Psychology

Question 1

What is Learning Theory?

Answer 1

Learning is defined as a process which experience produces a relatively enduring change in an organism’s behaviour or capabilities. Learning theory is from the perspective of behaviourists, exploring the concepts of Classical and Operant Conditioning as well as Observational learning.

Question 2

What are the elements of behaviour?

Answer 2

There are three elements to behaviour: A.B.C:

• Antecedent: A cue which is an environmental stimulus that exists before the behaviour of interest, these may be internal of external to the subject.
• Behaviour: The behaviour of interest.
• Consequence: a stimulus which follows the behaviour of interest.

Question 3

What is habituation?

Answer 3

Habituation is where the nervous system learns to ignore a stimulus. Habituation if due to reduced neurotransmitter release by the sensory neurone and relevant interneurones in response to the stimulus (usually tactile). The memory of habituation is distributed across several synapses in the circuit.

Question 4

What is sensitisation?

Answer 4

Sensitisation is where the nervous system learns to increase the response to a stimulus. This is usually due to a harmful stimulus, leading to greater neurotransmitter release.

Question 5

What is Classical Conditioning?

Answer 5

Classical Conditioning is the linking of a previously neutral stimulus to an unconditioned stimulus to create a conditioned stimulus to elicit the automatic response.

Question 6

What are the different stimuli and response terms used when describing classical conditioning?

Answer 6

An unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is a stimulus that elicits a reflexive or innate response without prior learning.

A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a stimulus that, through association with a UCS comes to elicit a conditioned response similar to the original UCR.

An unconditioned response (UCR) is a reflexive or innate response that is elicited by an unconditioned stimulus without prior learning.

A conditioned response (CR) is a response elicited by a conditioned stimulus.

Question 7

When is classical conditioning strongest?

Answer 7

Classical conditioning is strongest when:
• There are repeated CS-UCS pairings
• The UCS is more intense
• The sequence involves forward pairing (When the UCS is introduced after the CS)
• The time interval between the CS and UCS is short

Question 8

By what process does classical conditioning become weaker?

Answer 8

The classical conditioning does not last forever; presenting the conditioned stimulus in the absence of the UCS causes the conditioned response to weaken, and eventually disappear. This is a process called extinction.

Question 9

What is stimulus generalisation?

Answer 9

Stimulus generalisation is the tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar but not identical. For example, Pavlov’s dog may also respond to a tone. However, the similar stimulus needs to be a similar frequency to the CS.

Question 10

What is higher order conditioning?

Answer 10

Higher order conditioning occurs when the conditioned stimulus is associated with another stimulus (previously neutral). For example, Pavlov’s dog may associate a light with the bell.

Question 11

Describe the basis of Operant Conditioning

Answer 11

Thorndike’s Law of Effect states that what happens as a result of behaviour (the consequence) will influence the rate of occurrence of that behaviour. If the consequences are positive, the behaviour is likely to be repeated, if the consequences are aversive, it is less likely to be repeated. Operant conditioning is behaviour that is learned and maintained by its consequences. The conditioning can be maintained by a reinforcement or punishment.

Question 12

What is the difference between a reinforcement and a punishment?

Answer 12

A reinforcement is when a response is strengthened by an outcome that follows it.
A punishment is when the response is weakened by an outcome that follows it.

Question 13

What is the most powerful method for operant conditioning?

Answer 13

Positive reinforcement is a much more potent influencer of behaviour compared to punishment. This is because punishment can only make certain behaviours less frequent, while reinforcement can teach new behaviours.

Question 14

Define and describe the various schedules of reinforcement

Answer 14

A fixed interval schedule is reinforcement that occurs after a fix time. A variable interval schedule is where time interval time varies at random around average.
A fixed ratio interval is where reinforcement is given after a fixed number of responses. A variable ratio schedule is where reinforcement is given after a variable number of responses, all cantered around a mean.

Question 15

Describe a cognitive psychologist’s take on learning

Answer 15

Cognitive theorists rejected behaviourism for not paying attention to the internal world of people as active meaning-maker. They argued people are not just passive agents to various environmental reinforcers but highlighted the role of introspection and innate capacity (e.g. for language development).

Question 16

Define health behaviour

Answer 16

Health behaviour is an activity undertaken by an individual believing himself to be healthy, for the purpose of preventing disease or detecting it at an asymptomatic stage.

Question 17

Explain the role of health education in disease prevention.

Answer 17

Education has an important role in DISCRETE behaviours such as getting a child vaccinated. However, people need more than knowledge to change habitual lifestyle behaviours. We therefore use a combined approach of education, individualised support, as well as economic and regulatory support.

Question 18

Why do many unhealthy behaviours become habitual?

Answer 18

due to regular repetition of a cue, a behaviour, and a reward. Unhealthy bevaiours are able to provide positive reinforcement when dopamine is released in the NAcc. And negative reinforcement when avoiding negative emotions while comfort eating.

Question 19

What are Bandura’s steps in modelling?

Answer 19

1. Pay attention to model
2. Remember what was done
3. Must be able to reproduce modelled behaviour
4. If successful or behaviour is rewarded, behaviour is more likely to occur

Question 20

Describe Bandura’s Bobo Doll experiment

Answer 20

His Bobo Doll experiment (1961) showed children could learn to imitate adult behaviour in the absence of reinforcement. Bandura arranged for 24 boys and girls to watch a male or female model behaving aggressively towards a toy called a ‘Bobo doll’. Another 24 children were exposed no a non-aggressive model, and another 24 children not exposed to any model at all. It was found that children who observed the aggressive models made far more imitative aggressive responses than those who were in the non-aggressive or control groups.

Question 21

Who’s experiment showed that the effect of education on smoking was negligible?

Answer 21

Nutbeam et al (1993)

Question 22

What did Janis and Fesbach (1953) show?

Answer 22

fear arousal was actually counterproductive when trying to learn a behaviour, as it can lead to denial and avoidance behaviour.

Question 23

What is the expectancy-value theory?

Answer 23

The expectancy-value theory states that the potential for a behaviour to occur is a function of the expectancy that the behaviour will lead to a certain outcome, and the value of the outcome.

Question 24

Define self-efficacy

Answer 24

Self-efficacy refers to an individual’s belief in his or her capacity to execute behaviours necessary to produce specific performance attainments

Question 25

What are the four sources of self-efficacy?

Answer 25

1. Experience – the experience of mastery is the most important factor determining a person's self-efficacy. Success raises self-efficacy, while failure lowers it. 2. Modelling - Modelling is experienced as, "If they can do it, I can do it as well." When we see someone succeeding, our own self-efficacy increases; where we see people failing, our self-efficacy decreases. 3. Social persuasion – discouragement is more effective in lowering self-efficacy than encouragement 4. Physiological factors - Getting 'butterflies in the stomach' before public speaking will be interpreted by someone with low self-efficacy as a sign of inability, thus decreasing self-efficacy further, where high self-efficacy would lead to interpreting such physiological signs as normal and unrelated to ability.

Question 26

Outline the Health Beliefs model.

Answer 26

Perceived Threat and Perceived benefits vs costs influences likelihood of behavioural change. Background variable such as age, personality, knowledge affects above inputs. Also affects perceived susceptibility and perceived seriousness, which affects perceived threat. Cues to action also affects perceived threat.

Question 27

Online the Theory of Planned Behaviour

Answer 27

The theory states that attitude toward behaviour, subjective norms, and perceived behavioural control, together influence one's INTENTION of changing behaviour. The intention and perceived behavioural control will then dictate if one will change behaviour

Question 28

Outline the Transtheoretical Model of Change

Answer 28

the stages of change, which are: pre-contemplation --> contemplation --> preparation --> action --> maintenance. However, it can lead to relapse, from which one must start over again - but learning from each replace

Question 29

Define and discriminate between sensation and perception.

Answer 29

- Sensation is the stimulus detection process by which our sense organs respond to and translate environmental stimuli into nerve impulses that are sent to the brain. - Perception is the active process of organising the stimulus output and giving it meaning.

Question 30

Contrast bottom-up and top-down processing of sensory information.

Answer 30

- Bottom-up processing is a process that consists of recognising and processing information from individual components of a stimuli and constructing a perception of the whole. - Top-down processing is when prior knowledge, expectations or thoughts act on this information to influence our final perceptual state

Question 31

Define attention

Answer 31

Attention is the process of focusing consciousness awareness, providing heightened sensitivity to a limited range of experience requiring more intensive processing.

Question 32

What are the two processes of attention?

Answer 32

- Focusing on a particular aspect | - Filtering out other information

Question 33

Describe different influences on perception and attention.

Answer 33

- Properties of the stimulus can affect attention, for example, intensity, movement, novelty, contrast and repetition. - Personal factors can also affect attention such as one’s motives, interests, threats, mood and arousal level.

Question 34

Describe factors affecting perception of physical symptoms.

Answer 34

- Attention (paying attention will increase its presence in our minds) - Environment (such as perceived proximity to a threat) - Expectation - Emotion

Question 35

Describe the impact of attentional and perceptual processes on when clinical mistakes are more likely to be made

Answer 35

When: - The correct response is not the strongest nor the most habitual - When full attention is not given - Under stress of anxiety

Question 36

Describe how the processes of attention can contribute to medical errors

Answer 36

Attention is narrowed when we’re stressed, this is actually beneficial when dealing with emergencies, as the clinician is able to focus their attention solely on the emergency. However, this also means that peripheral information is often ignored, leading to errors.

Question 37

When does the critical period of language acquision end?

Answer 37

- after age 8

Question 38

Explain the importance of hemisphere lateralization and the regions of the brain involved in language

Answer 38

There is hemispheric specialisation for language where the left hemisphere is involved. 95% of right-handed people have left-hemisphere dominance for language. Only 18.8% of left-handed people have right-handed dominance of language.

Question 39

Define aphasia

Answer 39

Aphasia is a disturbance in formation and comprehension in language.

Question 40

What are the main types of aphasia?

Answer 40

- Broca's (expressive) aphasia is characterised by non fluent speech but in tact comprehension. - Wenicke's (receptive) aphasia is characterised by problems in comprehending speech, but with fluent meaningless speech.

Question 41

Where is Broca'a area?

Answer 41

In the frontal lobe

Question 42

Where is Werkicke's area?

Answer 42

In the posterior superior temporal gyrus.

Question 43

Describe the Wernicke-Geshwind model of language

Answer 43

1. Sounds are first processed by the auditory cortex which passes its input to.. 2. Wernicke’s area where the sounds are decoded and comprehended (a similar process occurs for written words except that in this case, information flows from the visual cortex to the angular gyrus before passing to Wernicke’s area) 3. Then, if a response is necessary, Wernicke’s area further translates thought processes into verbal responses which are transmitted to Broca’s area via the left arcuate fasciculus 4. In Broca’s area, there are necessary neurons for articulation and complex muscle co-ordination so that the appropriate spoken language reply can be voiced.

Question 44

Define the dysexecutive syndrome

Answer 44

Dysexecutive syndrome is a series of symptoms usually resulting from brain damage, which fall into cognitive, behavioural and emotional categories and tend to occur together.

Question 45

Define temperament

Answer 45

Temperament refers to those aspects of an individual's personality, such as introversion or extroversion, that are often regarded as innate rather than learned.

Question 46

Describe nature and nurture in developmental psychology

Answer 46

Nature sets out a course via gender, genetics, temperament and maturation stages. Nurture shapes this predetermined course via the environment; parenting, stimulation and nutrition.

Question 47

Describe the process of reciprocal development

Answer 47

It can take a child about a year to walk, however, babies are able to imitate expressions (e.g. sticking out tongue). Adults respond, imitate, soothe, talk and so the social dance begins. This reciprocal socialisation is actually bidirectional – children socialise the parents just as the parents socialise the children. The behaviours of mothers and infants involve substantial interconnection, mutual regulation, and synchronisation

Question 48

Explain how parents can provide a supportive environment for development

Answer 48

- Scaffolding - Reciprocal socialisation - Providing a stimulating and enriching environment

Question 49

Define attachment

Answer 49

Attachment is the strong emotional bond that develops between children and their primary caregivers over the first few years of life.

Question 50

When does the process of establishing attachment begin?

Answer 50

Before birth

Question 51

What study looked a child's attachment to their caregiver?

Answer 51

The Strange Situation case study by Mary Ainsworth et al

Question 52

Describe the attachment styles

Answer 52

- Secure attachment describes children who sought social reassurance/proximity from the parent in the presence of the stranger, and distress upon separation. - Avoidant-insecure children showed little exploration and little emotional response to the mother. - Resistant-insecure children showed little exploration, great separation anxiety, and ambivalent response to mother upon return. - Disorganised-insecure children showed little exploration and a confused response to the mother.

Question 53

Describe the stages in Piaget's stage model of cognitive development

Answer 53

- Sensori-motor: (0-2y) - object permanence develops, child is completely egocentric - Peroperational: (2-7y) - language is used to represent world. Cannot see different perspectives - Concrete operational (7-12y): can perform reversible mental operations - Formal operational (12+): can apply logic more abstractly

Question 54

Outline cognitive, emotional and relationship changes during adolescence

Answer 54

* Openness to new experiences * Risk taking * Social rewards are very strong * Preferring company of same age * Emotionality becomes less positive through early adolescence, but level off and become more stable by late adolescence * Storms and stress more likely during adolescence than rest of the lifespan but not characteristic of all adolescents.

Question 55

What is the Transactional definition of stress?

Answer 55

Stress is a condition that results when the personal/environmental transactions lead the individual to perceive a discrepancy between the demands of the situation and the coping resources available

Question 56

What are the strategies in preparing patients for a treatment (reducing stress)

Answer 56

1. Increase predictability 2. Increase perceived control 3. Identify patient coping style

Question 57

What are the two types of information that can help reduce distress with treatment?

Answer 57

- Procedural information | - Sensory information

Question 58

Describe the Dual Processing Hypothesis

Answer 58

Giving both sensory and procedural information produced the most impact. This is because procedural information works by allowing patients to match ongoing events with their expectations, while sensory information works by mapping a non-threatening interpretation on these expectations. This is the Dual Processing Hypothesis (Suls and Wan 1989).

Question 59

What were the contributions made by Auerbach at al in reducing distress felt by treatment?

Answer 59

Auerbach et al (1983) compared the effect of giving general or specific information about the procedures. Both levels of information produced a similar level of distress, however there is an interaction between the amount of information given and the individual’s coping preference for information. Those that prefer a low amount of information found general information less distressing and those that prefer a high amount of information found specific information less distressing.

Question 60

Describe the study that showed the effect of perceived control on patient distress.

Answer 60

Langer and Rodin (1976) conducted a study at a nursing home, putting patients into two floors. Patients in Floor 1 could control their leisurely activities, furniture etc., Patients in Floor 2 were given timetables with activities, and had their rooms taken care of. The study found that patients in floor 1 showed greater engagement in activities, had a better well being, and had a lower mortality rate.

Question 61

Describe the types of COPING strategies

Answer 61

- Problem focused coping is where the efforts are directed in changing the environment in some way or changing one’s actions or attitudes. Examples may be seeking health information, learning procedures, changing behaviour. - Emotion focused coping is where efforts are directed in managing stress-related emotional responses in order to maintain one’s morale and allow one to function. Examples include meditation, relaxation, distraction, praying.

Question 62

What study shows the importance in matching preparation to the patient's preferred coping style?

Answer 62

A study conducted by Martelli et al (1997) involved surveying patients based on their preference of coping style before they underwent an oral surgery. Before surgery they were given either an emotional or problem focused (or mixed) preparation. Those who’s style was matched experienced less anxiety than those who were not matched.

Question 63

Describe and give examples of specific considerations for helping children cope with treatment.

Answer 63

Three steps to prepare children: 1. Tell: using simple language, what the procedure will entail. 2. Show: the procedure is demonstrated on an inanimate object, a member of staff 3. Do: the procedure does not begin until the child understands what will be done.

Question 64

Outline the ‘Big Five’ trait model of personality.

Answer 64

We have five-factors to our personality: - Openness - Conscientiousness - Extroversion - Agreeableness - Neuroticism

Question 65

Describe Spearman’s two factor theory of intelligence

Answer 65

Spearman believed that intelligence involved a GENERAL factor (g) and a SPECIFIC factor. He developed a statistical procedure called factor analysis, which compared one’s ability to perform in one aspect, to other aspects. He found that people who performed highly in one area, also scored highly in other areas. He named this intelligence general intelligence – concluding there must be a central factor that influence’s one’s ability to perform this way.

Question 66

Discriminate between crystallised and fluid intelligence

Answer 66

- Crystallised intelligence (Gc) is the ability to apply previously acquired knowledge to current problems. - Fluid intelligence (Fc) is the ability to deal with novel problem-solving situations for which personal experience does not provide a solution.

Question 67

How does crystallised and fluid intelligence change with age?

Answer 67

- Crystallised intelligence increases with age, before stabilising. - Fluid intelligence peaks at around 20 years of age and steadily declines

Question 68

What are the factors determining cognitive ability at age 79?

Answer 68

- Cognitive ability at age 11 (59%) - Physical fitness (17%) - Social class as an adult (10%) - Sex (8%) - APOE e4 (Alzheimer’s gene) (8%)

Question 69

Define IQ

Answer 69

IQ = mental age/chronological age (x100)

Question 70

Describe the findings of twin studies on the roles of heredity and environment in intelligence research.

Answer 70

Genes account for 1/3-2/3 of variation in IQ. However, there is no single intelligence gene. The environment can determine how these genes are expressed and account for 1/3-1/2 of the variation in IQ. Educational experiences are very important here.

Question 71

What are the gender differences in intelligence

Answer 71

- Men outperform women on spatial, target- directed and mathematical reasoning tasks. - Women outperform men on perceptual speed, verbal fluency, mathematical calculation, and precise manual tasks.

Question 72

Describe the autism and asperger's syndrome ratios of distribution between male and female

Answer 72

Autism has a 4:1 male:female ratio. Asperger’s syndrome has a 9:1 male:female ratio

Question 73

Define Simon Baron-Cohen’s Systemising and Empathising Quotients

Answer 73

- Empathising consists of being able to infer the thoughts and feelings of others, and having an appropriate emotional reaction. - Systemising is the drive to analyse or construct any kind of system in order to predict how that system will behave.

Question 74

How do Simon Baron-Cohen’s Systemising and Empathising Quotients relate to autism?

Answer 74

He found that females had a greater empathising quotient than males, who had a greater empathising quotient than individuals with autism. While males had a greater systemising quotient than females, but those with autism had the greatest systemising quotient.

Question 75

Outline Kübler-Ross’s Stage Theory model of adjustment to dying

Answer 75

1. Denial – they may lie about their situation and tell themselves that this is just temporary and everything will be back to normal. 2. Anger – the patient feels generalised rage at the world for allowing this to happen. They may thing it’s unfair that it happened to them. 3. Bargaining – They make an attempt to strike bargains with God, spouse, etc. 4. Depression – The person is absorbed by intense pain they feel from having their world be torn apart. They can be overwhelmed by feelings of helplessness. 5. Acceptance – The loss is accepted, and efforts are made to minimise and coping with loss.

Question 76

Explain why stage theories are popular with patients and health professionals

Answer 76

This theory has become embedded in western culture because of it’s linear progression and applicable nature.

Question 77

What are the criticisms presented by Wortman and Silver to Kubler-Ross' Stage Theory?

Answer 77

1. Distress of depression is inevitable. (only 1/3 of patients actually become depressed or distressed) 2. Distress is necessary and failure to experience distress is indicative as pathology. (Not everyone gets distressed) 3. The importance of ‘working through’ a loss (Little evidence that this is actually helpful) 4. Expectations of a recovery (Some people don’t necessarily reach the point of recovery ) 5. Reaching a state of resolution (Resolution occurs at different times for different people)

Question 78

Outline Moo's Crisis Theory of adjustment

Answer 78

Moos’ Crisis Theory of adjustment postulates that a) illness-related factors, b) background/personal factors and c) physical and social environmental factors influence our coping process and thus the outcome of the crisis.

Question 79

Define Leventhal’s five dimensions of illness representations.

Answer 79

Leventhal’s Illness representations defines illness representation as a ‘patient’s own implicit, common sense beliefs about their illness’. It has five dimensions: 1. Identity: can be considered the label of the illness and the symptoms the patients view as being part of the illness 2. Cause: the patients’ views about what may have caused their problem, such as genetic factors, family circumstances, trauma, etc. 3. Consequences: include the effects the clients are expecting from their illness and their views on the outcome 4. Time line: the clients’ view about how long their problem will last and whether it is seen as acute, chronic or episodic 5. Curability/controllability: the patients’ expectations as they recover from or control the illness

Question 80

Define attitude

Answer 80

An attitude is a positive or negative evaluation towards a stimulus such as a person, object, action or concept.

Question 81

What are our sources of cognitive dissonance?

Answer 81

- Belief discontinuance (information presented that contradicts beliefs) - Free choice (people think of the positive aspects of the choice they have taken) - Hypocrisy - Induced compliance (people act in opposition to their beliefs for no reason)

Question 82

When are the types of framing more effective?

Answer 82

- Loss-framed strategies are effective if we want people to take up behaviour aimed at detecting health problems - Gain-framed strategies are effective if we want people to take up behaviour to promote health

Question 83

Define stereotype

Answer 83

A generalisation made about a group of people

Question 84

Define prejudice

Answer 84

A negative prejudgement of a group of people or its individual members

Question 85

What is social loafing?

Answer 85

The tendency for people to expend less individual effort when working in a group than when working alone

Question 86

When is social loafing most likely to occur?

Answer 86

- When they believe they are not being monitored - When they expect others to put more effort in - If the task/goal has less value to the individual - general low motivation

Question 87

Define conformity

Answer 87

It is the adjustment of behaviour, attitudes, and beliefs to a group standard.

Question 88

What factors affect conformity

Answer 88

- Size of the group - Presence of a dissenter - Culture (more common in collectivistic cultures - Unanimity - Cohesion - Status - Public response - Lack of prior commitment

Question 89

Describe the famous experiment done on group conformity

Answer 89

Asch conducted an experiment where they placed a subject in a room of confederates and asked to match a line to either A, B or C. Even through the subject knew the answer, 1/3 of them conformed to the group.

Question 90

Who conducted the famous experiment to show the power of authority?

Answer 90

Milgram

Question 91

What factors influence obedience? (Milligram's experiment)

Answer 91

- Remoteness of the victim - Closeness and legitimacy of the authority figure - Diffusion of responsibility NOT one's personal characteristics

Question 92

What is groupthink?

Answer 92

When individuals in a group suspend critical thinking because they strive to seek agreement

Question 93

Define the bystander effect

Answer 93

The bystander effect is the presence of multiple bystanders inhibiting each person's tendency to help due to social comparison or diffusion of responsibility

Question 94

What was the five-step process of the bystander decision process analysed by Latane and Darley?

Answer 94

1. Notice the event 2. Decide if its an emergency (social comparison) 3. Assume responsibility to intervene (diffusion of responsibly) 4. Self-efficacy in dealing with the situation 5. Decision to help is based on cost-befit analysis of danger

Question 95

What are the two systems of thinking when making decisions?

Answer 95

- Hot system is: unconscious, fast, automatic, low effort, attenuated by stress, independent from working memory, non-verbal and evolutionarily old - Cold system is: conscious, controlled, high effort, slow, attenuated by stress, limited by working capacity and linked to language and evolutionarily new.

Question 96

Define confirmation bias

Answer 96

The focus on information that confirms our initial hypothesis

Question 97

List the common types of errors made in decision making?

Answer 97

- Confirmation bias - Anchoring - Gambler's fallacy - Sunk Cost fallacy - Framing - Heuristics

Question 98

Define algorithms

Answer 98

An algorithm is a logical series of steps ti take in order to make a decision most effectively

Question 99

Define memory

Answer 99

The process used to acquire, store and retain and later retrieve information.

Question 100

What are the processes memory can be split into?

Answer 100

- Registration - Encoding - Storage - Retrieval

Question 101

What are the classifications of memory?

Answer 101

- sensory memory - working memory - long-term memory

Question 102

What can working memory hold?

Answer 102

7+-2 items. 7 digits 6 letters 5 words

Question 103

Describe the multicomponent model of working memory

Answer 103

A central executive acts as a supervisory stem, controlling the flow of information to its slave systems: Visio-Spacial sketchpad, Phonological loop and Episodic buffer. The Episodic buffer integrates this information and provides an interface for long-term memory.

Question 104

What are the types of long-term memory retrieval mechanisms?

Answer 104

- explicit/declarative (conscious) | - implicit/non-declarative (subconscious)

Question 105

What are the types of long-term memory?

Answer 105

- Procedural memory (non-declarative) - Episodic memory (declarative) - Semantic memory (declarative) - Autobiographical memory

Question 106

Define schema

Answer 106

A mental structure that represents some aspect of the world

Question 107

What are the five ways in which schemas influence memory construction?

Answer 107

1. Selection (information that doesn't fit schema is ignored) 2. Abstraction (inclined to remember the overall gist) 3. Interpretation 4. Normalisation (memories are distorted to fit our schema) 5. Retrieval

Question 108

What did the Eyewitness Testimony experiment show?

Answer 108

The misinformation effect is the distortion of a memory by misleading post-event information

Question 109

What ways can you commit information to memory?

Answer 109

1. Rote learning (least efficient) 2. Assimilation into existing schemas, involves deep processing 3. Mnemonic devices are artificial structures for reorganising or encoding information to make it easier to remember 3. Moving the body

Question 110

What are the reasons we forget information?

Answer 110

- Ineffective encoding - Decay theory - Interference theory (competition for space) - Encoding specificity principle

Question 111

Define 'Adherence' and 'Compliance'

Answer 111

- Adherence is the ability to stick to a behaviour such as taking medication - Compliance is acting according to a request or command

Question 112

Describe the types of non-adherence

Answer 112

- Unintentional (involves the patient's ability and resources) - Intentional (involves patient's beliefs, and motivations creating a perceptual barrier

Question 113

What factors affect recall about medical information?

Answer 113

- Anxiety - Medical knowledge - Memory impairment

Question 114

What are the presentation factors to improve medical information recall in patients?

Answer 114

1. Amount of information 2. Order 3. Stressing importance 4. Specificity 5. Mode of presentation 6. Give written information

Question 115

What model can be used to tailor interventions to increase compliance?

Answer 115

COM-B - Capacity - Opportunity - Motivation - --> Behaviour

Question 116

Define stress

Answer 116

Stress can be a stimulus that requires to adapt in some manner as well as a sympathetic adrenergic response.

Question 117

Describe the General Adaptation Syndrome

Answer 117

Three phases: 1. Alarm phase is the immediate activation of the sympathetic nervous system. 2. Resistance to stress 3. Exhaustion of resources to sustain high levels of cortisol

Question 118

How can stress lead to illness?

Answer 118

- Behavioural changes such as smoking | - Physiological changes due to high cortisol. Can lead to MI and immunosuppression

Question 119

Describe the 10 characteristics of a Type A personality

Answer 119

1. Time-urgency 2. Free-floating hostility 3. Hyper-aggressiveness 4. Focus on accomplishment 5. Competitive and Goal-driven 6. Obsessed with Time Management 7. Proactive 8. Impatient 9. Sensitive 10. Raised risk of Coronary Heart Disease

Question 120

What is the Placebo and Nocebo effect?

Answer 120

- Placebo is when no active ingredient is given, but still results in improvement - Nocebo is when no active ingredient is given, but still results in adverse symptoms

Question 121

What are the three main symptoms of stress burnout?

Answer 121

1. Emotional and Physical Exhaustion 2. Depersonalisation 3. Reduced Personal Accomplishment

Question 122

What is the most common mental disorder in Britain?

Answer 122

Mixed anxiety and depression

Question 123

Give 8 symptoms of a panic attack (4 is needed for a diagnosis)

Answer 123

- Palpitations, pending heart, or accelerated heart rate - Sweating - Sensations of shortness of breath or smothering - Trembling/shaking - Chest pain - Feeling dizzy, unsteady, lightheaded or faint - Feelings of unreality or detachment from oneself - Fear of losing control / going cray

Question 124

What are the features of CBT?

Answer 124

- Focus on problematic beliefs and behaviours - Goal orientated - Collaborative - Brief (8-12 sessions) - Based on a scientific approach