Psychology Final

Question 1

1. Psychology is most accurately defined as the _____.
   a. study of people through description and analysis of past events and artifacts
   b. study of people in terms of large-scale social forces and with a focus on groups rather than
   individuals
   c. scientific study of thought and behavior
   d. scientific study of human culture and origins

Answer 1

c. scientific study of thought and behavior

Question 2

2. The field of psychology is concerned with the scientific study of:
   a. directly observable behaviors but not internal states and processes.
   b. internal states and processes but not directly observable behaviors.
   c. personality and abnormal behavior.
   d. directly observable behaviors and internal states and processes.

Answer 2

d. directly observable behaviors and internal states and processes.

Question 3

3. _____ is the study of how we perceive information, how we learn and remember, how we acquire
   and use language, and how we solve problems.
   a. Social psychology
   b. Cognitive psychology
   c. Clinical psychology
   d. Educational psychology

Answer 3

b. Cognitive psychology

Question 4

4. _____ studies the links among brain, mind, and behavior.
   a. Social psychology
   b. Industrial psychology
   c. Behavioral neuroscience
   d. Developmental psychology.

Answer 4

c. Behavioral neuroscience

Question 5

5. Which of the following early approaches to psychology focused on why and how people think and
   feel?
   a. Structuralism
   b. Functionalism
   c. Socialism
   d. Behaviorism

Answer 5

b. Functionalism

Question 6

6. In experimental research, the _______________ variable is the variable that is manipulated by the
   experimenter.
   a. independent
   b. dependent
   c. operational
   d. random

Answer 6

a. independent

Question 7

7. When considering the mind-body puzzle, ancient philosophers who argued that the mind is NOT
   separate from the body would belong to which philosophical position?
   a. dualism
   b. monism
   c. structuralism
   d. functionalism

Answer 7

b. monism

Question 8

8. The statement, “… answers to the great questions of psychology will ultimately be found in
   ‘physiology.’ … All behavior, all experience, all feeling, indeed all the subject matter of
   psychology, are nothing more than the outcomes of the activity of the nervous system,” is most
   consistent with which of the following views?
   a. dualism
   b. monism
   c. functionalism
   d. structuralism

Answer 8

b. monism

Question 9

9. With regard to specific meanings of the terms sensation and perception, studies of subliminal
   stimuli have revealed that subliminal stimuli are:
   a. both sensed and perceived.
   b. neither sensed nor perceived.
   c. perceived but not sensed.
   d. sensed but not perceived.

Answer 9

d. sensed but not perceived.

Question 10

10. Freud’s psychoanalytic theory:
    a. has been consistently supported by modern science.
    b. has been consistently rejected by modern science.
    c. has been generally ignored by modern science.
    d. generally has inspired modern science.

Answer 10

d. generally has inspired modern science.

Question 11

11. The visual receptors in the eyes called ___________ function best in dim lighting and are
    primarily brightness receptors.
    a. rods
    b. cones
    c. fovea
    d. ganglion cells

Answer 11

a. rods

Question 12

12. _____ is the study of how we perceive information, how we learn and remember, how we acquire
    and use language, and how we solve problems.
    a. Social psychology
    b. Cognitive psychology
    c. Clinical psychology
    d. Educational psychology

Answer 12

b. Cognitive psychology

Question 13

13. The absolute threshold is technically defined as the lowest intensity at which a stimulus can be
    detected ______ of the time.
    a. 100%
    b. 75%
    c. 66%
    d. 50%

Answer 13

d. 50%

Question 14

14. The rapid shift of the neuron’s electrical potential from –70 millivolts to +40 millivolts is called:
    a. polarization.
    b. an action potential.
    c. a resting potential.
    d. hyperpolarization.

Answer 14

b. an action potential.

Question 15

15. When a neuron is stimulated, tiny protein structures embedded in the cell membrane called
    _____________ are activated and pump specific ions back and forth, thus changing the overall
    potential of the neuron.
    a. ion channels
    b. action potentials
    c. neurotransmitters
    d. glial cells

Answer 15

a. ion channels

Question 16

16. What is the effect of the myelin sheath on the conduction of neural impulses?
    a. Myelin sheaths decrease the speed of electrical conduction.
    b. Myelin sheaths increase the speed of electrical conduction.
    c. Myelin sheaths have no effect on the speed of electrical conduction.
    d. Myelin sheaths are responsible for the refractory period after a neuron has fired.

Answer 16

b. Myelin sheaths increase the speed of electrical conduction.

Question 17

17. Axon is to dendrite as:
    a. anion is to graded potential.
    b. send is to receive.
    c. polarize is to depolarize.
    d. resting potential is to action potential.

Answer 17

b. send is to receive.

Question 18

18. The Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory of color vision is LEAST able to explain which of the
    following?
    a. our ability to see an afterimage
    b. our ability to see the color red
    c. our ability to detect a subliminal image
    d. our ability to see the color blue

Answer 18

a. our ability to see an afterimage

Question 19

19. The resting potential of the typical neuron is determined by:
    a. extra negative ions on the outside of the neuron and extra neutral ions on the inside of the
    neuron.
    b. extra positive ions on the inside of the neuron and extra neutral ions on the inside of the
    neuron.
    c. extra positive ions on the inside of the neuron and extra negative ions on the outside of the
    neuron.
    d. extra positive ions on the outside of the neuron and extra negative ions on the inside of the
    neuron.

Answer 19

d. extra positive ions on the outside of the neuron and extra negative ions on the inside of the
neuron.

Question 20

20. Inattentional blindness refers to:
    a. purposely not paying attention to unpleasant stimuli.
    b. the failure of unattended stimuli to register in consciousness.
    c. the failure of a stimulus to be perceived because the light from the stimulus falls on the blind
    spot of the retina.
    d. an inability to pay attention to more than two stimuli at a time.

Answer 20

b. the failure of unattended stimuli to register in consciousness.

Question 21

21. Which of the following are among the functions affected by the hypothalamus?
    a. mating, fleeing, fighting, feeding
    b. fine muscle control
    c. respiration and heart rate
    d. alerting the higher brain centers that sensory information is about to come in

Answer 21

a. mating, fleeing, fighting, feeding

Question 22

22. The primary job of the amygdala is to:
    a. organize emotional response patterns, particularly aggression and fear.
    b. create and store memories.
    c. regulate body temperature and sexual behavior.
    d. regulate heart rate and respiration.

Answer 22

a. organize emotional response patterns, particularly aggression and fear.

Question 23

23. The two major divisions of the peripheral nervous system are which of the following?
    a. Afferent and efferent
    b. Sympathetic and parasympathetic
    c. Somatic and parasympathetic
    d. Somatic and autonomic

Answer 23

d. Somatic and autonomic

Question 24

24. Jason is a psychologist. He is actively researching the interactions of people on social networking
    sites. Jason is most interested in finding out whether a person can get addicted to social
    networking sites and if such interactions can become dangerous to those involved. Jason is most
    likely to be a ______ psychologist.
    a. personality
    b. cognitive
    c. developmental
    d. clinical

Answer 24

d. clinical

Question 25

25. Which of the following types of psychologists is most likely to conduct a research on how reasoning skills or emotional skills change with age? a. Educational psychologist b. Developmental psychologist c. Behavioral psychologist d. Clinical psychologist

Answer 25

b. Developmental psychologist

Question 26

26. Which of the following questions is most likely to be discussed by a social psychologist? a. Why are behaviors modified by environmental situations? b. How does the presence of other people change an individual's thoughts, feeling, or perceptions? c. How do people visualize objects in their minds? d. How does parent-infant bonding affect adult relationships?

Answer 26

b. How does the presence of other people change an individual's thoughts, feeling, or perceptions?

Question 27

27. “An empirical objective science of behavior that has no need for the theories of mind or personal freedom” characterizes which of the following? a.Gestalt psychology b.Structuralism c.Behaviorism d.Humanistic psychology

Answer 27

c.Behaviorism

Question 28

28. The independent variable is the __________, and the dependent variable is the _________. a. experiment; cause b. cause; effect c. effect; correlation d. experiment; correlation

Answer 28

b. cause; effect

Question 29

29. As Salma views a famous Impressionist painting that is hung on a wall, her ___________ send signals from her brain to coordinate fine muscles in her eye to focus on parts of the painting. a. motor neurons b. sensory neurons c. mirror neurons d. interneurons

Answer 29

a. motor neurons

Question 30

30. The ___________ lies directly in front of the _________. a. primary visual cortex; auditory cortex b. auditory cortex; somatosensory cortex c. somatosensory cortex; motor cortex d. motor cortex; somatosensory cortex

Answer 30

d. motor cortex; somatosensory cortex

Question 31

31. ___________ is responsible for the left and right hemispheres of the brain’s ability to communicate back and forth with each other. a. Corpus callosum b. Wernicke's area c. Thalamus d. Cingulate gyrus

Answer 31

a. Corpus callosum

Question 32

32. Children and teenagers act more impulsively than adults partially because their ______ are not fully developed. a. parietal lobes b. frontal lobes c. temporal lobes d. occipital lobes

Answer 32

b. frontal lobes

Question 33

33. For which of the following reasons is ancient Greece significant in the history of psychology? a. The foundations for psychology as a science can be traced to ancient Greece. b. Wilhelm Wundt, one of the first known psychologists, established his laboratory in ancient Greece. c. The first doctorate in psychology was awarded in ancient Greece. d. The ancient Greeks compiled the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

Answer 33

a. The foundations for psychology as a science can be traced to ancient Greece.

Question 34

34. A hypothesis is best considered as a(n): a. tentative explanation or prediction about some phenomenon. b. attempt to explain something after it has already occurred. c. set of formal statements that explain how certain events are related to one another. d. particular type of experimenter expectancy.

Answer 34

a. tentative explanation or prediction about some phenomenon.

Question 35

35. The last process of the scientific method is to _____. a. communicate b. observe c. test d. predict

Answer 35

a. communicate

Question 36

36. Empiricism made the specific claim that our knowledge and understanding should be based upon: a. intuition. b. basic research. c. observation. d. reason.

Answer 36

c. observation.

Question 37

37. Which of the following is NOT a basic process of the scientific method? a. Observing b. Falsifying c. Interpreting d. Testing

Answer 37

b. Falsifying

Question 38

38. Which of the following psychologists study and treat mental disorders? a. cognitive psychologists b. clinical psychologists c. biological psychologist d. developmental psychologist

Answer 38

b. clinical psychologists

Question 39

39. In most persons, the left hemisphere of the brain a. Controls the left side of the body b. Controls speech c. Is larger than the right d. Receives tactile information from the left side of the body

Answer 39

b. Controls speech

Question 40

40. The ethical standard of ___________ refers to how participants should be given full descriptions about the procedures involved in a study and told that they are free to withdraw from a study at any time. a. informed consent b. right to privacy c. psychological risk d. social risk

Answer 40

a. informed consent

Question 41

1. In ____________________, the organism learns to associate two stimuli such that a previously neutral stimulus comes to produce a reflexive response that was previously produced by a different stimulus. a. operant conditioning b. modeling c. classical conditioning d. shaping

Answer 41

c. classical conditioning

Question 42

2. Probably the most important contribution of Ivan Pavlov’s work with dogs was that it: a. illustrated the nature of the digestive process. b. disproved prior operant conditioning theories. c. provided valuable insight into the nature of learning. d. showed how fixed action patterns can be modified.

Answer 42

c. provided valuable insight into the nature of learning.

Question 43

3. All of the following would strengthen the classical conditioning process, EXCEPT: a. presenting the UCS without the CS. b. presenting a particularly strong UCS. c. repeatedly presenting the CS-UCS pairings. d. making sure the time interval between the CS and UCS is short.

Answer 43

a. presenting the UCS without the CS.

Question 44

4. In 1946, Austrian physiologist Hans Selye coined the term ___________ to describe the common pattern of responses to prolonged exposure to stress. a. general adaptation syndrome b. Klinefelter's syndrome c. Münchausen syndrome d. chronic fatigue syndrome

Answer 44

a. general adaptation syndrome

Question 45

5. When the CS is presented repeatedly without the UCS, the CR will gradually weaken in a process called: a. negative reinforcement. b. habituation. c. discrimination. d. extinction.

Answer 45

d. extinction.

Question 46

6. A dog salivates in response to food. In this instance, the salivation would technically be considered a(n): a. UCS b. CS c. UCR d. CR

Answer 46

c. UCR

Question 47

7. When undergoing chemotherapy to treat cancer, patients may generalize the nausea caused by chemotherapy to the hospital where the therapy takes place. When this occurs, the conditioned stimulus is: a. chemotherapy b. the hospital c. nausea d. the nurse

Answer 47

b. the hospital

Question 48

8. If a CR has high stimulus generalization, then it will be triggered by ____________, whereas if it has high discrimination, it will occur in response to ____________. a. several different stimuli; a single stimulus b. a discriminative stimulus; a neutral stimulus c. a single stimulus; several different stimuli d. a neutral stimulus; a discriminative stimulus

Answer 48

a. several different stimuli; a single stimulus

Question 49

9. Operant conditioning is concerned with ____________, whereas classical conditioning focuses on ____________. a. discriminative stimuli; generalized stimuli b. emitted behaviors; elicited behaviors c. generalized stimuli; discriminative stimuli d. elicited behaviors; emitted behaviors

Answer 49

b. emitted behaviors; elicited behaviors

Question 50

10. Thorndike’s law of effect states that: a. responses followed by unsatisfying consequences will become more likely to occur. b. responses followed by unsatisfying consequences will become less likely to occur. c. aversive consequences produce greater learning than do positive consequences. d. positive consequences produce greater learning than do negative consequences.

Answer 50

b. responses followed by unsatisfying consequences will become less likely to occur.

Question 51

11. Aaliyah remembers how to drive a car with a manual transmission, but when asked how she does it, she just says, "I don't know—it's automatic." This is an example of her: A. implicit memory. B. priming. C. semantic memory. D. episodic memory.

Answer 51

A. implicit memory.

Question 52

12. Chronic Stress-related cortisol release causes hippocampal dendrites to shrink, which can interfere with __________. a. vision b. memory c. reasoning d. hearing

Answer 52

b. memory

Question 53

13. The capacity of _____________ memory is generally agreed to be about five to nine meaningful pieces of information. a. short-term b. episodic c. procedural d. sensory

Answer 53

a. short-term

Question 54

14. The serial position effect refers to how: a. people tend to remember words presented at the beginning and end of a list better than words presented in the middle. b. elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal for storing information in long-term memory. c. information tends to be remembered better if it is processed more deeply. d. people tend to use automatic processing to encode words presented at the beginning and end of a list and use effortful processing to encode the words presented in the middle.

Answer 54

a. people tend to remember words presented at the beginning and end of a list better than words presented in the middle.

Question 55

15. Both elaborative and maintenance rehearsal keep information active in __________ memory but __________ rehearsal is more effective in transferring information to longterm memory. a. short-term; elaborative b. sensory; maintenance c. short-term; maintenance d. sensory; elaborative

Answer 55

a. short-term; elaborative

Question 56

16. A ____________ is something that assists in the reactivation of stored information. a. memory trace b. schema c. retrieval cue d. procedural memory

Answer 56

c. retrieval cue

Question 57

17. The two subcategories of declarative memory are: a. implicit and explicit memory. b. episodic and semantic memory. c. procedural and episodic memory. d. proactive and retroactive memory.

Answer 57

b. episodic and semantic memory.

Question 58

18. Your memory for the answer to this multiple-choice test question would be considered an example of: a. episodic memory. b. semantic memory. c. implicit memory. d. procedural memory

Answer 58

b. semantic memory.

Question 59

19. The concept of context-dependent memory asserts that memory retrieval will be better if: a. the environment during encoding is similar to the environment during retrieval. b. the environment during encoding is different from the environment during retrieval. c. your internal state during encoding is similar to your internal state during retrieval. d. your internal state during encoding is different from your internal state during retrieval.

Answer 59

a. the environment during encoding is similar to the environment during retrieval.

Question 60

20. Hermann Ebbinghaus studied the processes of memory by: a. learning lists of nonsense syllables himself and measuring his relearning. b. having people read and recall an unusual Pacific Northwest Indian story. c. touching specific brain areas during surgery and having patients report on what they were experiencing. d. damaging specific brain areas in animals and noting how this impacted learning.

Answer 60

a. learning lists of nonsense syllables himself and measuring his relearning.

Question 61

21. Jim has a hard time remembering to do things that he plans to do in the future, such as mailing letters or remembering to call someone. These memories are examples of what are called ____________ memories and the frontal lobe is thought to play an important role in their retrieval. a. retroactive b. prospective c. anterograde d. retrograde

Answer 61

b. prospective

Question 62

22. Which of the following are considered dimensions of consciousness? a. Wakefulness b. Awareness c. Flow d. A and B

Answer 62

d. A and B

Question 63

23. What happens when one learns something new and stores it as short-term or long-term memory? a. It has no bearing on synaptic connections. b. Synaptic connections get weakened. c. Synaptic connections get strengthened. d. Increase in the release of Schwann cells.

Answer 63

c. Synaptic connections get strengthened.

Question 64

24. The area of the cortex that appears to be heavily involved in the process of emotion regulation and determining options for response is: a. the prefrontal cortex. b. the parietal lobe. c. the right hemisphere. d. the occipital lobe.

Answer 64

a. the prefrontal cortex.

Question 65

25. Which of the following are the key structures in the neuroendocrine regulation of stress responses? a. The hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the adrenal glands b. The adrenal gland, the parietal lobe, and the sebaceous gland c. The cerebellum, the adrenal glands, and the pineal gland d. The front lobe, the sebaceous gland, and the pituitary gland

Answer 65

a. The hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the adrenal glands

Question 66

26. According to the research of Yerkes and Dodson on the relationship between arousal and performance, performance will be best on a complex task if there is a ___________ level of arousal. However, if the task is easy and not very complex, it is likely that the optimal level of arousal for this second task will be ___________. a. moderate; lower b. low; the same c. moderate; higher d. high; higher

Answer 66

c. moderate; higher

Question 67

27. According to the traditional James-Lange theory of emotion, people who do NOT have access to feedback from their internal organs and physiology should experience: a. more intense emotional responses. b. no emotional responses. c. less intense emotional responses. d. emotional responses similar to normal individuals.

Answer 67

b. no emotional responses.

Question 68

28. According to the ______________, physiological information provided by the muscles of the face may provide significant clues regarding the nature and intensity of the emotions we experience. a. somatic feedback hypothesis b. display rules theory of emotion c. facial feedback hypothesis d. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

Answer 68

c. facial feedback hypothesis

Question 69

29. ______ stimulates the pituitary to release adrenocorticotropic hormone and is released by the hypothalamus during a state of emotional arousal. A. Corticotropin-releasing factor B. Proopiomelanocortin C. Melanocortin D. Pro-opiomelanocortin

Answer 69

A. Corticotropin-releasing factor

Question 70

30. A(n) _____________ is a chain of linkages between related concepts. a. parallel distributed processing b. tensor product network c. neural network d. associative network

Answer 70

d. associative network

Question 71

31. Your memory of what happened to you on a childhood trip to Disneyland would best be considered an example of: a. procedural memory b. implicit memory c. semantic memory d. episodic memory

Answer 71

d. episodic memory

Question 72

32. The concept of state-dependent memory asserts that memory retrieval will be better if: a. the environment during encoding is similar to the environment during retrieval. b. the environment during encoding is different from the environment during retrieval. c. your internal state during encoding is similar to your internal state during retrieval. d. your internal state during encoding is different from your internal state during retrieval

Answer 72

c. your internal state during encoding is similar to your internal state during retrieval.

Question 73

33. The Temporal Dynamics model of emotional enhancement is based on enhancing neural plasticity in the __________. a. Prefrontal cortex b. Hippocampus c. Amygdala d. Hypothalamus

Answer 73

b. Hippocampus

Question 74

34. The receptors for glutamate that are involved in Long-Term Potentiation (LTP) associated with memory are a. AMPA & IMPA b. NMDA & MDMA c. AMPA & NMPA d. AMPA & NMDA

Answer 74

d. AMPA & NMDA

Question 75

35. _________ belongs to the hallucinogen category of drugs and results in mild intoxication, the munchies, and some memory deficits. a. LSD b. PCP c. Marijuana d. Psilocybin

Answer 75

c. Marijuana

Question 76

1. ______________ was defined as the distinctive and relatively consistent ways of thinking, feeling, and behaving that characterize a person’s responses to various life situations. a. Self-efficacy b. Internalization c. Personality d. Self-verification

Answer 76

c. Personality

Question 77

2. _____________ are best described as relatively stable cognitive, emotional, and behavioral characteristics that help establish people’s individual identities and distinguish them from others. a. Types b. Traits c. Behavioral outcome expectancies d. Defense mechanisms

Answer 77

b. Traits

Question 78

3. The “A” in the personality acronym OCEAN stands for: a. apprehensiveness. b. adventurousness. c. aggressiveness. d. agreeableness

Answer 78

d. agreeableness

Question 79

4. All of the following were methods that Sigmund Freud used to discover hidden unconscious material, EXCEPT: a. hypnosis. b. sublimation. c. dream analysis. d. free association.

Answer 79

b. sublimation.

Question 80

5. According to humanistic theorists, _____________ refers to the active process of realizing our total human potential. a. self-actualization b. self-efficacy c. self-enhancement d. self-verification

Answer 80

a. self-actualization

Question 81

6. The existence of two or more disorders at the same time is called _____. A. cyclothymia B. comorbidity C. joint attention D. compulsion

Answer 81

B. comorbidity

Question 82

7. Which of the following statements regarding the stability of personality traits is most accurate? a. Almost all traits are remarkably consistent across time and across situations. b. Traits show significantly more stability across time than they do across situations. c. Traits show significantly more stability across situations than they do across time. d. In terms of stability across situations and across time, some traits are relatively stable, whereas others show a capacity for change.

Answer 82

d. In terms of stability across situations and across time, some traits are relatively stable, whereas others show a capacity for change.

Question 83

8. Identify the major psychological disorder that occurs when psychological symptoms take a physical form even though no physical causes can be found. A. Dissociative identity disorder B. Somatic symptom disorder C. Mood disorder D. Adjustment disorder

Answer 83

B. Somatic symptom disorder

Question 84

9. _____ disorder is a major psychological disorder that involves a sudden loss of memory or change of identity. A. Personality B. Dissociative C. Factitious D. Somatic symptom

Answer 84

B. Dissociative

Question 85

10. Which of the following are types of anxiety disorders? A. Dysthymia and kleptomania B. Depressive disorder and bipolar disorder C. Post-traumatic stress disorder and panic disorder D. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder

Answer 85

C. Post-traumatic stress disorder and panic disorder

Question 86

11. _____ are convincing sensory experiences that occur in the absence of an external stimulus. A. Panic attacks B. Hallucinations C. Manic episodes D. Delusions

Answer 86

B. Hallucinations

Question 87

12. The _____ were among the first pharmaceuticals used to treat depression. A. phenothiazines B. benzodiazepines C. atypical antipsychotics D. monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Answer 87

D. monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Question 88

13. Any type of psychotherapy that works to restructure irrational thought patterns is known as _____. a. psychoanalytic therapy b. humanistic-positive therapy c. behavioral therapy d. cognitive therapy

Answer 88

d. cognitive therapy

Question 89

14. Ozzie’s depression was treated with repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation. Which of the following did physicians do to his brain? a. exposed specific brain structures to high-intensity magnetic fields b. implanted magnets of opposing polarities in each brain hemisphere c. removed neurons that are attracted to magnetic fields and are therefore damaged d. colored affected brain tissue with magnetic coating, making identification easier

Answer 89

a. exposed specific brain structures to high-intensity magnetic fields

Question 90

15. Bill and Harold are identical twins, but only Bill develops depression. The vulnerability-stress model would predict that Bill has _______ stressors. a. more b. fewer c. the same d. None of these

Answer 90

a. more

Question 91

16. Obsession is to compulsion as: a. subjective-emotional is to behavioral. b. cognitive is to behavioral. c. physiological is to cognitive. d. behavioral is to cognitive.

Answer 91

b. cognitive is to behavioral.

Question 92

17. Which of the following is performed in a radical procedure known as prefrontal lobotomy? a. The left hemisphere of an individual’s brain is entirely removed. b. Connections between the prefrontal lobes and the lower portion of the brain are severed. c. The corpus callosum is severed and the frontal lobes are enlarged. d. The right visual pathway is rewired to be processed by the right hemisphere.

Answer 92

b. Connections between the prefrontal lobes and the lower portion of the brain are severed.

Question 93

18. _____ reduce(s) the action of the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which breaks down monoamine neurotransmitters in the brain. a. Lithium b. Benzodiazepines c. Barbiturates d. MAO inhibitors

Answer 93

d. MAO inhibitors

Question 94

19. The central diagnostic feature of ______________ is a breakdown in the coherence of the personality, resulting in significant changes in memory and/or identity. a. depression b. the dissociative disorders c. conversion disorder d. the somatoform disorders

Answer 94

b. the dissociative disorders

Question 95

20. One of the side effects of traditional antipsychotics is _____, which consists of repetitive, involuntary movements of jaw, tongue, face and mouth, and body tremors. a. nocebo b. tardive dyskinesia c. primary ciliary dyskinesia d. iatrogenesis

Answer 95

b. tardive dyskinesia

Question 96

21. A person with a euphoric mood, a decreased need for sleep, and grandiose or exaggerated cognitions would most likely be diagnosed as having: a. psychogenic fugue. b. schizophrenia. c. major depression. d. mania.

Answer 96

d. mania.

Question 97

22. Underactivity of all of the following neurotransmitters has been linked to depression, EXCEPT: a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. norepinephrine. d. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).

Answer 97

d. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).

Question 98

23. _______________ are false beliefs that are maintained in the face of contradictory evidence and they play a central role in ______________. a. Hallucinations; dissociative identity disorder b. Delusions; schizophrenia c. Helpless thoughts; anxiety d. Catastrophic thoughts; depression

Answer 98

b. Delusions; schizophrenia

Question 99

24. Impulsiveness, a lack of guilt, and a lack of emotional attachment to people are all aspects of: a. antisocial personality disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. somatoform disorders. d. paranoid schizophrenia.

Answer 99

a. antisocial personality disorder.

Question 100

25. Dolareen suffers from cynophobia, which is an abnormal fear of dogs. Her therapist is treating her with systematic desensitization, which means that the therapist is ___________________. A. pairing relaxation with gradual exposure to dogs B. hypnotizing her to be unafraid of dogs C. transferring her fear of dogs to a fear of cats D. reducing her real-world contact with dogs

Answer 100

A. pairing relaxation with gradual exposure to dogs

Question 101

26. Although they can be quite different from one another, the basic goal of all therapies is to a. identity important unconscious factors and change people’s personalities for the better. b. allow for the expression of previously denied or suppressed emotions. c. put people in touch with their innate tendencies for growth so that they can gain more personal freedom in their lives. d. change maladaptive patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving so that people can lead happier lives.

Answer 101

d. change maladaptive patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving so that people can lead happier lives.

Question 102

27. Which of the following refers to a major diagnostic tool used in the U.S. and some other Western cultures for psychological disorders? a. Disorders and Specialization Manual b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual c. Disorders and Symptoms Manual d. Diagnostic and Specialization Manual

Answer 102

b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual

Question 103

28. SSRIs treat depression by _____. a. decreasing the brain’s production of glutamate b. decreasing the brain’s production of acetylcholine c. increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain d. increasing the availability of GABA in the brain

Answer 103

c. increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain

Question 104

29. Given that Paul suffers from a disorder that makes it difficult for him to distinguish real from imagined perceptions, which of the following accounts for his condition? a. dysthymic disorder b. psychotic disorder c. cyclothymic disorder d. dissociative disorder

Answer 104

b. psychotic disorder

Question 105

30. Which of the following reasons is true for why SSRIs take about four weeks to have a therapeutic effect? a. It takes that long for new receptor sites to form to make use of the increased serotonin supply. b. Cortical tissue takes this long to regenerate once active medication is administered. c. The patient usually has an interfering, negative attitude that the medication will not work. d. The corpus callosum needs this time to strengthen the connection between hemispheres.

Answer 105

a. It takes that long for new receptor sites to form to make use of the increased serotonin supply.

Question 106

31. _____ is the point at which one moves from not having a particular response to having one. a. A personality trait b. A behavioral threshold c. A psychosexual stage d. Extraversion

Answer 106

b. A behavioral threshold

Question 107

32. In client-centered therapy, the therapist must show _____— that is, genuine liking and empathy for the client, regardless of what he or she has said or done. a. flooding b. desensitized immersion c. systematic desensitization d. unconditional positive regard

Answer 107

d. unconditional positive regard

Question 108

33. _____ entails restructuring thoughts, loosening the client’s belief in irrational thoughts that may perpetuate the disorder, and offering incentives for acquiring more adaptive thought and behavior patterns. a. Humanistic-positive therapy b. Group therapy c. Cognitive-behavioral therapy d. Implosion therapy

Answer 108

c. Cognitive-behavioral therapy

Question 109

34. Which of the following is true about traditional antipsychotics? a.Traditional antipsychotics are considered to be the first line of treatment for anxiety disorders. b. Clozapine, olanzapine, and risperidone are examples of traditional antipsychotics. c.Tardive dyskinesia is a particularly problematic side effect of traditional antipsychotics. d.Traditional antipsychotics have the same side effects as atypical antipsychotics.

Answer 109

c.Tardive dyskinesia is a particularly problematic side effect of traditional antipsychotics.

Question 110

35. For which of the following disorders are clozapine, olanzapine, and risperidone, as atypical antipsychotics, used as a treatment? a.schizophrenia b.avoidant personality disorder c.dissociative fugue d.dissociative identity disorder

Answer 110

a.schizophrenia

Question 111

36. Delusion is to hallucination as: a. auditory is to visual. b. grandiose is to persecutory. c. belief is to sensory experience. d. positive symptom is to negative symptom

Answer 111

c. belief is to sensory experience.

Question 112

37. Under which of the following circumstances is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) used today? a. to punish mentally ill patients for unacceptable behavior b. to reduce seizures in epileptics c. to treat depression when other treatments have failed d. to treat acute insomnia

Answer 112

c. to treat depression when other treatments have failed

Question 113

38. When Malcolm experiences the bizarre perceptual symptoms of schizophrenia, he shows the _____ of schizophrenia. a. cognitive b. manic c. adjunct d. positive

Answer 113

d. positive

Question 114

39. Which of the following best describes auditory hallucination? a. The false perception of taste b. The false perception of sight c. The false perception of sensation of touch d. The false perception of hearing voices in one’s head

Answer 114

d. The false perception of hearing voices in one’s head

Question 115

40. Anna shows negative symptoms of schizophrenia if she shows: a. instances of word salad. b. delusions. c. hallucinations. d. catatonia.

Answer 115

d. catatonia.