Psychology Exam Revision

Question 1

Brain​

Answer 1

Regulates and guides all other parts of the nervous system including: ​

• Initiates, responds and controls all bodily functions and actions. e.g. breathing
• Receiving and processing sensory information from the outside world via the senses and co-ordinating appropriate responses. ​

Question 2

Spinal Cord​

Answer 2

Spinal cord is the two-direction superhighway for all information/messages coming to (sensory - afferent) and leaving (motor - efferent) the brain. ​

These two pathways are called tracts.

Question 3

Major Functions of Spinal Cord​

Answer 3

Receives sensory information from the body (via the PNS) and transmit them to the brain up the spinal cord for processing.

Receives motor information from the brain and sends it to the relevant parts of the body (via the PNS) to control muscles, glands and internal organs so appropriate actions can be taken.

Initiating certain types of reflex responses that occur independently of the brain e.g. spinal reflex.

Question 4

Peripheral Nervous System​

Answer 4

Carries sensory information from the rest of the body to the CNS and motor information from the CNS to the rest of the body.​

Question 5

Somatic Nervous System​

Answer 5

Consists of sensory and motor nerves connected to the CNS:​

• Sensory (afferent neurons) – transmits sensory information received by the sensory receptors in the body such as eyes, TO the CNS.
• Motor (efferent neurons) – transmits impulses FROM the CNS to control any VOLUNTARY movements of the skeletal muscles (e.g. fingers, legs etc).

Question 6

Autonomic Nervous System ​

Answer 6

Comprises of nerves that control the body’s AUTOMATIC, INVOLUNTARY functions.
It is mostly responsible for communication between the CNS and the body’s non-skeletal, visceral muscles as well as internal organs (such as the heart) and glands (such as adrenal glands) which carry out basic bodily functions necessary for basic survival.

Question 7

Sympathetic Nervous System ​

Answer 7

Increases the responsiveness of many internal muscles (non-skeletal), organs and glands for significant physical activity, stress or when threatened. ​

As the body prepares for action:​

• Adrenaline is released into bloodstream​
• Heart rate, blood pressure, respiration rate increase​
• Saliva production, stomach contractions decrease​
• Pupils dilate​
• Blood flow to skeletal muscles increase​
• Blood sugar levels increase​

Question 8

Parasympathetic Nervous System ​

Answer 8

Decreases the responsiveness of the muscles, organs and glands thereby conserving our energy and returning our internal systems to the balanced level of functioning. ​
2 functions; ​
- It returns the body to a calm state by reversing the direction of the changes of the sympathetic nervous system once the threat has passed.
- It minimises energy use and keeps the internal body environment in a steady, balanced, homeostatic state of normal functioning.

Question 9

Fight-Flight-Freeze Response​

Answer 9

The “fight-flight-freeze response” is our body’s primitive, automatic, inborn response that prepares the body to “fight” or “flee” or “freeze” from perceived attack, harm or threat to our survival.​

Question 10

Neuron

Answer 10

Defined as an individual nerve cell that is specialised to receive, process and/or transmit information to other cells in the body.​

Question 11

Dendrites​

Answer 11

Function ​

• They detect and receive information from other neurons.​
• Each spine provides a site with receptors where a neuron can connect with and receive information from a neighbouring neuron.​

Question 12

Axon

Answer 12

Structure​
- An axon is a single, tubelike, extension.​

Function​
- It transmits neural information away from the soma towards other neurons.

Question 13

Myelin

Answer 13

Structure​
- Myelin is a white, fatty substance surrounding the axon of a neuron.​

Function​

• It insulates the axon, and prevents interference from the activity of other nearby axons.​
• It also allows for the rapid movement of the message along the axon without being interrupted or distorted. ​

Question 14

Axon Terminals​

Answer 14

Function​
- They store and secrete neurotransmitters that are manufactured by the neuron and carries its chemical message to other neurons or cells.​

Question 15

Synaptic Transmission​

Answer 15

When the neural impulse reaches the end of each axon, the terminal buttons releases chemicals called neurotransmitters.

The neuron that releases the neurotransmitter is called the presynaptic neuron, while the neuron that receives the neurotransmitter is called the postsynaptic neuron. ​

These receptors are specialised to receive specific neurotransmitters. ​

Any neurotransmitter that does not bind to a receptor successfully, is absorbed back into the terminal button by the presynaptic neuron in a process called reuptake.​

Sometimes the neurotransmitter activates a neural impulse on the postsynaptic neuron. At other times, the neurotransmitter inhibits or prevents the postsynaptic neuron from firing.​

​

Question 16

Lock-and-Key Process​

Answer 16

This process involves a neurotransmitter with a distinctive shape (a ‘key’) that precisely matches the shape of the receptor site (a ‘lock’) on the postsynaptic neuron where it will bind (‘unlock’) or attach to its receptors. ​

Question 17

Excitatory Effect ​

Answer 17

An excitatory effect occurs when a neurotransmitter such as glutamate stimulates or activates a postsynaptic neuron to perform its functions.​

This makes the postsynaptic neuron more likely to fire and enhance transmission.​

Question 18

Inhibitory Effect​

Answer 18

An inhibitory effect occurs when a neurotransmitter such as GABA blocks or prevents a postsynaptic neuron from firing and therefore performing its functions.​

Question 19

Conscious Response​

Answer 19

A reaction that involves awareness​, controlled by the brain but also involves the somatic nervous system​

Question 20

Unconscious Response​

Answer 20

A reaction that does not involve awareness​ and is often regulated by the autonomic nervous system and/or the spinal cord​

Question 21

Spinal Reflex- Unconscious Response​

Answer 21

A spinal reflex is an unconscious, involuntary and automatically occurring response to certain stimuli initiated within the spinal cord and without any involvement of the brain. ​

involves somatic reactions such as when you jerk your bare foot up from the hot pavement

Question 22

Steps in a Spinal Reflex​

Answer 22

1. Sensory neurons detect the stimuli and send the sensory information from the peripheral nervous system to the spinal cord in the central nervous system.​
2. The interneurons in the spinal cord receive the sensory information from the sensory neurons and connect with the motor neurons to initiate a response.​
3. The motor neurons carry the response back to the appropriate body part.​
4. The spinal reflex occurs which is an unconscious response that does not require any involvement of the brain.​
5. While the spinal reflex is occurring, the sensory information will be transmitted from the spinal cord to the brain for processing.​
6. The brain processes the sensory information for the sensation to be ‘felt’ which is a conscious response.​

Question 23

Parkinson’s Disease​

Answer 23

Parkinson’s disease is a CNS neurodegenerative disorder characterised by both motor and non-motor symptoms.​

It involves interference to nervous system functioning and is chronic meaning the symptoms persist for a long time and are recurring often beginning with stiffness and trembling in the limbs.​

Question 24

Motor Symptoms​ (Parkinson’s Disease)

Answer 24

• Tremors involving continuous, involuntary shaking of the body
• Muscle rigidity, whereby the muscles seem unable to relax and are tight, even when at rest.
• Postural instability, balance problems and gait (walking) disturbances

Question 25

Non-Motor Symptoms​ (Parkinson's Disease)

Answer 25

- A decrease or loss of sense of smell, sweating and increased sensitivity to temperatures, fatigue which is not relieved by resting, and mental health problems - Problems with cognitive function such as slowness of thinking

Question 26

The role of dopamine in Parkinson's disease

Answer 26

Motor symptoms result from the degeneration and loss of neurons in the substantia nigra. ​ The substantia nigra carries messages on how to control voluntary muscle movements to the primary motor cortex so they can be executed in a smooth and coordinated manner Neurons in the substantia nigra produce the neurotransmitter called dopamine, so when the substantia nigra is damaged, the amount of dopamine available for motor activity reduces as neurons gradually die. Reduced levels of dopamine means that the primary motor cortex receives inadequate information and therefore movements are often jerky and uncontrolled. ​

Question 27

Context-Specific Effectiveness​

Answer 27

A coping strategy is considered to have context-specific effectiveness when there is a match or ‘good fit’ between the coping strategy that is used and the stressful situation (stressor).​ Example Exam Stress: planning, time management and study would be beneficial

Question 28

Coping Flexibility​

Answer 28

Refers to the ability to effectively modify or adjust one’s coping strategies when necessary and according to the nature and demands of different stressful situations. ​ It includes the abilities to:​ - recognise whether the use of a flexible coping approach is appropriate for a specific situation,​ - select a coping strategy that suits the situation,​ - recognise when the coping strategy being used is ineffective,​ - stop using an ineffective coping strategy, and​ - produce and implement an alternative coping strategy when required.​ Individuals with high coping flexibility: readily adjust/change their coping strategies if their current strategy is ineffective. individuals with low coping flexibility: rely on the same coping strategies for all different situations and do not change when the strategies are ineffective.

Question 29

Approach Coping Strategies​

Answer 29

Involve direct efforts to confront a stressor and deal directly with it and its effects. ​ Approach coping strategies are active strategies because they involve engagement with the stressor and may involve attending to or acknowledging the stressor. Example: Seeking more information about the stressor​

Question 30

Avoidance Coping Strategies​

Answer 30

Involve efforts that evade a stressor and deal indirectly with it and its effects.​ Avoidance coping strategies are strategies people use when they feel they have little or no control over the stressor and involve behavioural or emotional disengagement. Example: Wishful thinking​

Question 31

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) ​

Answer 31

A three stage biological (physiological) response to stress​ The GAS is made up of 3 stages (ARE):​ - Alarm reaction​ - Resistance​ - Exhaustion ​

Question 32

Stage 1 – Alarm Reaction​

Answer 32

When the individual first becomes aware of the stressor and the body goes into a temporary state of distress.​ Consists of 2 parts:​ - Shock – body acts as if it is injured and it’s ability to deal with the stressor falls below its normal level. Body temperature and blood pressure momentarily drop and a temporary loss of muscle tone occurs as the person. ​ - Countershock – the sympathetic nervous system activates the fight-flight response which increases the body’s resistance to the stressor. Adrenaline is released into the bloodstream and the body becomes aroused to deal with the stressor.

Question 33

Stage 2- Resistance​

Answer 33

If the source of stress is not dealt with immediately and the state of stress continues, the organism enters a stage of resistance. ​ The body’s ability to tackle a particular stressor therefore rises above normal as it tries to adapt and cope with the stressor. All unnecessary physiological processes are shut down. Cortisol is released into the bloodstream to further energise the body and help repair any damage that may have occurred. Cortisol levels are sustained at a heightened level to maintain an increased ability to respond to the stressor.​ This resistance imposes demands on body’s resources and this is where signs of illness begin.​ If the effort to deal with the initial stressor during this stage is successful, the parasympathetic nervous system will eventually return the body to homeostasis.​

Question 34

Stage 3- Exhaustion​

Answer 34

If the resistance phase lasts long enough, the body eventually wears down and the organism enters a third stage, exhaustion.​ Physiological defences break down resulting in greatly increased vulnerability to serious or even life-threatening disease.​ Organs such as the heart that are vulnerable genetically or environmentally are the first to go during this stage. Cortisol levels are depleted.​ During the exhaustion stage, some of the alarm reaction responses may reappear but the body cannot sustain its resistance and the effects of the stressor can no longer be dealt with.​

Question 35

Fight-Flight Reactions Process and Reactions

Answer 35

- a message is sent from the sympathetic nervous system to the adrenal glands to secrete ‘stress hormones’ into the bloodstream - these hormones activate muscles, organs and other glands so the body is better prepared to deal with the potential emergency. This results in: ​ - increased heart rate and blood pressure​ - increased breathing rate (to increase oxygen supply) ​ - increased glucose (sugar) secretion by the liver (for energy) ​ - dilation of the pupils (so the eyes can take in more light) ​

Question 36

Freeze Reactions​

Answer 36

The physiological (biological) changes commonly occurring with freeze include:​ - hypervigilance e.g. being on guard - tonic immobility e.g. cessation of body movements ​ - cessation of vocalisations​ - racing heart slows very significantly​ - blood pressure drops very quickly.​

Question 37

The Role of Cortisol​

Answer 37

a stress hormone that’s secreted following activation of the HPA-axis into the bloodstream to increase your concentration of glucose (blood sugar) in the blood for the muscles to use as an energy source.

Question 38

Lazarus and Folkman’s ​ | Transactional Model of Stress​

Answer 38

This is a two step model as it focuses on 2 key psychological factors that determine the extent to which an event is experienced as stressful – ​ - The meaning (primary appraisal) of the event to the individual​ - The individuals judgement of their ability to cope with it (secondary appraisal)​

Question 39

Primary Appraisal​

Answer 39

Evaluating the significance of a stressor, resulting in a decision about whether the stressor is: ​ (a) irrelevant or​ (b) benign-positive or​ (c) stressful​ If a stressor is appraised as being ‘stressful’, the person then engages in one of three additional types of appraisals: ​ - harm-loss: an assessment of how much damage has already occurred. - threat: an assessment of harm/loss that may or may not have occurred but could occur in the future. - challenge: an assessment of the potential for personal gain or growth from the situation.

Question 40

Secondary Appraisal​

Answer 40

Evaluating coping options and resources for dealing with the event Based on the secondary appraisal, the individual may:​ - decide their coping resources are inadequate and therefore experience a stress response.​ - not undergo secondary appraisal if they judged the stressor as irrelevant or benign-positive in primary appraisal.​ - engage in reappraisal, meaning that they search for new appraisals of the stressor or new resources that would decrease the discrepancy. - use coping strategies and resources that would decrease the discrepancy and not lead to a stress response. ​

Question 41

Stress ​

Answer 41

Is a state of physiological and psychological arousal produced by internal and external stressors that are perceived by the individual as challenging or exceeding their ability or resources to cope.​

Question 42

Eustress​

Answer 42

Is a positive psychological response to a stressor as indicated by the presence of positive psychological states of feeling enthusiastic, excited, active and alert. ​ When stress is beneficial/desirable it can be described as eustress.​

Question 43

Distress

Answer 43

A negative psychological response to a stressor as indicated by the presence of negative psychological factors such as anger, anxiety, nervousness and tension.​ When stress is undesirable it can be described as distress.​

Question 44

Daily Pressures (hassles) - Source of Stress

Answer 44

A relatively minor trouble or concern that arises in day-to-day living that is an irritant/annoying/bothersome and can lead to stress.​ For example, having a minor argument with a friend,

Question 45

Life Events​ - Source of Stress

Answer 45

An everyday life event involving significant change that forces an individual to adapt to new circumstances and adjust their lifestyle and established ways of thinking, feeling and behaving can cause stress. For example, the loss of a significant relationship

Question 46

Acculturative Stress​ - Source of Stress

Answer 46

The stress people experience in trying to adapt to a new culture when living in it for a considerable period of time.​ Stressors may include: ​ - language difficulties​ - racial or ethnic discrimination

Question 47

Major Stressor​ - Source of Stress

Answer 47

An event that is extraordinarily stressful or disturbing for almost everyone who experiences it. Examples include:​ a single, one-off event, such as being in a serious car or workplace accident

Question 48

Catastrophes​ - Source of Stress

Answer 48

An unpredictable large-scale event that causes widespread damage or suffering. ​ Examples include:​ - natural: bushfires, major floods - human-made: terrorist attacks -

Question 49

Classical Conditioning​ (Types of learning)

Answer 49

Ivan Pavlov’s research provided evidence of a type of learning that results in the involuntary association between a neutral stimulus, which becomes a conditioned stimulus, and unconditioned stimulus to produce a conditioned response called classical conditioning. ​ Stimulus: an event that elicits a response from an organism. For example, a bell.​ Response: a reaction of an organism to a stimulus. For example, salivation.​

Question 50

Key Elements of Classical Conditioning​

Answer 50

Neutral Stimulus (NS)​: The stimulus that in the beginning of the conditioning process does not produce the unconditioned response (UCR) when presented alone. Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS)​: Any stimulus that consistently produces a particular, naturally occurring, automatic response (UCR).​ Unconditioned Response (UCR)​: The response that occurs automatically when the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) is presented. ​ Conditioned Stimulus (CS)​: The stimulus that is neutral at the start of the conditioning process and does not normally produce the unconditioned response (UCR).​However, through repeated association with the unconditioned stimulus (UCS), the CS eventually triggers a similar response (not usually as strong) to the UCR after conditioning.​ ​ Conditioned Response (CR)​: The learned response that is produced by the conditioned stimulus (CS). ​It occurs after the NS has been repeatedly associated with the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) and has become a CS. ​​ ​

Question 51

Key Processes of Classical Conditioning

Answer 51

Acquisition​: Refers to the overall conditioning process when the organism learns to associate two stimuli. For example, the first time the dog salivates to the bell. Extinction: Extinction refers to the gradual decrease in the strength and rate of a CR when the UCS is repeatedly no longer presented alongside the CS.​ Spontaneous Recovery​: Refers to the sudden reappearance of the CR when the CS is presented, following a rest period after the CR appears to have been extinguished.​ Stimulus Generalisation​: ​The tendency for another stimulus, one which is similar to the original CS, to also produce the CR.​ Stimulus Discrimination​: Occurs when an organism responds to the CS only and not to other stimuli similar to the CS to produce the CR.​

Question 52

Neural Plasticity​

Answer 52

The ability of the brain’s neural structure or function to be changed by experience.​ The changes are most notable at the synapse so it is also called synaptic plasticity.​ Neural plasticity enables us to learn and remember new things and adjust to new experiences.​

Question 53

Long-term potentiation (LTP)​

Answer 53

Long-term potentiation (LTP) refers to the long-lasting strengthening of the synaptic connections between neurons after repeated stimulation, resulting in enhanced or more effective functioning of the neurons whenever they are activated.

Question 54

Long-term depression (LTD)​

Answer 54

Long-term depression (LTD) refers to the long-lasting weakening of the synaptic connections of neurons, resulting from a continued lack of stimulation or from prolonged low level stimulation of pre and post synaptic neurons. ​

Question 55

Neurohormones​

Answer 55

A neurohormone is a chemical messenger produced by a neuron that is released from axon terminals into the bloodstream and carried to target neurons or cells.​ Examples of these include dopamine, noradrenaline

Question 56

Neurotransmitters vs Neurohormones

Answer 56

Unlike neurotransmitters, neurohormones are:​ - not released into the synaptic gap​ - instead, they are released into capillaries where they are absorbed into the bloodstream and then carried to target neurons or cells​ - typically travel more slowly and to a more distant site. Both neurohormones and neurotransmitters facilitate memory and learning.​ They both act as chemical messengers from a neuron to a target neuron or cell.​ They are both also manufactured by a neuron and released from axon terminals of the pre-synaptic neuron.

Question 57

Adrenaline in Emotional Memory ​

Answer 57

When an emotional memory is occurring, a person is likely to have high levels of adrenaline in their body.​ When we are excited or stressed, emotion-triggered stress hormones such as adrenaline make more glucose and energy available to fuel brain activity, signalling the brain that something important has happened. The presence of noradrenaline during consolidation may then activate the amygdala to signal to the nearby hippocampus that details of the relevant experience are important and its long-term storage should be strengthened.​

Question 58

Observational Learning​

Answer 58

Observational learning occurs when someone uses observation of a model’s actions and the consequences of those actions to guide their own future actions.

Question 59

Key Elements of Observational Learning​

Answer 59

The learner plays an active role in the learning process Observational learning involves a sequence of processes called:​ 1. Attention​: Observational learner must closely and actively watch the model’s behaviour and the consequence in order to recognise distinctive features of the observed behaviour and to notice the consequences. ​ 2. Retention: ​Observational learner must mentally represent and accurately remember the model’s behaviour so that it can be retrieved and reproduced. ​ 3. Reproduction​: Observational learner must be able to imitate/replicate what has been observed (but must have the ability and competence to put into practice what they observed). ​ 4. Motivation​: Observational learner must want to perform what has been observed and this will be influenced by reinforcement.​ 5. Reinforcement​: The observer must have some reason, or incentive to perform the model’s behaviour.​ It can be external self-reinforcement or internal self-reinforcement . It can also be vicarious reinforcement by observing a model displaying behaviour that is reinforced.

Question 60

Operant Conditioning​

Answer 60

Operant conditioning is a type of associative learning where the likelihood of a response or behaviour occurring is determined by its consequences.​

Question 61

Three-Phase Model (ABC)​ - Operant Conditioning

Answer 61

1. Antecedent: Organism is placed in a situation and the stimulus occurs first 2. Behaviour: Organism produces a voluntary behaviour that occurs due to the antecedent​ 3. Consequence: There is a consequence for this behaviour This consequence determines future behaviour​ whether it increases or decreases. ​

Question 62

Reinforcement 

Answer 62

Reinforcement - is applying a positive stimulus or removing a negative stimulus to strengthen or increase the likelihood of a particular response that it follows.​

Question 63

Positive Reinforcer ​

Answer 63

Positive reinforcer: a pleasant stimulus that strengthens or increases the likelihood of a desired response occurring by providing a satisfying consequence.​

Question 64

Negative Reinforcer ​

Answer 64

Negative reinforcer: is any aversive/unpleasant stimulus that when removed or avoided, strengthens or increases the likelihood of a desired response occurring.​

Question 65

Punishment 

Answer 65

Punishment is the delivery of an unpleasant consequence following a response (positive punishment) or the removal of a pleasant consequence following a response (response cost).​

Question 66

Response Cost ​

Answer 66

Response cost is the removal of a valued stimulus to weaken or prevent a response from occurring again, whether or not the stimulus causes the undesirable behaviour.​

Question 67

Short Term Memory (STM)​

Answer 67

A memory system with limited storage capacity and duration, that stores information for a very short period of time unless it is renewed in some way. ​ You need to pay attention to the information in sensory memory for it to be transferred to the second storage point, STM.​ Also, STM can retrieve previously stored information from long term memory (LTM) and enables us to consciously combine and use information from sensory memory and LTM at the same time. ​ Duration: STM can hold onto information for 18-20 seconds (if information is not rehearsed or used) before it decays​ Capacity: 7 ± 2 or 5-9 items of info (limited storage capacity)​

Question 68

Long Term Memory (LTM)​

Answer 68

LTM is a memory component that stores a potentially unlimited amount (capacity) of information for a very long time (duration), possibly permanently/forever. ​ We can get (‘retrieve’) information from LTM using retrieval cues.​ Information in LTM is often described as ‘inactive’ because we are not consciously aware of LTM information unless it is retrieved to STM.​ Duration: Relatively permanent​ Potentially Unlimited Capacity

Question 69

Implicit Memory ​

Answer 69

Memory that does not require conscious or intentional retrieval.​ Described as non-declarative memories as people often find it difficult to state or describe in words (‘declare’) what is being remembered. Procedural memories and simple classically conditioned responses are sub-types of implicit memory. ​

Question 70

Procedural (Implicit) Memory​

Answer 70

Memories of actions and motor skills on how to do something that have been previously learned.​ Examples:​ - knowing how to use chopsticks​ - knowing how to thread a needle​

Question 71

Classically Conditioned (Implicit) Memory​

Answer 71

Classically conditioned memory involves conditioned responses to certain stimuli. ​ These include fears and taste aversions acquired involuntarily.

Question 72

Explicit Memory ​

Answer 72

Memory that occurs when information can be consciously or intentionally retrieved and stated.​

Question 73

Episodic (Explicit) Memory​

Answer 73

Episodic memory is like a mental personal diary, recording the personal experiences you have had throughout your life. ​ Episodic memories often include details of:​ - the time​ - the place​ Examples:​ your first day of school​

Question 74

Semantic (Explicit) Memory​

Answer 74

Memory of facts and information we have about the world.​ They include:​ - Specialised knowledge in areas of expertise. - Academic knowledge of the kind learned in school. - Everyday general knowledge. - The meanings of words.

Question 75

Brain Areas in LTM Storage​

Answer 75

- Cerebral cortex: processes STM, storage of explicit AND some implicit long term memories​ - Hippocampus: encodes and consolidates explicit memories​ - Amygdala: encodes and retrieves implicit memories (fear classical conditioning) and has a role in activating the hippocampus and enhancing the consolidation of explicit emotional memories​ - Cerebellum: encodes and consolidates implicit procedural memories and stores simple implicit classically conditioned reflexes

Question 76

Brain Trauma ​

Answer 76

Umbrella term used to refer to any brain injury that impairs or interferes with the normal functioning of the brain.​ Brain trauma may involve damage due to:​ 1. Congenital brain injury (inherited/from birth) ​ 2. Acquired brain injury some time after birth through exposure to the environment and particular events

Question 77

Neurodegenerative Disease

Answer 77

Characterised by a progressive decline in the structure, activity and function of brain tissue, where Neurons in the brain tissue gradually become damaged or deteriorate and lose their function. ​ ​When the neurons deteriorate in structures that relate to memory, it leads to amnesia.​ Parkinson’s Disease and dementia are also types of neurodegenerative diseases.​

Question 78

Anterograde Amnesia ​

Answer 78

When brain damage causes loss of memory only for information or events experienced after the person sustained the damage. ​ The inability to encode and store new explicit memories. They can often form new implicit memories.

Question 79

Alzheimer’s Disease ​

Answer 79

Type of dementia and neurodegenerative disease characterised by a gradual widespread degeneration of brain neurons causing memory decline, a gradual loss in cognitive and social skills and personality changes. The disease involves the gradual deterioration of neurons first causing STM loss, then explicit memory loss and lastly implicit memory impairment.​

Question 80

Types of Retrieval Cues​

Answer 80

Context- external environment​ Refers to environmental, external cues in the specific setting where a memory was formed/encoded State- internal environment​ A state-dependent cue is an internal cue associated with the physiological and/or psychological state at the time the memory was formed

Question 81

Types of Rehearsal​

Answer 81

Maintenance Rehearsal​ Involves continual repetition of information being remembered so it can be successfully retained in STM for as long as required. ​ This rehearsal is used for increasing duration of STM to more than 18-20 seconds however it is the least effective type of rehearsal. Elaborative Rehearsal​ The process of linking new information in a meaningful way with information already stored in LTM or with other new information to aid in its storage and future retrieval from LTM.​ This rehearsal method involves using effort to create more meaningful associations.

Question 82

Recall ​

Answer 82

- Measure of explicit memory. ​ - Minimal amount of cues are used to assist retrieval. ​ ​3 types of recall including:​ Free recall (no cues) – when asked to remember as much information as possible in no particular order. Serial recall (no cues) – when asked to reproduce information in the order it was given/learnt or the order in which it happened. Cued recall (some cues) – when using various cues or prompts to aid the retrieval of information.

Question 83

Recognition ​

Answer 83

Being asked to identify the original learnt information from among alternatives by matching against the information in memory. ​

Question 84

Relearning (

Answer 84

Involves learning the information again that has been previously learned and stored in LTM to assess how much more quickly information is processed or learned when it is studied again.​

Question 85

Reconstruction ​

Answer 85

The process of combining stored information with other available information to form what is believed to be a more coherent, complete or accurate memory.​ It involves recalling an explicit episodic memory and putting yourself back in the moment to fill in the gaps.​

Question 86

Leading Question​

Answer 86

is phrased in such a way as to suggest what answer is desired or to lead to the desired answer

Question 87

Loftus Summary​

Answer 87

Loftus’ studies demonstrate that the act of retrieving information from memory is a reconstructive process. Over time, the two sources of information (the video and leading questions) led to a reconstruction of the memory that integrated both and distorted the memory, making it fallible.​ Loftus also showed that the process of retrieval can be influenced by the wording of the question. ​ The misinformation suggested by the leading question can potentially become stored as part of an updated representation of the memory trace.​ This creates an issue with the accuracy of eyewitness testimony, as every time a memory is retrieved it is reconstructed and subject to alterations through the use of leading questions and other misleading information.​

Question 88

Consciousness

Answer 88

Consciousness is a psychological state characterised by awareness of external stimuli and events in the external world at any given moment AND awareness of our sensations, mental experiences and own existence at any given moment.​

Question 89

Altered State Consciousness

Answer 89

Is used to describe any state of consciousness that is distinctly different from NWC in terms of level of awareness and experience. An ASC is characterised by a distinctly different and lower level of mental awareness to NWC, major changes occur in the quality or intensity of sensations, perceptions, thoughts, feelings and memories that are experienced.

Question 90

Controlled Process

Answer 90

Information processing which involves conscious and alert awareness in which the individual actively focuses their attention on achieving a particular goal. Often required when a task is new, unfamiliar or difficult​

Question 91

Automatic Process

Answer 91

Involves information processing in which there is little conscious awareness and mental effort, minimal attention and does not interfere with the performance of other activities. ​

Question 92

Content Limitations

Answer 92

This refers to the extent to which a person controls the kind of content that enters their consciousness and controls and selects which information to attend to at any one time. ​ NWC: Content is more organised and logical than during altered states of consciousness. The type of information held in NWC is more restricted and within our control so we are able to block out unwanted content. In ASC, there is less control over what enters consciousness and content is not as restricted as NWC.​ Content is also not as organised and logical as NWC. For example, dreams often don’t make sense.​

Question 93

Perception Distortions

Answer 93

In NWC, our sensations reflect reality and our perceptions of sights, sounds and pain are generally realistic and clear as we are aware of surroundings. ​ ASC’s affect the senses in one of two ways by either making the senses more receptive to external stimuli or by dulling them to such an extent that some sensations aren’t experienced at all.

Question 94

Cognitive Distortions

Answer 94

In NWC, our thought processes seem rational, organised and logical and we can effectively encode, store and retrieve information from memory. Recall is more accurate during NWC.​ Cognition is usually impaired during an ASC. ​Thoughts are often more disorganised, illogical and lacking logical sequence. Memory processes may be disrupted and storage and recall may be more fragmented or less accurate.​ Difficulties also occur with problem solving, decision making, judging and other cognitive functions. ​

Question 95

Changes in Emotional Awareness

Answer 95

In NWC, our level of emotional awareness is quite high and controlled and we show appropriate emotion. In ASC, there is less control over emotions and their expression. They are often highly unpredictable. Emotional awareness may be either heightened or dulled.​

Question 96

Changes in Self Control

Answer 96

In NWC, we tend to have a greater level of self-control over our actions and coordinating a sequence of movements including fine motor skills. Self-control is more difficult to maintain in an ASC. This is true for both physical self-control and psychological self-control.​

Question 97

Time Orientation

Answer 97

In NWC, we tend to have a fairly accurate sense of time and we can recognise there is a past, present and future.​ In an ASC, we are unable to estimate accurately the amount of time that has passed and it becomes distorted.​

Question 98

Electroencephalograph (EEG)​

Answer 98

Detects, amplifies and records the electrical (DARE) activity spontaneously generated by the brain’s neurons just below the scalp in the form of brain waves.​

Question 99

Electromyograph (EMG)​

Answer 99

Detects, amplifies and records the electrical activity of muscles.​

Question 100

Electro-oculograph (EOG)

Answer 100

Measures eye movement and eye position by detecting, amplifying and recording the electrical activity in the eye muscles that control eye movement.​

Question 101

Brain Waves (Use BATD)​

Answer 101

Beta: Highest frequency / Lowest amplitude ​ - Associated with alertness and intensive mental activity during NWC. - Beta waves are also present during states of fear, anxiety, threat and when dreaming during a period of REM sleep. ​ Alpha: High frequency (slower than beta) and a low amplitude (slightly larger than beta)​ - Predominantly occur when we are awake and alert but mentally and physically relaxed and internally focused. Theta: Medium frequency and a mix of high and low amplitude waves​ - Most commonly produced when we are very drowsy such as when falling asleep or just before waking. ​ - May also be produced when awake and engaged in creative activities, during dream like visual imagery, and meditating.​ Delta: Lowest frequency / Highest amplitude​ - Most commonly associated with deep, dreamless sleep or unconsciousness.

Question 102

Stimulants: High Freq, Low Amp​

Answer 102

increased beta waves = increased alertness Stimulants are drugs that increase activity within the central nervous system (brain activity/mental processes) and the rest of the body.​ Stimulants make a person’s neural activity more of a excitatory nature due to an increase in physiological arousal.​

Question 103

Depressants: Low Freq, High Amp​

Answer 103

reduced beta waves = decreased alertness Depressants are drugs that decrease activity within the central nervous system (brain activity/mental processes) and the rest of the body.​ These drugs lower bodily physiological arousal and help to induce feelings of calm, drowsiness, relaxation, sleep and anaesthesia as the doses increase. ​ They also reduce alertness, focus and responsiveness to sensory stimulation, slowing motor activity and cognitive functioning. Loss of self-control is also common. ​

Question 104

Circadian Rhythm​

Answer 104

Circadian rhythm refers to the changes in bodily functions or activities that occur as part of a biological cycle with a duration of about 24 hours.​

Question 105

Ultradian Rhythm​

Answer 105

Ultradian rhythm refers to changes in bodily functions or activities that occur as part of cycle shorter than 24 hours.

Question 106

NREM Stages

Answer 106

NREM Stage 1​: - Physiological changes indicate a lower level of bodily arousal. Our eyes roll slowly, our muscles relax and our heart rate and body temperature decreases.​ - The sleeper can experience involuntary muscle movements such as the hypnic jerk when the muscles start to relax and part of our body goes into a spasm.​ - Stage 1 has a low arousal threshold meaning it is easy to arouse someone and wake them up. NREM Stage 2​: - Stage 2 is characterised by the presence of sleep spindles and of K-complexes.​ - Sleep spindles are brief rapid bursts of high frequency brain waves that indicate that a person is truly asleep.​ - K complexes are sudden bursts of low frequency and high amplitude in response to arousing external stimuli​ NREM Stage 3​: - This stage marks the start of the moderately deep sleep period. - Heart rate, body temperature and breathing rate continue to decrease.​ NREM Stage 4​: - Muscles are completely relaxed and barely move.​ - Delta waves dominate and EEG is even slower frequency and larger amplitude than in stage 3 due to slow wave sleep.

Question 107

Rapid Eye Movement Sleep (REM)​

Answer 107

Defined by spontaneous bursts of rapid eye movement where the eyeballs rapidly move back and forth in jerky but coordinated movements beneath the closed eyelids.​

Question 108

Two Types of Sleeping Disorders​

Answer 108

Primary sleep disorder: a sleep disorder that cannot be attributed to another condition such as another sleep disorder, a mental disorder or medical problem, or use of a substance such as a legal or illegal drug. Secondary sleep disorder: involves a prominent sleep problem that is a by-product of or results from another condition, or use of a substance.

Question 109

Circadian Phase Disorders​

Answer 109

Circadian rhythm phase disorders are a group of sleep disorders involving sleep disruption that is primarily due to a mismatch between an individual’s normal sleep–wake pattern and the sleep-wake pattern that is desired or required. ​

Question 110

Causes of Circadian Phase Disorder

Answer 110

The sleep disruption may be caused by:​ - a mismatch between an individual’s sleep–wake cycle and the sleep–wake schedule required by their school, work or social schedule such as shift work​ - a mismatch between an individual’s sleep–wake cycle and the day–night cycle of their physical environment such as jet lag​

Question 111

Sleep-Wake Cycle Shift​

Answer 111

Sleep-wake cycle shifts in adolescence are a circadian rhythm shift disorder. This is associated with puberty. ​ During adolescence (13-19 years), the sleep–wake cycle moves back by about 1 to 2 hours (delayed) as the hormone melatonin (sleep hormone) is released 1 to 2 hours later meaning that sleep onset peaks later in the 24 hour cycle. Therefore, the entire sleep–wake cycle is delayed by 1–2 hours in relation to the onset of sleep and consequently the wake-up time

Question 112

Restoration Theory​

Answer 112

This theory proposes that sleep has a restorative function. For example, opportunity to support recovery of the body including the brain to full waking capacity.

Question 113

Evolutionary Theory​

Answer 113

This theory proposes that sleep enhances survival of a species by protecting its members through making them inactive during the part of the day when it is riskiest or most dangerous to move about

Question 114

Effects of Sleep Deprivation​

Answer 114

The three key psychological effects of partial sleep deprivation include:​ - Affective: refers to the fact that people tend to have amplified emotional responses including changes in emotional state, mood and ability to control emotions after sleep loss.​ - Behavioural: refers to changes in our actions or the way we function after sleep loss. ​ - Cognitive: refers to changes in mental processes such as attention, logical thinking, learning, memory after just a small amount of sleep loss​

Question 115

Behavioural Effect: Sleep Inertia​

Answer 115

Sleep inertia is a state of grogginess and performance impairment when awakening. Sleep inertia is likely if you are awoken during NREM stages 3 and 4 deep sleep as this is when your arousal threshold is at its highest point. It has also been reported if awoken during REM.

Question 116

Effects on Behavioural Functioning​

Answer 116

- Sleep disturbances​ - Slower reaction time and speed on tasks.​ - Reduced motor coordination, particularly eye–hand coordination​

Question 117

Effects on Affective Functioning​

Answer 117

- Amplified emotional responses. - Mood change. - Poorer emotion perception.

Question 118

Effects on Cognitive Functioning​

Answer 118

- Lapses in attention and inability to maintain prolonged concentration. - Reduced alertness due to excessive sleepiness​ - Impaired problem solving, decision making, errors in judgment​

Question 119

Newborns and Infants​ (Sleep Pattern)

Answer 119

Newborn: Total sleep time of = 16-17 6 month old = 13 hours of sleep a day​ 2 year old = 12-13 hours a day​ REM accounts for 50% of newborn sleep reducing to about 25% by age 2.

Question 120

Children​ (Sleep Pattern)

Answer 120

- 3-5 years old = 10-12 hours of sleep - 10 years old = 9-11 hours of sleep​ Proportion of REM sleep continues to decrease from 50% to 20% or so at school age. ​ Children experience an abundance of stage 3 and 4 NREM sleep but amount decreases markedly from about age 10.​

Question 121

Adolescents ​(Sleep Pattern)

Answer 121

It is recommended that adolescents sleep for at least 9 hours for optimal performance.​ Delayed sleep wake cycle shift REM remains constant at 20%. ​ The amount of stages 3 and 4 NREM deep sleep progressively declines and the time spent in stage 2 increases.

Question 122

Adults (Sleep Pattern)

Answer 122

Total sleep time averages about 8 hours of sleep a night.​ NREM occupies 75–80% and REM 20–25%.​ There is a gradual age-related decline in total sleep time and time spent in REM and stages 3/4 NREM.​ Gradual loss of stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep with a severe reduction evident by about age 60.

Question 123

Elderly​ (Sleep Pattern)

Answer 123

The elderly sleep about 6-7 hours a night​ Total sleep time continues to decrease through old age and time spent in REM and stages 3/4 NREM decrease whilst stages 1/2 increase.​ Eventually, stages 3 and 4 may disappear completely by age 90

Question 124

Types of Sleeping Disorders

Answer 124

Dyssomnias are sleep disorders that produce difficulty initiating, maintaining and/or timing sleep at a regular time.​ Examples of dyssomnias include sleep-onset insomnia Parasomnias are sleep disorders characterised by the occurrence of inappropriate physiological and/or psychological activity during sleep or sleep-to-wake transitions. Examples of parasomnias include sleep walking

Question 125

Dyssomnia: Sleep-Onset Insomnia​

Answer 125

Sleep-onset insomnia is a sleep disorder involving persistent difficulty falling asleep at the usual sleep time, despite having adequate time and opportunity for sleep.​ Sleep-onset insomnia is a dyssomnia because it significantly disrupts the sleep–wake cycle process and its regulation as it takes them a much longer time to fall asleep.​ This type of insomnia significantly disrupts the sleep-wake cycle as an individual is unable to fall asleep when they would like to and therefore may need to either sleep longer into the morning or suffer from partial sleep deprivation.​

Question 126

Sleep-Onset Insomnia​'s Effect on Circadian Rhythm​

Answer 126

Effects on the circadian sleep–wake cycle may include:​ - changes in the amount, restfulness and timing of their sleep​ - sleep onset tends to occur much later than desired​ - sleep tends to be non restorative

Question 127

Parasomnia: Sleep Walking​

Answer 127

Mobility and activity during asleep occurs— activities may vary in type, complexity and duration Considerable difficulty in arousing/waking during a sleep walking episode because of tendency to be in a deep sleep state Usually occurs during NREM stages 3 and 4 (and not during REM)​

Question 128

Sleep Walking's effect on Circadian Rhythm​

Answer 128

Effects on the sleepers circadian sleep–wake cycle may include:​ - most commonly initiated during the first third of a sleep episode during NREM stages 3 or 4 so there is a loss of deep sleep ​ - fragmented sleep episode due to cycle disturbance where the sleep walker may not be able to quickly go back to sleep after a sudden awakening​ - causes daytime sleepiness following an episode.

Question 129

Stimulus control therapy (SCT) - (Cognitive Behavioural ​Technique):

Answer 129

strengthens the bed and bedroom as cues for sleep and weakens them as cues for behaviours such as watching TV that are incompatible with sleep as well as to re-establish a consistent sleep–wake schedule. For example, applying classical and operant conditioning principles and processes to the individual’s bedroom behaviours and practices to re-establish an association between sleep and the bed and bedroom. - bed/bedroom (Antecedents) ​ - falling asleep (Behaviour) ​ - sleep/rest as a positive reinforcer (Consequence)​

Question 130

Sleep hygiene education (SHE) - (Cognitive Behavioural ​Technique):

Answer 130

provides the patient with information about basic practices that tend to improve sleep. This involves teaching good sleep habits and changing the individual’s basic lifestyle habits.

Question 131

Bright Light Therapy​ - (Cognitive Behavioural ​Technique):

Answer 131

Bright light therapy (BLT) is a technique used for treating circadian rhythm phase disorders that uses timed exposure of the eyes to intense but safe bright light with the aim of shifting an individual’s sleep–wake cycle to a desired schedule by suppressing melatonin secretion.​

Question 132

BLT: Treating Insomnia​

Answer 132

- Bright light therapy would only be a suitable intervention for insomnia if the insomnia has developed into a circadian phase disorder or to specifically treat the symptom of sleep onset insomnia - BLT has also been found to be effective when the insomnia has a physical rather than psychological cause such as due to a shift in the circadian rhythm.​

Question 133

Mental Health

Answer 133

A state of emotional and social wellbeing in which an individual realises their own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and can contribution to their community

Question 134

Mental Health Problem

Answer 134

A mental health problem adversely affects the way a person thinks, feels and/or behaves, but typically to a lesser extent and of a shorter duration than a mental disorder. Examples of mental health problems include sadness associated with grief and symptoms associated with stress. If the mental health problem persists or increases in severity, it may develop into a mental disorder. (Short Term)

Question 135

Mental Disorder (Diagnosable)

Answer 135

A mental disorder is a mental health state that involves a combination of thoughts, feelings and/or behaviours which are usually associated with significant personal distress and impair the ability to function effectively in everyday life.

Question 136

The essential characteristics of a mental disorder (use the 3D’s)

Answer 136

- The disorder occurs within the individual and results from dysfunction within the individual - There is clinically diagnosable dysfunction in thoughts, feelings and/or behaviour. - Causes significant personal distress or disability in functioning in everyday life - Actions and reactions are atypical (‘not typical’) of the person and inappropriate within their culture and social norms (called deviant)

Question 137

Two Type of Factors (Mental Health)

Answer 137

Internal factors: are influences that originate inside or within a person such as genetics, beliefs, attitudes, ability to deal with stress, the way a person thinks etc External factors: are influences that originate outside a person such as social relationships, social support available, education levels, housing etc

Question 138

Internal Factors (Mental Health)

Answer 138

Biological factors involve physiologically based or determined influences often not under our control such as the genes we inherit, whether we are male or female or substance use Psychological factors involve influences associated with mental processes such as beliefs, attitudes, ways of thinking

Question 139

External Factors (Mental Health) Examples

Answer 139

Examples of external factors that can influence mental health include school and work, the amount and type of support available from others when needed, exposure to stressors, level of education, level of income and/or housing

Question 140

Characteristics of a Mentally Healthy Person

Answer 140

These include: 1. High levels of functioning 2. Social and emotional wellbeing 3. Resilience to life stressors

Question 141

High levels of functioning (Characteristic)

Answer 141

People with a high level of functioning tend to be/have: - successful relationships with others - productive at school/work and achieving goals - control of their emotions, both positive and negative emotions. Someone with high levels of functioning will show adaptive behaviour (adapting to the demands of daily living relatively independently) rather than maladaptive behaviour (actions that interfere with the ability to carry our usual activities)

Question 142

Social Wellbeing (Characteristic)

Answer 142

Social well-being refers to our sense of ‘wellness’ or how well we feel about our relationships and interactions with others. A person with high levels of social wellbeing would be able to: - develop and maintain healthy relationships with family and friends - socially interact with others in appropriate ways - respect and understand other individuals

Question 143

Emotional Wellbeing (Characteristic)

Answer 143

Emotional wellbeing refers to our ability to control emotions and express them appropriately and comfortably. For example, how well we acknowledge and share both positive and negative emotions with others in socially or culturally appropriate ways and to enjoy life despite its occasional set-backs and frustrations. A person with high levels of emotional wellbeing is able to: - develop awareness and understanding of their own emotions - regulate their emotions and exercise control when appropriate - accept mistakes or setbacks and learn from them - take responsibility for their actions

Question 144

Resilience (Characteristic)

Answer 144

Resilience is the ability to cope with and adapt well to life stressors and restore positive functioning (‘bounce back’). It can be shown through adjusting to the stressor (accepting it) or through overcoming the stressor (addressing and fixing the issue) People described as resilient usually display characteristics like: - a strong belief in their abilities to accomplish tasks and succeed - high self-esteem - approaching change and stress with optimism and opportunity - adaptability and flexibility in life

Question 145

Ethical Implications (Mental Health Problems/Disorders)

Answer 145

People with mental health problems or disorders are particularly vulnerable research participants as they may have one or more cognitive impairments that reduce their capacity to make decisions and judgments about their participation in the research, making them more susceptible to harm in the particular circumstances of the research.

Question 146

Informed Consent (Mental Health Problems/Disorders)

Answer 146

Informed consent for research is the process by which a researcher discloses appropriate information to a potential research participant so that the person may make a voluntary and informed choice about whether or not to participate. They must understand the nature or purpose of the experiment, the procedures to be used, the right to decline to participate or leave the study at any time, potential outcomes or benefits of the research and any possible risks before they sign a consent form.

Question 147

Ethical Issues with Informed Consent

Answer 147

Someone with a mental disorder might be vulnerable to giving informed consent without fully comprehending what that means or involves as they may have one or more cognitive impairments that diminish their capacity to make a decision about their participation in research.

Question 148

Ethical Issues in using Placebos

Answer 148

The main issue with using placebo treatments in mental health research is that sometimes patients in the control group have to stop taking their active medication or therapy to take a placebo instead. This can be harmful for patients as it could mean that their symptoms reappear or their mental health condition becomes worse in the absence of the real medication or therapy they would normally be using.

Question 149

Stress

Answer 149

Stress is a state of physiological and psychological arousal produced by internal or external stressors that are perceived by the individual as challenging or exceeding their ability or resources to cope. Stress can be both positive (eustress) or negative (distress).

Question 150

Anxiety

Answer 150

Anxiety is a state of physiological arousal associated with feelings of apprehension, worry or uneasiness that something is wrong or something unpleasant is about to happen. Severe Anxiety If anxiety is severe or exaggerated and doesn’t subside, it can be counterproductive and disabling. It can reduce our ability to concentrate, learn, think clearly, logically plan Anxiety Disorder Anxiety disorders are a group of mental disorders characterised by chronic feelings of anxiety, distress, nervousness and apprehension or fear about the future, with a negative effect.

Question 151

Phobias

Answer 151

are considered a mental disorder characterised by persistent, intense and unreasonable levels of fear of a particular situation or object

Question 152

Differences between Anxiety, Phobia and Stress

Answer 152

The most important distinction between stress, anxiety and phobia is that stress and anxiety can independently or in combination contribute to the development of a mental disorder, but they are not in themselves considered to be mental disorders. ``` Stress and anxiety can be considered normal human responses that are usually adaptive and beneficial (unless excessive and chronic). ```

Question 153

Protective Factors (4P Factor Model)

Answer 153

Protective factors are any characteristics or events that reduce the likelihood of occurrence or recurrence of a mental disorder and minimise the impact of a risk factor when risk factors are present.

Question 154

Predisposing Factors (4P Factor Model)

Answer 154

Are factors that increase the susceptibility to a particular mental disorder and that make the individual more susceptible or likely towards development of a particular mental health disorder. These factors often occur during conception or early in life including: - previous mental illness - low self-esteem - genetic vulnerability - poverty/socio-economic disadvantage

Question 155

Precipitating Factors (4P Factor Model)

Answer 155

An immediate factor or event that has caused the individual to experience symptoms of the mental health disorder, generally occurring just before the onset of the mental health disorder. These factors trigger the onset of a mental disorder including: - acculturative stress - poor sleep - break-up or deterioration of a relationship - loss of a loved one - job loss

Question 156

Perpetuating Factors (4P Factor Model)

Answer 156

Are factors that help maintain the occurrence of a particular mental disorder and inhibit recovery from the disorder. These factors prolong the course of the disorder including: - poor response to medication due to genes as well as resistance - poor social support from family, friends or health professionals - continuing to use alcohol/drugs to cope with a problem - poor diet/nutrition

Question 157

Type of Biological Risk Factors

Answer 157

Genetic Vulnerability - Predisposing If a person has a genetic vulnerability, it means that they are at an increased risk of developing a specific mental disorder due to one or more factors associated with genetic inheritance. Poor Response to Medication - Perpetuating A poor response to medication is considered a perpetuating risk factor for the development and progression of mental disorder. Poor Sleep - Precipitating Poor sleep involves partial sleep deprivation (either quantity and/or quality) usually chronic in nature. Poor sleep has a bi-directional (two-way) relationship with mental disorders. That is, mental disorders can cause poorer sleep patterns following diagnoses and poor sleep can contribute to the onset of mental disorders and is therefore considered a risk factor. It may also disrupt restorative functions that could influence mental health. Substance Use - Precipitating This involves the harmful use or consumption of legal (alcohol) or illegal drugs or other products where active ingredients can directly contribute to development, onset or maintenance of a mental disorder.

Question 158

Type of Psychological Risk Factors

Answer 158

Rumination - Perpetuating Rumination involves repeatedly thinking or dwelling on undesirable thoughts, negative feelings or problems without taking any actions to change them. Impaired Reasoning & Memory Impaired reasoning involves flawed thinking that impedes goal directed behaviour or fails to rationally consider probabilities when deciding if an outcome is likely to be true. Episodic memory is affected and patients often experience difficulty recalling personal experiences. This can lead to disorganised behaviour and an inability to function effectively. Stress - Precipitating Stress (one stressor or many stressors) are a strong risk factor in increasing a person’s vulnerability to developing a mental disorder. This is particularly the case when a major stressor triggers the onset. Poor Self Efficacy - Predisposing Poor self-efficacy refers to a reduced belief in one’s capacity to execute behaviours necessary to succeed in a specific situation or accomplish a specific task. Poor self-efficacy increases a person’s likelihood of experiencing stress, anxiety and depression,

Question 159

Types of Social Risk Factors

Answer 159

Disorganised Attachment - Predisposing Refers to a type of attachment (emotional bond) characterised by inconsistent or contradictory behaviour patterns between an infant and their primary caregiver - Formed during infancy Loss of a Significant Relationship - Precipitating The loss of a significant relationship can become a precipitating risk factor for the development of disorders such as depression as the prolonged grief renders them dysfunctional and unable to live normally in daily life. Stigma in Accessing Treatment - Perpetuating Stigma as a barrier to accessing treatment involves avoiding getting the help a person with a mental disorder needs due to feelings of shame, disgrace or disapproval typically associated with a particular characteristic that sets them apart from others, such as skin colour, ethnicity or a mental disorder.

Question 160

Resilience and Protective Factors

Answer 160

People with more resilience will be able to maintain higher levels of mental health because they have greater capacity to endure and bounce back from adversity Type of biological protective factors includes having an adequate diet and experiencing adequate sleep. Types of psychological protective factors include cognitive/behavioural strategies: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) to identify, assess and correct faulty patterns of thinking or problem behaviours that may be affecting mental health.

Question 161

Cognitive strategies

Answer 161

involve identifying, assessing and correcting faulty patterns of thinking and replacing negative, erroneous or dysfunctional thoughts with more positive and helpful cognitions.

Question 162

Behavioural strategies

Answer 162

involve identifying and correcting maladaptive ways of behaving to improve mental health. May also involve skills training that targets specific areas of functioning like breathing or relaxation techniques.

Question 163

Social strategies

Answer 163

may involve support from family, friends and community in terms of seeking assistance, care or empathy from them in order to avoid isolation as it feels easier for the person suffering to be alone. This may however delay the treatment that is needed.

Question 164

Biological Interventions

Answer 164

Biological interventions target bodily (‘biological’) mechanisms believed to be contributing to a phobia or its symptoms. Biological interventions include: 1. the use of short-acting agonist medications called benzodiazepines that target GABA dysfunction and can minimise the onset or severity of symptoms 2. relaxation techniques involving activities such as breathing retraining and exercise that are under the control of the individual and promote relaxation which can also help in the management of symptoms and the stress response.

Question 165

Biological - Benzodiazepine Agents

Answer 165

Benzodiazepines are a group of drugs that work on the central nervous system, acting selectively on GABA receptors in the brain to increase GABA’s inhibitory effects and therefore reduce the activation of postsynaptic neurons (resistant to excitation). Benzodiazepines have both anti-anxiety and sleep-inducing properties and are commonly referred to as depressants or sedatives because they slow down CNS activity. The use of benzodiazepines alone may alleviate symptoms but they do not treat the causes or actually teach any non-drug dependent coping skills for dealing with anxiety, so they are not widely supported as a long-term solution for a specific phobia.

Question 166

Biological - Breathing Retraining

Answer 166

Breathing retraining is an anxiety management technique that involves teaching correct breathing habits to people with specific phobias in order to reduce or prevent anxiety-related symptoms associated with oxygen and carbon dioxide imbalances in the blood

Question 167

Psychological: Systematic Desensitisation

Answer 167

Systematic desensitisation is a type of behaviour therapy that aims to replace an anxiety response with a relaxation response using classical conditioning principles as this is how it’s often acquired. Systematic desensitisation applies classical conditioning principles because it is based on associations forming between stimuli until the CS does not produce the CR

Question 168

Social - Psychoeducation

Answer 168

Psychoeducation is the provision and explanation of information about a mental disorder to individuals diagnosed with the disorder to increase their understanding of the disorder and its treatment The key assumption of psychoeducation is that patients who are well informed and have an increased understanding of symptoms, treatment options, services available and recovery patterns enable them to cope more effectively with their specific phobia.

Question 169

Changing Unrealistic/Anxious Thoughts

Answer 169

People with specific phobia often have unrealistic or anxious thoughts about their phobic stimulus. Family members and supporters are encouraged to assist in challenging these thoughts because it is a critical step in overcoming their phobia. By challenging unrealistic thoughts, people with phobia may become better able to recognise when their thoughts are unrealistic and replace them with more rational appraisals

Question 170

Transtheoretical Model Use PC-PAM to Remember

Answer 170

The transtheoretical model is a stage model of behaviour change that explains how people intentionally change their behaviour to achieve a health-related goal. Stage 1: Pre-Contemplation In this stage people are not ready for change. They do not see their behaviour as problematic and they lack motivation to alter it. They tend to underestimate the benefits of changing their behaviour and overestimate the costs of change to justify their inaction. Stage 2: Contemplation They tend to underestimate the benefits of changing their behaviour and overestimate the costs of change to justify their inaction Stage 3: Preparation In this stage people mentally prepare for the desired behaviour change by formulating intentions and making action plans. Stage 4: Action In this stage, people make overt attempts to change or abandon the problem behaviour anytime from one day to six months. Stage 5: Maintenance In this stage, people have successfully sustained the changed behaviour over a relatively long period of time without relapse, typically for six months or more after the initial action took place

Question 171

CBT: Cognitive Techniques​

Answer 171

A CBT therapist can achieve cognitive change in someone with insomnia through the use of therapeutic techniques that systematically assist the individual to recognise and change inappropriate or dysfunctional attitudes, beliefs and other thoughts about their insomnia. This includes: ​ addressing anxiety or preoccupation with sleep difficulty and identifying unhelpful thoughts​ learning how to control or eliminate worries about falling asleep and negative thoughts that prevent sleep onset ​ promote and offer alternative ways of thinking and interpreting what is making the person anxious or causing concern about sleep so that they are able to think about their insomnia in a different, realistic way.