that our perception of reality is dependent upon the content of the language that we speak. Whorf believed that language affects cognition more than cognition affects language.

227
Q

Broca’s area

A

located in the left hemisphere of the frontal lobe, control the physical production of speech

228
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

occurs with damage to the Broca’s area, weakening the person’s ability to produce language

229
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

located in the back of the temporal lobe, controls the comprehension of speech and written language.

230
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

A result of damage to Wernicke’s area, causing the loss of speech comprehension. Patients with this disease can still speak and often do so at great length, but their words are nonsensical.

231
Q

emotion

A

instinctive state of mind a person has based upon mood, circumstances, and relationships, and it can often influence a person’s problem solving and decision-making.

232
Q

Stress

A

A psychological and physiological state of emotional or mental strain which results from having to face a difficult circumstance.

233
Q

Three components of emotion

A

behavioral(action), which includes body language and facial expression, cognitive(mind), which is the brain’s subjective interpretation of the feeling, and physiological(body), which accounts for arousal of the sympathetic nervous system, causing changes to blood pressure, heart rate, respiration, skin temperature, and more.

234
Q

Ekman’s universal emotion concept

A

7 basic human emotions: anger, contempt, disgust, fear, happiness, sadness, and surprise.

235
Q

James-Lange Theory

A

An emotional experience is the result of behavioral and physiological actions, meaning that physiological and behavioral responses to a stimulus will lead to the cognitive, subjective element of emotion.

236
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory

A

Cognitive and physiological responses to a stimulus occur concurrently and independently of one another, with a behavioral response following them. However, under this theory, phenomena like smiling increasing feelings of happiness are not explained.

237
Q

Schachter-Singer Theory

A

Once we experience physiological arousal based on a stimulus, the cognitive aspect is conscious: we interpret our circumstances and identify the emotion we are experiencing. Like James-Lange Theory, this theory proposes that emotional experiences are based in physiological reactions, but different in that the cognitive aspect of emotion comes not from a direct correlation to a physiological experience, but from the circumstances and stimuli being experienced. Like Cannon-Bard theory, this allows for similar physiological states to be interpreted differently on the cognitive level.

238
Q

Appraisal

A

the term used for how an event and its level of stressfulness are interpreted by an individual.

239
Q

Stressors are divided into two camps

A

distress and eustress

240
Q

distress

A

result of an unpleasant stresstor

241
Q

eustress

A

the result of a more positive stressor

242
Q

stressors are divided into three types

A

daily hassles, catastrophes, and significant life changes

243
Q

daily hassle

A

mundane experiences like bad traffic and bills that can be taken in stride or add up, little by little, to a lot of stress

244
Q

catastrophes

A

large-scale events that cannot be predicted, affecting a large number of people. Natural disasters and wartime events are catastrophes that can affect people in different ways.

245
Q

Significant life changes

A

Major events that happen in our lifetimes, like losing a job, getting married, the death of a loved one, that can lead to significant stress.

246
Q

Forms of stres

A

predictability, control over a situation, pressure to make decisions, and conflict between multiple decisions are also forms of stress.

247
Q

learned helplessness

A

An overwhelming sense that a goal cannot be accomplished, can develop.

248
Q

Problem-focused strategies

A

reaching out for social support from family and friends, confronting the issue head-on, and the creation of a systematic plan for overcoming or solving the problem the stressor poses.

249
Q

Emotionally focused strategies

A

reappraising a situation and attempting to find positive aspects of the stressor, distancing oneself from or avoiding the issue, and using self control to deal with the stress.

250
Q

Encoding

A

the process the brain uses to transfer new sensory information into memory. There are two general ways this happens: automatic processing and controlled processing.

251
Q

Automatic processing

A

refers to information that is processed into memory without any effort

252
Q

Controlled processing

A

refers to a more effortful process of creating memories.

253
Q

Visual encoding

A

we visualize new information to be stored in memory. this is the weakest form of encoding.

254
Q

Acoustic encoding

A

we concentrate and memorize the way something sounds.

255
Q

Semantic encoding

A

We put new information into the context of information we already have committed to memory. This is the strongest form of encoding.

256
Q

Self-reference effect

A

a type of semantic encoding. The human tendency to most readily recall information that pertains directly to our lives and ourselves.

257
Q

Mnemonic

A

A device or technique that can help encourage the encoding of information to memory.

258
Q

Maintenance rehearsal

A

Repeating a phrase over and over again until you’ve memorized it.

259
Q

Chunking

A

A person groups information into separate chuks

260
Q

Hierarchies

A

Grouping that information into ordered groups

261
Q

Dual coding hypothesis

A

According to this theory, it is easier to memorize words that are paired with a specific image than to memorize either individual word or image.

262
Q

Depth of processing

A

An important factor in how likely information is to be encoded into memory: the deeper the processing of a memory, the more likely we are to remember it.

263
Q

Method of loci

A

A person associates an item to be memorized at points along an already memorized route.

264
Q

Sensory information

A

The initial recording of encoded sensory information, and is therefore the most fleeting form of memory storage. It doesn’t last more than one second and will be lost unless further attended to.

265
Q

Two types of sensory information

A

iconic memory and echoic memory

266
Q

Iconic memory

A

responsible for visual information and lasting only for a few tenth of a second

267
Q

echoic memory

A

responsible for auditory information and lasting for 3 to 4 seconds.

268
Q

Short-term memory

A

like sensory memory, but last up to 30 seconds and can typically only handle about seven pieces of information at once.

269
Q

Working memory

A

the element of short-term memory that allows us to consciously process and manipulate a few pieces of information.

270
Q

Elaborative rehearsal

A

requiring incoming information to be associated with information that has already made its way through into long-term memory

271
Q

Two types of long term memory

A

implicit(nondeclarative) and explicit(declarative)

272
Q

implicit memory

A

accounts for acquired skills and conditioned responses to circumstances and stimuli.

273
Q

procedural memory

A

accounts for motor skills and specific physical actions.

274
Q

Which component of the brain plays a role in encoding implicit memories?

A

the cerebellum

275
Q

explicit memory

A

accounts for memories that we must consciously recall with effort and focus.

276
Q

Two types of explicit memory

A

semantic memory and episodic memory

277
Q

Episodic memory

A

Accounts for our experiences

278
Q

Semantic memory

A

accounts for facts and concepts that we know

279
Q

Which component of the brain plays a role in encoding explicit memories?

A

Hippocampus

280
Q

Which component of the brain plays a role in encoding explicit memories?

A

Hippocampus

281
Q

Recall

A

The ability to retrieve stored information

282
Q

Free recall

A

retrieve stored information without any further information

283
Q

cued recall

A

retrieve stored information after being provided with a cue, or some other information to help find that stored memory.

MCAT (5 decks)

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