Psychology / Sociology

Question 1

Top-down processing

Answer 1

beliefs, ideas, expectations guide perceptions

Question 2

bottom-down processing

Answer 2

sensory input guides perception

Question 3

Which psychophysiology concept determines how high the volume of the tone must be for participants to detect it roughly half the time

A) absolute threshold
B) difference threshold
C) just noticable difference
D) sensory adaptation

Answer 3

A) absolute threshold

Question 4

Nonoverlapping confidence interval error bars

Answer 4

always imply a statisitcally significant difference between groups. The opposite is not always true

Question 5

Researchers have identified a set of factors associated with an increased risk of developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, including low birth weight, respiratory infections before age 2 , low SES in childhood, adolescent smoking, and occupational exposure to airborne irritants as an adult.

This finding best reflects:

A) the sick role theory approach
B) the illness experience perspective
C) the social construction of chronic disease
D) the life course approach to illness

Answer 5

D) the life course approach to illness

The life course approach is a holistic, multidiscplinary framework for understanding how psychological, biological, and sociocultural factors across a lifetime have a cumulative effect on health outcomes

Question 6

Common sense theory of emotion

Answer 6

Stimulus –> subjective epxerience of fear –> body response (arousal)

Report: “my heart is pounding because I am afraid”

Question 7

James-Lange theory of emotion

Answer 7

stimulus –> body response (arousal) –> subjective experience of fear

“I am afraid because my heart is pounding”

Question 8

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

Answer 8

stimulus –> body response (arousal) + subjective experience of fear

“my heart is pounding and the wolf makes me feel afraid”

Question 9

Schachter-Singer theory of emotion

Answer 9

stimulus –> body response (arousal) –> interpretation –> subjective experience

“my pounding heart signifies fear because I have appraised the situation as dangerous”

Question 10

Which statement best identifies the promotion of false consciousness in popular media? A magazine article about heart disease in women that emphasizes the role of:

A) genetics in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of social influences on disease etiology
B) global inequalities in access to health care, which lead to growing disparities in mortality rates between nations
C) individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in access to health care
D) social class inequalities in access to health care, which lead to unequal rates of heart disease among the wealthy and poor

Answer 10

C) individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in access to health care

False consciousness: "This article is right: my poor health is entirely my fault."
Class consciousness: "this article doesn't consider how much harder it is for people in my social class to see a doctor."

Question 11

A study found that over time, compared to white immigrants, immigrants of color experience poorer health overall. The researchers hypothesized that these immigrants, while living in the US, are confronted with implicit and explicit negative messages about their outsider status as both a racial “minority” and as “immigrants,” which have a cumulative impact on their health. This hypothesisi is most related to which pair of factors?

A) intersectionality and racialization
B) cultural transmission and racialization
C) intersectionaly and stereotype threat
D) cultural transmission and stereotype threat

Answer 11

A) intersectionality and racialization

intersectionaltiy = describes how individuals hold multiple, interconnected, marginalized social identities that impact their lives, perspectives, and treatment in society

racialization = the process by which one group designates another group with a racial identity, often based on shared group qualities, such as physical attributes (skin color) or behaviors (religious practices). The designating group has more social power (dominant group) and exerts social control over the designated group, which has less social power (subordinate group)

Question 12

Research has shown that when indiviudals consume the same food stimulus, they reach satiety faster compared to when they consume varied food stimuli. This finding suggestions that satieity, which involves a reduction in both physiological and behavioral responses to food stimuli, may be partly due to :

A) desensitization
B) habituation
C) operant conditioning
D) generalization

Answer 12

B) habituation

Appetitie and satiety are influened by internal and external cues. The research finding that when individuals consume the same food stimulus they reach satieity faster than when they consume varied food stimuli suggests that satiety may be partly due to habituation

Not desensitization. The research findings did not show an increased response followed by a decreased response

Question 13

habituation

Answer 13

decreased response to a stimulus over time (no longer noticing that a sweater feels scratchy after wearing it for a few minutes)

Question 14

dishabituation

Answer 14

a renewed response to a previously habituated stimulus (after taking off the sweater and putting it back on, it feels scratchy again

Question 15

sensitizaiton

Answer 15

increased response to a stimulus over time (sweater’s scrachiness becomes more irritating until it is unbearable)

Question 16

desensitization

Answer 16

decrease response to a previously sensitived stimulus over time (irritation from previously unbearable scratchiness diminishes over time)

Question 17

In a two-part procedure for teaching children with diabetes to self-inject insulin, a child is first shown a video of same-aged peers self-injecting insulin and is then given a sticker for each attempt to self-inject. This procedure utilizes:

A) classical conditioning and secondary reinforcement
B) classical conditioning and a token economy
C) observational learning and a token economy
D) observational learning and secondary reinfocement

Answer 17

D) observational learning and secondary reinfocement

not a token economy because no trade

Question 18

primary reinforcers

Answer 18

naturally rewarding (eg, candy)

Question 19

secondary reinforcers

Answer 19

conditioned to be desirable (eg, candy)

Question 20

Symptoms of a myocardial infarction can differ between individuals, Women who experienced a myocardial infarction were later interviewed by a researcher about their decision to seek treatment. Many participants noted they delayed seeking treatment because their symptoms didn’t match the prototypical heart attack symptoms they had seen in the media. Which concept best explains this phenomenon?

A) representative heuristic
B0 available heuristic
C) actor observer bias
D) hindsight bias

Answer 20

A) representative heuristic

Question 21

availability heuristic

Answer 21

how easily something comes to memory (eg, assuming shark attacks are common after seeing one reported on the news)

Question 22

representativeness heuristic

Answer 22

how well something matches a mental prototype (assuming a woman dressed in scrubs is a nurse rather than a surgeon)

Question 23

A researcher is testing a patient’s neurological function. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient’s right visual field, he can correctly vocalize what he saw. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient’s left visual field, he is unable to saw what he saw but can correctly draw it. Which of the following is most likely damaged in this patient?

A) left retina
B) wernicke area
C) right occiptal crtex
D) corpus callosum

Answer 23

D) corpus callosum

Individuals with split-brain syndrmoe have a severed corpus callosum, preventing interhemispheric communication

Question 24

Which best exemplifies instinctive drift?

A) childrne are born with a biological predispostion to prefer sweet foods and to dislike bitter foods, which are more likely to be toxic
B) in humans it is easier to condition a fear response to innately dangerous stimuli, such as snakes, than to harmless stimuli, such as rabbits
C) animals trained to perform a specific behavior will often lose that behavior in favor of innate behaviors, even when reinforcement is present
D) animals who become ill after one exposure to a noxiosu stimulus will quickly learn to avoid that stimulus in the future

Answer 24

C) animals trained to perform a specific behavior will often lose that behavior in favor of innate behaviors, even when reinforcement is present

Question 25

role exit

Answer 25

indiviudal disengages from a social role, often replacing it with a new social role Ex: a college student graduates and begins a full-time employment

Question 26

Which statement most accurately applies the general adaptation syndrome to the stress associated with parentign children with disabilities (p. 1) A) the stress resulting from the prejudice of others would not impact physiological processes because it is a social stressor B) at the first onset of a child's symptoms, parents increased resistance to stress C) the physiological impact of parenting a child with a serious disability will be similar for all parents D) as a child's medical condition continues over a prolonged period, parents experienced decreased resistance to stress 402399

Answer 26

D) as a child's medical condition continues over a prolonged period, parents experienced decreased resistance to stress 1. Alarm : decreased resistance to stress 2. Resistance : increased resistance to stress 3. Exhaustion: decreased resistance to stress

Question 27

The humanisitic psychotherapy peer mentor would habe been most likely to have participants focus on: A) accepting the circumstances of their child's condition and pursuing personal growth B) replacing negative, maladaptive thoughts with positive, adaptive thoughs C) uncovering unconscious conflicts and feelings about their child's condition D) treating underlying physiological causes of their depression before engaging in therapy

Answer 27

A) accepting the circumstances of their child's condition and pursuing personal growth

Question 28

cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

Answer 28

attempts to change negative thoughts / belieds (cognitions) & maladative behaviors various techniques (eg, desensitization, self-talk) used to replace destructive thoughts/behaviors with healthy ones

Question 29

psychanalytic therapy (talk therapY)

Answer 29

attempts to uncover how unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood shape behaviros various technqiues (eg, free association, dream analysis) used to analyze unconscious

Question 30

humanistic therapy ( person-centered therapy)

Answer 30

attempts to empower individual to move toward self-actualization unconditional positive regard & empathy used to encourage client to reach full potential

Question 31

A researcher criticizes Study 1, claiming that nonrepresentative sampling led to results that may not apply to many families of children with disabilities. This criticism is most concerned with: A) internal validity B) reliability C) confounding variables D) generalizability 402402

Answer 31

D) generalizability

Question 32

internal validity

Answer 32

describes causality if a change in the independent variable is really causing a change in the dependent variable major threats to: - confounding variables - selection bias - maturation - repeated testing - regression toward the mean increases as the experiment becomes more tightly controlled decreases as experiment becomes more like the real world

Question 33

external validity

Answer 33

describes generalizability if the observed relationship applies outside the experiment to another situation or other people major threats to: - artificial research environment - nonrepresentative sample - measurement effects decreases as experiment becomes more tightly controlled increases as experiment becomes more like the real world

Question 34

Inclusive fitness theory

Answer 34

direct fitness (# of offspring an organism produces) + indirect fitness (# of relatives an organism aids through altruistic behavior) --> overall fitness (# of genes passed on to next generation)

Question 35

defining features of bureaucracies

Answer 35

1. division of labor : specialized employees increase efficiency 2. hierachial organization : centralized authority and clear chain of command 3. standardization : formal procedures and rules increase uniformity and continuity 4. impersonal : same impersonal criteria applied to all increase equality

Question 36

secure attachment

Answer 36

- develops from sensitive, responsive caregivers - infants readily explore a new environment when caregiver is near - infants are distressed by a caregiver leaving and comforted on return - associated with better long-term effects (more satisfaction in adult relationships, greater health outcomes)

Question 37

insecure attachment

Answer 37

- develops from insensitive, unresponsive caregivers - in a new environment, infants are apathetic or overly clingy toward caregiver - infants are indifferent to, or not comforted by, a caregiver's return - associated with worse long-term effects (less satisfaction in adult relationships, worse health outcomes)

Question 38

Which scenario best illustrates dishabitation? An ICU nurse: A) finds the beeping from medical monitors increasingly annoying over time B) no longer notices the beeping from medical monitors over time C) ignores the background noise of medical monitors beeping but notices and responds to a critical alarm D) no longer noticed the beeping from medical monitors before vacation but notices it again upon returning to work

Answer 38

D) no longer noticed the beeping from medical monitors before vacation but notices it again upon returning to work

Question 39

factors correlated with increased obedience

Answer 39

1. personal factors status: lower status, less power 2. situational factors proximity: authority figure is closer, victim is farther away legitimacy: authority figure seems more legitimate, prestigious consensus: everyone else is obeying 3. cultural factors collectivism: societies that value the group over the individual

Question 40

normative organization

Answer 40

membership is based on shared goals and/or values

Question 41

utilitarian organization

Answer 41

membership is driven by compensation (eg money or certification/diplomas)

Question 42

coercive organization

Answer 42

membership is not freely chosen and/or maintained

Question 43

dissociative identity disorder

Answer 43

presence of two or more distinct personalities; amnesia

Question 44

dissociative amnesia

Answer 44

inability to recall important authobiographical information

Question 45

Cluster A personality disorders

Answer 45

Odd/ecentric Paranoid Schizoid Schizotypal

Question 46

Cluster B personality disorders

Answer 46

Dramatic/emotional/erratic Antisocial borderline histrionic narcissistic

Question 47

cluster c personality disorders

Answer 47

anxious/fearful avoidant dependent obsessive-compulsive

Question 48

somatic symptom disorder

Answer 48

extreme concern regarding one or more physical symptoms (eg fatigue, pain)

Question 49

conversion disorder

Answer 49

"neurological symptoms" (eg paralysis, blindness) that are not explainable by a medical condition

Question 50

illness anxiety disorder

Answer 50

preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious disease (eg HIV, cancer)

Question 51

factitious disorder

Answer 51

symptoms or illness are intentionally fabricated without obvious external gain (eg disability benefits)

Question 52

functionalism

Answer 52

society = an organism each part of society works to maintain dynamic equilibrium (homeostasis) macrosociology

Question 53

functionalism theorists

Answer 53

emile durkheim, talcott parsons

Question 54

conflict theory

Answer 54

soceity = struggle for limited resources inequality based on social class macrosociology

Question 55

conflict theory theorists

Answer 55

karl marx, max weber

Question 56

social constructionism theory

Answer 56

social actors define what is real knowledge about world based on interactions macro or micro sociology

Question 57

symbolic interactionism

Answer 57

meaning and value attached to symbols individual interactions based on these symbols microsociology

Question 58

symbolic interactionism theorists

Answer 58

charles cooley, george herbert mead

Question 59

rational choice / social exchange theory

Answer 59

individual behaviors and interactions attempt to maximize personal gain and minimize personal cost microsociology

Question 60

feminist theory

Answer 60

examines gender inequality in society macro or micro sociology

Question 61

denial

Answer 61

inability or refusal to recognize unacceptable thoughts/behaviors EX: insisting one is not angry when actually angry

Question 62

projection

Answer 62

attributing unacceptable thoughts/behaviors to someone or something else EX: calling the sidewalk stupid after tripping

Question 63

rationalization

Answer 63

making excuses for unacceptable thoughts/behaviors ex: justifying cheating because the course is impossible

Question 64

regression

Answer 64

behaving as if much younger to avoid unacceptable thoughts/behaviors ex: moving back in with parents to avoid personal responsibilities

Question 65

repression

Answer 65

blocking unacceptable thoughts/behaviors from consciousness ex: being unaware of a traumatic past experience

Question 66

displacement

Answer 66

taking out unacceptable thoughts/behaviros on a safe target ex: punching a pillow when angry at parents

Question 67

sublimation

Answer 67

transforming unacceptable thoughts/behaviors into acceptable ones ex: taking up boxing as a way to channel one's anger

Question 68

reaction formation

Answer 68

behaving in a manner opposite unacceptable thoughts/behaviors ex: expressing love for a person one despises

Question 69

escape learning

Answer 69

current undesirable stimulus removed ex: teenager fakes illness while doing dishes, gets to stop

Question 70

avoidance learning

Answer 70

future undesirable stimulus prevented ex: teenager stays late at school to avoid evening chores

Question 71

At an inpatient hospital, patients are encouraged to engage in certain behaviors through reinforcement. Each time a patient engages in a desired behavior, they are given a secondary reinforcer, which can be exchanged for more attractive rewards. This scenario illustrates which of the following? A) modeling B) classical conditioning C) token economy D) stimulus generalizaiton

Answer 71

C) token economy

Question 72

Which of the following sets of symptoms is most consistent with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder? A 39 year old man who reports: A) difficulty sleeping, fatigue, low appetite, and loss of interest in activities he previously enjoyed B) repeated surges of overwhelming anxiety with racing heart, difficulty breathing, sweating, and a fear that he is losing his mind C) an exaggerated startle response, nightmares, avoidance of certain situations, and negative thoughts and moods D) difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, fatigue, and worry about his health, finances, and family

Answer 72

D) difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, fatigue, and worry about his health, finances, and family widespread worry and multiple physical symptoms

Question 73

generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 73

- excessive, uncontrollable worry about a range of topics | - muscle tension; difficulty concentrating or sleeping, feeling restless, fatigued, or irritable

Question 74

panic disorder

Answer 74

-repeated, uncontrollable, and predictable panic attacks (ie overwhelming surges of anxiety that peak within minutes)

Question 75

specific phobia

Answer 75

excessive, irrational fear of a specific situation (eg, flying) or animal/object (eg, spiders)

Question 76

social anxiety disorder / social phobia

Answer 76

intense fear of scrutiny or rejection in social situations (eg public speaking, asking someone on a date)

Question 77

Demographic Transition Model Stage 1

Answer 77

In preindustrial societies, birth and death rates are both high and population growth is slow

Question 78

Demographic Transition Model stage 2

Answer 78

as societies begin to industrialize, death rates drop as food/medicine availability and sanitation increase, and population growth is rapid

Question 79

Demographic Transition Model Stage 3

Answer 79

As societities urbanization, the population continues to grow, but birth rates begin to decline as access to contraception increases

Question 80

Demographic Transition Model Stage 4

Answer 80

in developed societies, birth and death rates are both low and population growth is slow

Question 81

Demographic Transition Model stage 5

Answer 81

for highly developed societies with very low birth rates, the population may decline

Question 82

Population pyramid of a population that is most likely to decrease in size in near future

Answer 82

peak population at age 15, thin out as age increases and decreases

Question 83

expanding population pyramids

Answer 83

broad bases (lots of younger people) and narrow tops (few older people) and are characteristic of developing countries with high birth/death rates and an increasing population size

Question 84

stationary population pyramids

Answer 84

broad bases and broad tops, characteristic of developed countries with low birth/death rates and a stable population size

Question 85

contracting population pyramids

Answer 85

narrower bases than midlines and are characteristic of developed countries with very low birth rates and a gradually population size

Question 86

A survey of medical students found that most believe the surgical specialty has its own clearly defined "masculine" subculture, and that to succeed as surgeons, individuals need to "adopt masculine characteristics." These beliefs best reflect which aspect of surgical medical education? A) teacher expectancy B) manifest functions C) hidden curriculum D) material culture

Answer 86

C) hidden curriculum

Question 87

stimulants

Answer 87

speeds up CNS function, elevates mood ex: amphetamines, cocaine

Question 88

depressants

Answer 88

slows down CNS function EX; alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazapines

Question 89

narcotic analgesics "painkillers"

Answer 89

lessen sensation of pain | Ex: morphine, codeine, heroin

Question 90

hallucinogens

Answer 90

triggers mind-altering effects | ex: lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)

Question 91

Which of the following scenarios best represents intragenerational vertical mobility? A) an hourly wage employee has a son who becomes a neurosurgeon B) a cardiologist loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job C) a general surgeon in Denver moves his surgical practice to Dallas D) a dentist inherits his mother's dental practice

Answer 91

B) a cardiologist loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job

Question 92

intragenerational horizontal mobility

Answer 92

no change in status | ex: doctor moves her practice from Atlanta to Chicago

Question 93

intragenerational upward mobility

Answer 93

increase in social status , 1 generation | ex: after 10 years, nurse goes back to school to earn MD

Question 94

intragenerational downward mobility

Answer 94

decrease in social status, 1 generation | ex: doctor loses license to practice medicine

Question 95

intergenerational horizontal mobility

Answer 95

no change in status, 2+ generations | ex: son of doctors becomes a doctor

Question 96

intergenerational upward mobility

Answer 96

increase in social status, 2+ generations | ex: son of high school dropouts becomes a doctor

Question 97

intergenerational downward mobility

Answer 97

decrease in social status, 2+ generations | ex: son of doctors becomes a high school dropout

Question 98

caste system

Answer 98

- individual social status is ascribed from birth - social groupings are rigid - social mobility is very difficult

Question 99

class system

Answer 99

- individual social status is at least partially achieved through merit (eg, ability, hard work) - social groupings are flexible/fluid - social mobility is possible

Question 100

A patient who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed a neuroleptic medication. Which of the following symptoms, if present, is this medication most likely to improve? A) apathy B) inability to experience pleasure C) emotional flattening D) disorganized speech

Answer 100

D) disorganized speech neuroleptic / antipsychotic mediations are effective in reducing positive symptoms

Question 101

in-group

Answer 101

group to which an indiviudal identifies and belongs, others in in-group viewed favorable

Question 102

out-group

Answer 102

group to which an individual does not identify or belong, out-group members viewed unfavorably

Question 103

reference group

Answer 103

comparison group to which an individual compares self, individual may or may not belong to this group

Question 104

primary group

Answer 104

group of individuals who are emotionally close, smaller in size, high degree of interaction (eg family)

Question 105

secondary group

Answer 105

group of individuals who come together to accomplish something, larger in size, more impersonal (eg, coworkers)

Question 106

Compared to women's social networks, men's social networks tend to be larger, have more weak ties, and provide more information about work-related topics; therefore men's social networks most likely confer A) less social capital and less social mobility B) more social capital and more social mobility C) less social capital but more social mobility D) more social capital but less social mobility

Answer 106

B) more social capital and more social mobility social networks = informal and nonhierachial webs of interaction bewteen nodes, with are linked by ties. Nodes can be individuals or organizations. Ties describe the connections between the nodes and are defined as strong or weak. Weak ties are loose/flimsy connections, such as those between acquaintances, whereas stronge ties are more solid connections, such as those between family and close friends social capital = persons network that can be converted into economic gain. men's networks are larger and provide more information about work-related topics, such as where there are job openings or promotion possibilities. Therefore, men's networks connections confer more social capital because these connections can be more easily converted into economic gain social mobility = movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society (eg, from middle class to upper class). By providing more social captial (potential economic gain), men's networks also provide more social mobility

Question 107

Standardized protocols, patient checklists, and clinical guidelines are meant to increase efficiency, calculability, predictability, and control in the clinical setting. However, critics of standardizing medicine suggest that these sort of practices may lead to : A) a manifest function of medical care B) the McDonaldization of health care C) an increase in the cultural capital of doctors D) a decrease in the ascribed status of patients

Answer 107

B) the McDonaldization of health care

Question 108

McDonaldization

Answer 108

Efficiency - intended to increase optimization - unintended result is decrease in individuality - fast food ex: customer orders at register and cleans own table - med ex: patient goes to a "minute clinic" for specific concerns calculability - intended to increase quantity - unintended result is decrease in quality - fast food ex: increased amount of food can be purchased - med ex: increased number of patient can be seen predictability - intended to increase uniformity and standardization - unintended result is decrease in uniqueness - fast food ex: all restaurant chains appear the same, have the same products - med ex: standardized patient checklists make appointments uniform control - increase in automation - unintended result is decrease in skilled workforce - fast food ex: pre-prepared frozen food - med ex: electronic patient portals allow patients to see test results

Question 109

modernization

Answer 109

the social progress and transition of a society brougt about by industrialzation. This process results in a society becoming less traditional and more bureaucratized, with a reduction in the importance of religion

Question 110

secularization

Answer 110

reduced power of religion as religious involvement declines

Question 111

fundamentalism

Answer 111

renewed commitment to traditional religion as a reaction to secularization

Question 112

What prediction is compatible with the sociologist' assertion in the fourth paragraph? The increase of medicalization will result in medical professionals having: A) greater power and authority B) reduced power and authority C) greater authority, but no effect on their power D) greater power, but no effect on authority 402408

Answer 112

A) greater power and authority As medicalization increases in a society, individuals will increasinfly rely on medical professionals, rather than clergy, as legitmate sources of guidance on lifestyle behaviors. Therefore, medical professionals will have more power (ie, influence on people) and authority, as that power will be seen as legitimate

Question 113

Alternative hypothesis

Answer 113

based on prior evidence and assumes that a significant relationship or difference exists between variables (and often predicts the nature of that relationship or difference)

Question 114

null hypothesis

Answer 114

states that there is no significant difference or relationship between the variables measured

Question 115

Erikson's stage : 0-1

Answer 115

- infancy - conflict: trust vs mistrust - resolution: ability to have faith in others

Question 116

Erikson's stage : 1-3

Answer 116

- early childhood - conflict: autonomy vs shame/doubt - resolution: sense of self-control and independence

Question 117

Erikson's stage : 3-6

Answer 117

- play age - initiative vs guilt - resolution: ability to take initiative with peers

Question 118

Erikson's stage : 6-12

Answer 118

- school age - conflict: initiative vs guilt - resolution: sense of confidence in skills and abilities

Question 119

Erikson's stage : 12-20

Answer 119

- adolescence - conflict: identity vs confusion - resolution: sense of self-identiy

Question 120

Erikson's stage : 20-40

Answer 120

- early adulthood - conflict: intimacy vs isolation - resoltuion: ability to commit to and love others

Question 121

Erikson's stage : 40-65

Answer 121

- middle age - conflict: generativity vs stagnation - resolution: concern for others and society

Question 122

Erikson's stage : >65

Answer 122

- old age - conflict: integrity vs despair - resolution: sense of accomplishment and fulfillment

Question 123

A feminist theories would be most interested in which of the following? A) equalizing pay between females in pink-collar and blue-collar occupations B) removing barriers to entry in all occupations for females C) creating more access for males in pink-collar occupations D) balancing the percentage of females in males within each occupation

Answer 123

B) removing barriers to entry in all occupations for females Not D because balancing the numbers would seem to remove career choice, which is not a feminist goal. Removing the barriers so that all occuptations become legitimate options for females would be the feminist focus

Question 124

mechanoreceptors

Answer 124

- detect movement - stimuli: sound waves, touch - ex: hair cells (ear)

Question 125

chemoreceptors

Answer 125

- detects chemicals - stimuli: molecules, solutes - ex: taste buds (tongue)

Question 126

thermoreceptors

Answer 126

- detects temperature - stimuli: heat, cold - ex: skin

Question 127

photoreceptors

Answer 127

- detects light waves - stimuli: visible light - ex: rods, cones (retina)

Question 128

sensorimotor stage

Answer 128

- <2 years - experiencing the environment via senses and actions - object permanence - stranger anxiety

Question 129

pre-operational stage (piaget)

Answer 129

- age 2-7 - representing real things with words and images - pretend play - egocentrism - language development

Question 130

concrete operational (piaget)

Answer 130

- age 7-11 - thinking logically about concrete events - grasping concrete analogies - performing arithmetic - conservation - mathematical transformation

Question 131

formal operation (piaget)

Answer 131

- age >12 - thinking about hypothetical scenarios - grasping abstract thought - abstract logic - moral reasoning develops

Question 132

folkways

Answer 132

ex: wearing clothes backward - least deviant - minor punishments (eg, staring)

Question 133

mores

Answer 133

ex: wearing no clothes in public - more deviant - more serious punishment (eg, arrest)

Question 134

taboos

Answer 134

ex: incest, suicide - most deviant - most serious punishment (eg, incarceration)

Question 135

ascribed status

Answer 135

assigned social position (eg, race)

Question 136

achieved status

Answer 136

attained social position (eg, doctor)

Question 137

master status

Answer 137

dominant social position (eg, ex-convict)

Question 138

stereotypes

Answer 138

generalized beliefs (good or bad) about social groups , based on cognition

Question 139

prejudice

Answer 139

negative belief & feeling about someone based on membership in a social group, based on emotion

Question 140

Besides reducing stereotype threat, the presence of a cultural liasion during a doctor's appointment increases: A) the number of group members, making groupthink more likely B) the number of group members, making group polarization more likely C) the number of social ties, making the group more stable D) the number of social ties, making the group more intimate 401058

Answer 140

C) the number of social ties, making the group more stable

Question 141

dyad

Answer 141

- 2 members - 1 social tie - more intimate - group ceases to exist if one member withdraws

Question 142

triad

Answer 142

- 3 membres - up to 3 social ties - one member can leave and group still exists

Question 143

tetrad

Answer 143

- 4 members - up to 6 social ties - tends to be the least stable - will usually split into 2 groups of 2

Question 144

larger groups

Answer 144

- 5+ members - many social ties - social processes may occur (eg, groupthink, social loafing)

Question 145

A researcher wants to train a mouse to run on an exercise wheel. the LEAST effective way to train this new behavior would involve A) rewarding the mouse at first for touching the wheel, then for climbing on it, then for running on it B) providing reinforcement every 5 minutes, as long as the mouse runs on the wheel at some point during that time C) first depriving the mouse of food for 24 hours, then using food pellets as a reward D) providing positive reinforcement each time the mouse runs on the exercise wheel

Answer 145

B) providing reinforcement every 5 minutes, as long as the mouse runs on the wheel at some point during that time A fixed-interval reinforcement schedule is not an optimal way to train an animal to perform a new behavior because it is more difficult for the animal associate the desired behavior with the reward

Question 146

A woman who wants a baby but is opposed to using medical intervention to become pregnant is informed by her doctor that she will never conceive without medical intervention. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that this woman is most likely to do all of the following, except: A) seek a second opinion from another doctor B) change her attitude about using medical intervention to become pregnant C) accept her doctor's diagnosis while maintaining her own opposition to medical intervention D) decide that she does not want to have a baby

Answer 146

C) accept her doctor's diagnosis while maintaining her own opposition to medical intervention this action would maintain the dissonance

Question 147

preparatory stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)

Answer 147

- infancy, toddler - imitation: often lacks understanding - "i"

Question 148

play stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)

Answer 148

- preschool age - role-taking: taking on role of specific others - transitioning from "i" to "me"

Question 149

game stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)

Answer 149

- school age - generalized other: understanding all roles & overarching rules - "me"

Question 150

Before Sarah sought therapy, her cleaning rituals acted as: A) positive reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) positive punishment D) negative punishment

Answer 150

B) negative reinforcement undesirable stimulus is removed, encourages behavior to happen again Sarah's cleaning rituals act as negative reinforcement because she experienced a reduction in anxeity (ie removal of an undesirable stimulus) after performing cleaning rituals, leading her to perform the cleaning rituals more often (behavior increases)

Question 151

A conditioned fear response during phase 2 occurs as a result of which type of memory? A) implicit memory B) procedural memory C) explicit memory D) semantic memory

Answer 151

A) implicit memory emotional/reflexive

Question 152

Based on the passage and the principles of taste aversion, which strategy should physicians suggest to their patients undergoing chemotherapy? On the day of chemotherapy, patients should A) pair their favorite foods with a novel beverage B) eat their favorite foods several hours before chemo treatment C) only consume favorite beverages, not water D) avoid eating their favorite foods entirely 401403

Answer 152

D) avoid eating their favorite foods entirely This strategy will prevent patients from developing a taste aversion to these foods. If a favored food is consumed prior to the experience of nausea (resulting from chemo), it is possible that the food will be permanently associated with the nausea

Question 153

In a follow up to study 2, the control participants returend to the chemotherapy room to fill out surveys every day for a week after their final chemo treatment. By the end of the week, particiants anticipatory nausea had significantly decreased. This initiates which phenomenon? A) acquistion B) stimulus C) extinction ' D) spontaneous recovery 401404

Answer 153

C) extinction If the control participants repeatedly return to the chemotherapy room to fill out surveys, they would experience the conditioned stimulus (ie, the room, equipment) in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus (chemotherapy medication) which should result in a reduction of the conditioned resposne (ie, AN)

Question 154

If the survey from Study 3 that assessed the patients' level of AN was determined to be reliable, which of the following statements is true: A) researchers can confidently extrapolate from study 3 to all patients with cancer B) survey administration is consistent across medical settings C) the survey is an accurate measure of nausea symptoms D) nausea scores on the survey will be similar from one survey administration to the next 401405

Answer 154

D) nausea scores on the survey will be similar from one survey administration to the next

Question 155

randomized controlled trial

Answer 155

- experimental - random allocation into treatment & placebo groups - can determine efficacy of the intervention

Question 156

nonrandomized design

Answer 156

- nonrandom allocation into treatment and placebal groups - can determine efficacy of the intervention - experimental

Question 157

longitudinal

Answer 157

- observational - data gathered at multiple time points - can assess risk factors or outcomes

Question 158

cross-sectional

Answer 158

observational - data gathered at one point in time - can determine prevalence of an outcome in a population

Question 159

case-control

Answer 159

- observational - data gathered from individuals with the condition of interest (cases) and compared to individuals without the condition (controls)

Question 160

case study

Answer 160

- observational | - detailed information gathered about one individual (or a small group of individuals)

Question 161

meta-analysis

Answer 161

- review | - data from multiple studies are statistically combined and analyzed

Question 162

sick role theory (talcott parsons)

Answer 162

rights 1. exemption from normal social roles and responsibilities 2. lack of accountability for illness obligations 1. must attempt to get well 2. must seek and comply with treatment

Question 163

The biomedical approach to mental illness is best demonstrated by: A) the systematic underdiagnosis of BD by the medical community B) pharmaceutical companies attempting to raise awareness about BD C) BD patients' inability to recognize symptoms of mania as problematic D) proactive strategies encouraging self-identification of manic symptoms

Answer 163

B) pharmaceutical companies attempting to raise awareness about BD

Question 164

activity approach to aging

Answer 164

remaining physically and socially active improves quality of life for older adults

Question 165

continuity approach to aging

Answer 165

older adults attempt to maintain the habits and behaviors from their youth

Question 166

disengagement approach to aging

Answer 166

older adults withdraw from social relationships/society as society withdraws from them

Question 167

life course theory

Answer 167

aging viewed holistically in terms of social, biological, cultural, and psychological contexts

Question 168

fertility rate

Answer 168

measure of the number of people being added to a given population through birth (as opposed to immigration)

Question 169

total fertility rate

Answer 169

the average number of children born per woman during her lifetime

Question 170

The interactionist theory of language development suggests that A) praise for speaking a new word reinforces young children to say that word again B) children who are deprived of language exposure early in life are unable to achieve full fluency C) young children are unable to think about concepts for which they have not yet learned the words D) innate factors combined with contact between children and their caregivers produce language

Answer 170

D) innate factors combined with contact between children and their caregivers produce language

Question 171

learning perspective of language

Answer 171

language acquisition learned via operant conditioning, language imitation and practice

Question 172

nativist perspective of language

Answer 172

language acquisition is innate and biologically predetermined -occurs during a critical (time-sensitive) period early in life

Question 173

interactionist perspective of language

Answer 173

language acquisition is biological (due to normal brain development) and social (due to interaction, reinforcement, desire/motivation to communicate)

Question 174

Which of the following best explains the role of social facilitation in accounting for the results of Study 2? A) Individuals perfrom more efficiently when they know they are being observed compared to when they know they are not being observed B) individuals prefer to perform familiar tasks in the presence of others but unfamiliar tasks when alone C) An indivudal's performance is less predictable when acting in the presence of others than when acting alone D) the impact that the presence of others has on an individual's performance depends on the nature of the task 400825

Answer 174

D) the impact that the presence of others has on an individual's performance depends on the nature of the task social facilitation : enhanced performance of familiar tasks social impairment: impaired performance of unfamiliar tasks

Question 175

A researcher in Study 1 beleives the results are due to deindividuation. Is this conclusion justified? A) No, because races in which individuals are being timed do not impair personal responsibility B) No, because bicycle races do not involve groups that are large enough to influence behavior C) Yes, because large bicycle races induce feelings of anonymity among competitiors D) Yes, because team competition reduces one's sense of personal identity 400826

Answer 175

A) No, because races in which individuals are being timed do not impair personal responsibility

Question 176

Dramaturgical approach to understanding behavior

Answer 176

Front-stage self - behavior in social situation s - "actor" performs based on expectations of the "audience" - impression management: meant to shape perceptions of others - focus on appearance, manners, and social status Back-stage self - behavior in private - "actor" can relax and no longer needs to perform - behavior is spontaneous and free from evaluation or judgement by others

Question 177

To test whether the process of deliberation described in the passage had its hypothesized effect (paragraph 3) , researchers would need to operationalize which dependent variable? A) deliberation B) patient's weight C) psychological reaction D) number of options presented to the patient 400877

Answer 177

C) psychological reaction Not B - hypothesis was deliberation would result in the reduction or avoidance of psychological reactance, not weight loss

Question 178

How would incentive theory explain a patient's motivation for continuing to smoke? A) smoking is a more immediate external motivator than the reward of future health B) smokers are motivated to continue smoking due to a physical addiction to nicotine C) smokers are internally motivated to preserve their freedom to smoke D) smoking reduces undesirable with-drawl symptoms

Answer 178

A) smoking is a more immediate external motivator than the reward of future health incentive theory: external, positive rewards motivate behavior

Question 179

Korsakoff syndrome

Answer 179

Symptoms - Memory loss - Confabulation (memory fabrication without the intension to lie) Causes -Extreme thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency resulting from chronic alcohol consumption, eating disorders and/or chronic malnutrition treatment/prognosis -vitamin B1 supplementation can reverse most/all symptoms if caught early

Question 180

Matching healthy control group in terms of age, gender, and premorbid IQ was meant to account for all of the following except: A) biological factors that affect cognition B) influence of environment on cognitive development C) cognitive changes that occur in late adulthood D) correlation between types of intelligence 3020376400901

Answer 180

B) influence of environment on cognitive development

Question 181

Central executive

Answer 181

- Working memory | - regulates attention and task switching

Question 182

visuospatial sketchpad

Answer 182

- working memory | - employed when manipulating visual and/or spatial information

Question 183

phonological loop

Answer 183

- working memory | - employed when manipulating spoken and written information

Question 184

episodic buffer

Answer 184

- working memory - responsible for temporal processing (understanding the timeline of events) and integrating information from long-term memory into working memory (eg, remembering how to multiply when figuring out a tip at a restaurant)

Question 185

Researchers designed the two distraction conditions to require multitasking and predicted that the hands-free conversation condition would be less distracting than the texting condition because of: A) task dissimilarity B) the cocktail party effect C) the interference effect D) speech shadowing 400763

Answer 185

A) task dissimilarity

Question 186

divided attention / multitasking

Answer 186

task similarity - easy: dissimilar tasks (listening to an audiobook while running) - hard: similar tasks (listening to audiobook while writing a paper) task difficulty task practice

Question 187

personal identity

Answer 187

intragroup: different from other in-group members - defined by one's self - experience self as an individual

Question 188

social identity

Answer 188

- intergroup: different from out-group members - defined by society - experience self as a member of a group

Question 189

EEG / electroencephalogram

Answer 189

- electrodes placed on scalp and connected to an amplifier | - measures voltage fluctuations in the brain over time

Question 190

CT / computerized tomography

Answer 190

- computer combines multiple x-rays taken at different angles - measures detailed structure of internal organs & tissues at a single point in time

Question 191

functional magnetic resonance imaging / fMRI

Answer 191

- scanner detects the differential properties of oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin - changes in blood oxygenation in the brain over time

Question 192

positron emission tomography (PET)

Answer 192

- scanner detects radioactive tracer attached to a glucose analog - changes in glucose metabolism in the brain over time

Question 193

On the implicit association test, faster response times when pairing negative traits with less sex catagorized faces most plausibly reflect: A) dissonance B) social stigma C) discrimination D) functional fixedness 400698

Answer 193

B) social stigma

Question 194

Long-term potentiation

Answer 194

describes the neural changes responsible for learning, memory, and associations. Occurs when a neuron's firing rate increases after repeated stimulation or simultaneous stimulation by multiple inputs (association). LTP results from an increase in neurotransmitter release and postsynaptic receptors

Question 195

consanguineal kinship

Answer 195

based on genetic relationship (eg, biological parents)

Question 196

affinal kinship

Answer 196

based on marriage (spouses)

Question 197

fictive kinship

Answer 197

social ties that are not consanguineal or affinal (eg, adoptive children)

Question 198

emotional support

Answer 198

love, affection, intimacy

Question 199

esteem support

Answer 199

encouragement, confidence

Question 200

tangible support

Answer 200

money, resources, food, a place to sleep when needed

Question 201

informational support

Answer 201

advice, information

Question 202

companionship support

Answer 202

mere presence, sharing in an activity

Question 203

Sigmund Freud

Answer 203

- personality - psychosexual development - five psychosexual stages, focused on childhood - unresolved childhood conflict impacts adult personality

Question 204

erik erikson

Answer 204

- personality - psychosocial develpoment - eight psychosocial stages throughout life - unresolved crisis at any age impacts adult personality

Question 205

len vygotsky

Answer 205

- cognition - sociocultural development - child's cognitive development based on social interaction

Question 206

jean piaget

Answer 206

- cognition - cognitive development - four universal stages of childhood cognitive development - cognitive development is based on age

Question 207

lawrence kohlberg

Answer 207

- -moral development - six stages of lifespan moral development - most individuals do not progress past stage 3 or 4

Question 208

three components of attitude

Answer 208

1. affective (feelings about object) 2. cognitive (beliefs about object) 3. behavioral (behaviors related to object)

Question 209

expectancy theory of motivation

Answer 209

1. expectancy: belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome ex: asking participants to rate how successful they will be 2. instrumentality : belief that one has control over the desired outcome ex: asking participants to rate how much control they believe they have over their success 3. valence: value they placed on the desired outcome ex: asking participants to rate how much they want to lose weight

Question 210

Normative social influence is most likely to arise in the group A) containing several members who have expertise regarding cancer B) composed of all females from the same university C) with an assigned group spokesperson D) whose members are the most disparate in SES 400565

Answer 210

B) composed of all females from the same university social influence when an individual conforms to fit in or avoid rejection by others

Question 211

normative social influence

Answer 211

- individual conforms in order to fit in, gain approval, avoid disapproval/rejection - most likely to occur when individual identifies with group members, wants to be accepted by the group

Question 212

informational social influence

Answer 212

- individual conforms due to uncertainty of what to do, believing others know what to do - most likely to occur when individual views other group members as experts

Question 213

groupthink

Answer 213

causes - biased leadership - high group cohesiveness - homogenity of group members - stressful decision, external threats - insulation from alternative viewpoints group-characteristics - closed-mindedness - opposition demonized - members pressured to conform - dissent self-censored, suppressed - overestimation of group power, group morality

Question 214

causes of social loafing

Answer 214

- diffusion of responsibility: as group size increases, individuals feel less responsible for the success of the group - lack of motivation: individuals perceive their efforts as less influential on the overall group performance - avoidance of over-effort : no one wants to be the hardest working member of the group without being rewarded accordingly - lack of oversight : without an arbiter recording each person's effort, individuals feel able to get by with minimal effort - non-cohesive group: when group members lack a sense of cohesion, social loading is more likely to occur

Question 215

kohlberg's preconventional stage

Answer 215

direct consequences to the individual 1. obedience and punishment (avoiding punishment by authority, ex: i'm not going to steal because I'll get spanked) 2. self-interest (expecting equal exchange to further own self-interest, ex: i'll help you if you help me)

Question 216

kohlberg's conventional stage

Answer 216

society's norms and values 3. conformity and interpersonal accord (wanting to be good to secure the approval of others, ex: I'll do my homework so the teacher likes me) 4. law and order (obeying laws of society, ex: i'm going to speed because it's against the law)

Question 217

kohlberg's post-conventional stage

Answer 217

own ethical principles 5. social contract (maxmizing benefit for the largest amount of people, ex: it's okay to break a law if it saves a life 6. universal ethical principles (following own ethical principle of justice above all else, ex: i take action against laws violating basic human rights)

Question 218

symbolic culture

Answer 218

nonmaterial aspects of society used to communicate and convey meaning ex: folklore, values, laws

Question 219

material culture

Answer 219

physical items valued by society | ex: clothing, tools, computers

Question 220

cultural transmission

Answer 220

passing on of information from an older generation to a younger generation ex: a child learns how to cook from a parent

Question 221

cultural diffusion

Answer 221

spreading of culture from one group to another | ex: people in the US celebrate cinco de mayo

Question 222

Identity diffusion

Answer 222

low commitment, low exploration people at this level lack direction, have not explored options, and have not committed to a particular career path or futre

Question 223

identity foreclosure

Answer 223

high commitment, low exploration people at this level have accepted an identity that they have been assigned (typically by a parent or authority figure) without contemplation or exploration

Question 224

identity moratorium

Answer 224

low comittment, high exploration people at this level are still trying new activities and thinking about a career path, but have not yet arrived at a decision

Question 225

identity achievement

Answer 225

high commitment, high exploration people at this level have explored their options and typically feel confident about who they are and what they want to do in their future

Question 226

fluid intelligence

Answer 226

ability to apply logic and creative thinking to new situations -decreases with age

Question 227

crytstallized intelligence

Answer 227

ability to apply facts and acquired knowledge to situations

Question 228

episodic memory

Answer 228

ex: buying first car, first day of college | decreases with age

Question 229

flashbulb memory

Answer 229

ex: where you were during 9/11 | decreases with age

Question 230

source memory

Answer 230

ex: what news source reported the story, who announced the information declines with age stable with age

Question 231

semantic memory

Answer 231

ex: names of people, colors, vocabulary

Question 232

procedural memory

Answer 232

ex: riding a bike, driving a car, serving a tennis ball | stable with age

Question 233

If the researchers in the third study wanted to test the influence of aging on context-dependent memory effects, they could: A) show the faces to the older participants in one room, then move half of these participants to a new room to identify faces B) show the faces to all participants in one room, then move half of the participants in each group to a new room to identify faces C) provide background information about the faces to half of the older adult participants while faces are being memorized D) provide background information about the faces to half of participants in each age group while faces are being memorized 400383

Answer 233

B) show the faces to all participants in one room, then move half of the participants in each group to a new room to identify faces Context refers to the physical environment in which the original learning took place or the original memory was encoded. Context-dependent memory helps to explain. why, when you meet people in one context (eg, in class) and then run into them in another context (eg, at Starbucks), you may have trouble remembering their names or how you know them In this example, if participants are first exposed to images of faces in one room, they are more likely to recognize those same faces if they are in the same room rather than if they are in a different room. The design must be performed on participants from both age groups so that this effect can be compared. In this way, context-dependnet memory effects in the younger adults will serve as a baseline to determine the influence of aging on context-dependent memory effects D) not D because background information or context would not influence context-dependent memory, which applies to the context in which memory is acquired and retrieved

Question 234

Positive reinforcement

Answer 234

desirable stimulus added to encourage behavior Ex: toddler gets candy for using the toilet

Question 235

positive punishment

Answer 235

undesirable stimulus added to DISCOURAGE behavior ex: toddler gets spanked for running into the street

Question 236

negative reinforcement

Answer 236

undesirable stimulus taken away to encourage behavior ex: teenager doesn't have to do chores after getting all A's

Question 237

negative punishment

Answer 237

desirable stimulus TAKEN AWAY to discourage behavior ex: teenager gets grounded for getting bad grades

Question 238

fixed ratio

Answer 238

consistent, based on responses reinforcement after consistent number of behaviors rapid response rate, short pause after reward

Question 239

variable ratio

Answer 239

behavior rewarded after an inconsistent number of responses, usually after some AVERAGE number of responses. Ex: AVG3 (400547) schedule might provide a reward after four correct responses, then after two, then after three, and so on rapid, steady response rate, most resistant to extinction

Question 240

Fixed interval

Answer 240

behavior rewarded after a consistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. EX: exmployees who are paid a weekly salary receive the same amount of money each Friday regardless of how hard they have worked during the week slower response rate after reward, faster response rate right before

Question 241

variable interval

Answer 241

behavior rewarded after an inconsistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. EX: when awaiting an email, the frequency with which users refresh their in-boxes does not affect when a new email arrives slow, and steady response rate, resistant to extinction

Question 242

Suppose one of the participants in Study 1 earned several candy bars and became very ill after consuming them. This participant would most likely: A) avoid participating in any future research studies B) avoid playing computer games for awhile until she feels better C) develop a long-lasting aversion to the specific candy bars she consumed D) develop a short-term aversion to the candy bars available during the study 400550

Answer 242

C) develop a long-lasting aversion to the specific candy bars she consumed aversions continue long-term!

Question 243

central route of processing

Answer 243

- high-interest receiver - deep processing of the message - route of persuading: lasting attitude or behavior change

Question 244

peripheral route of processing

Answer 244

- appeals to the low-ability receiver - superficial processing of the message - temporary attitude or behavior change

Question 245

Which of the following cognitive biases is most analogous to the self-positivity bias? A) actor-observer bias B) confirmation bias C) optimism bias D) overconfidence bias 400506

Answer 245

C) optimism bias Self-positivity bias, as described in passage, occurs when people believe they are less vulnerable to negative outcomes than other people Optimism bias: describes the tendency for people to underestimaate the probability that bad things (eg, cancer, car accident) will happen to them. The two cognitive biases are most similar because each describes the human prediction for miscalculating the likelihood that adverse events will impact them D) not overconfidence bias! This occurs when the degree to which people are sure of their belief is greater than the accuracy of that believe (ie, people overestimate their subjective knowledge compared to objective facts)

Question 246

counterbalancing

Answer 246

used to control for the potential effects that the order of intervention administration may have on the results ex: if participants were given two different interventions, A and B, a counterbalancing measure would involve separating participants into two groups, one receiving intervention A first, and the other receiving intervention B first * if only one type of intervention used, then counterbalancing measures are not required

Question 247

type I error

Answer 247

rejecting true null hypothesis , leads to the incorrect conclusion that there is a difference between groups (false positive

Question 248

fail to reject null hypothesis

Answer 248

correctly concluded there is no difference

Question 249

reject null hypothesis

Answer 249

correctly conclude that there is a true difference

Question 250

type II error

Answer 250

false negative: | falsely conclude there is no difference

Question 251

id

Answer 251

selfish, compelling us to seek pleasure and avoid pain

Question 252

ego

Answer 252

realistic, compelling us to behave in ways that are socially acceptable, and acts as a mediator between the id and the superego

Question 253

superego

Answer 253

moralistic and idealistic, compelling us toward perfection

Question 254

parasomnias

Answer 254

disorders involving abnormal function of the nervous system during sleep - most likely to occur in childhood - ex: somnambulism, night terrors

Question 255

dyssomnias

Answer 255

- disorders involving difficulty falling/staying asleep, poor sleep quality, inappropriate sleep timing - most likely to occur during adulthood - ex: insomnia, sleep apnea, narcolepsy

Question 256

In which region of the brain would a lesion most likely disrupt the sleep/wake cycle? A) anterior pituitary B) posterior pituitary C) hypothalamus D) hippocampus

Answer 256

C) hypothalamus hypothalamus has several nuclei that have specialized functions; one of these nuclei is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which regulates the circadian pacemaker that controls circadian rhythms photoreceptors in the retina project information about light levels to the SCN. When light levels are high, the SCN downregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland. When light levels are low, the SCN upregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland Light levels regulate SCN activity, which regulates melatonin release and establishes an internal circadian clock. This clock mechanism helps maintain sleep patterns and other 24-hour circadian cycles, such as those involving blood pressure and core body temperature changes

Question 257

Largest proportion of REM sleep occurs during

Answer 257

infancy , thought to aid the rapid neurological development seen during this period

Question 258

What is the least applicable to a diagnosis of muscle dysmorphia? A) persistent, intrust, and repetitive thoughts or urges B) physical behaviors that help reduce anxiety C) excessive, repetitive behaviors D) obsession with losing weight 400178

Answer 258

D) obsession with losing weight MD involves an obsession with a larger and more muscular body. An obsession with losing weight is the least applicable to a diagnosis

Question 259

gestault principle of subjective contours

Answer 259

aka reification or illusory contours, | -describes how our mind fills in the gaps

Question 260

Spatial disorientation experienced by pilots and divers would be least affected by information processed by the: A) organ of corti B) otolith organs C) semicircular canals D) somatosensory system 400281

Answer 260

A) organ of corti maintenance of spatial orientation and balance relies on coordinated inout from the visual system, vestibulary system, and somatosensory system

Question 261

How does steropsis contribute to the processing of 2D retinal images into objects having 3D depth? A) The presence of rods and cones allows for processing different types of light B) component attributes such as color, motion, and form, are integrated in the occipital lobe C) the relative location of each retina allows for different images of the object to be processed D) the movement of ciliary muscles controlling the lens provides depth cues to the cortex 400283

Answer 261

C) the relative location of each retina allows for different images of the object to be processed Stereopsis = perception of depth that arises from the integrated information received from both eyes. Binocular depth cues allow accurate perception of depth through the integration of slightly different information from the left and right eyes Binocular depth cues include retinal disparity and convergence: - retinal disparity: distance between the two eyes, results in slightly different images projected onto the respective retinas. The closer an object or scene is to the two eyes, the more dramatic the disparity. Higher-order processing in the brain compares the difference between the 2D retinal images to help give rise to the perception of 3D depth. - convergence : occurs because of the angular positioning of the eyes. The closer an object is to the observer, the more the eyes turn inward (or converge) to focus on that object. The brain interprets the angle of convergence as an indication of distance from the observer. Binocular cues are less informative at great distances because retinal disparity and convergence decrease as distance increases. Therefore, monocular cues become more important for depth perception over great distances.

Question 262

If you fixate on the black plus sign in the middle of this image without moving your eyes, the grey circle around the plus sign eventually disappears. Known as the Troxler effect, this occurs because of: A) opponent processing B) interposition C) sensory adaptation D) the blind spot 400284

Answer 262

C) sensory adaptation Sensory adaptation = a diminshed response by the nervous system when presented with an unchanging stimulus over a period of time. Decreased nervous system responsiveness results in the diminished perception of that stimulus

Question 263

According to the monoamine hypothesis: A) abnormaly high serum cortisol levels underlie most depressive symptoms B) abnormalities in a single neurotransmitter cause most depressive symptoms C) abnormalities in various neurotransmitters cause depressive symptoms D) DBS would be an ineffective treatment for depressive symptoms 400251

Answer 263

C) abnormalities in various neurotransmitters cause depressive symptoms Monoamine hypothesis is a biomedical model of depression. Central to this hypothesis is the idea that depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters in the CNA directly causes depression symptoms. The monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) are neutrotransmitters that have a single amine group in their molecular structure and are associated with emotion regulation Serotonin: associated with a positive mood, feelings of satisfaction, and social dominance. Norepinephrine: in the CNS, enhances alertness, attention, and memory function Dopamine: associated with feelings of pleasure and reward. Support for the monoamine hypothesis comes from evidence that taking antidepressant medications that increase the levels of some or all of these neurotransmitters alleviates depression symptoms for many individuals

Question 264

Which of the following brain regions is most likely the most effective DBS target for a Parkinson disease patient? A) Amygdala B) Basal ganglia C) hippocampus D) motor cortex 400252

Answer 264

B) Basal ganglia Parkinson disease is a progressive neurogenerative disease cause dby death of dopaminergetic neurons in the substantia nigra, located in the midbrain. The substantia nigra is part of a group of neural structures collectively known as the basal ganglia, which are involved in the selection and execution of voluntary motor programs D) not motor cortex, as motor cortex sends motor commpants from the brain to the muscles of the body. DBS of the motor cortex would likely cause disruptions in movement

Question 265

Stimulation of the nucleus accumbens would be expected to alleviate which of the following symptoms of depression? A) Anhedonia B) difficulty concentrating C) fatigue D) insomnia 400254

Answer 265

A) Anhedonia anhedonia = lack of pleasure nucleus accumbens is a structure that is part of the reward pathway in the brain. The reward pathway also includes the ventral tegmental area (which produces dopamine) and portions of the prefrontal cortex. DBS of these structures could help alleviate symptoms of depression, as activation of the reward pathway is associated with feelings of pleasure and the reinforcement of rewarding behaviors

Question 266

Which of the following is an inherent limitation in assessing the efficacy of DBS for controlling depression symptoms? A) a placebo control group would be unethical B) depressed patients are a vulnerable population C) the benefits do not outweight the risks of the procuedure D) the mechanism of action of DBS is unknown 400255

Answer 266

A) a placebo control group would be unethical A placebo control group for this experiment would receive a sham surgery, with all of the same procedures as the treatment groups (including the insertion of electrodes into the brain), but without the electrical impulse. Exposing patients to the risks associated with a surgical procedure (eg, infection, damage to brain tissue) for an inactive sham procedure would be unethical In such cases, an active control group (in which the patient receives a standard approved treatment) is recommended for comparison

Question 267

Which of the following is true regarding two classes of drugs commonly used to treat depression, SSRIs and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)? A) both classes of drugs stimulate the release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft B) SSRIs block uptake of serotonin into the post-synaptic neuron C) MAOIs decrease the breakdown of serotonin within the pre-synaptic neuron D) MAOIs promote uptake of serotonin into the pre-synaptic neuron 400256

Answer 267

C) MAOIs decrease the breakdown of serotonin within the pre-synaptic neuron Antidepressant medications usually function via one of four general mechanisms: 1) increasing production of neurotransmitters within the presynaptic neuron 2) promoting release of neurotransmitters from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft 3) blocking reabsorption (reuptake) of neurotransmitters into the presynaptic neuron 4) decreasing breakdown of neurotransmitters within the presynaptic neuron For instance, MAOIs inhibit monoamine oxidase, an enzyme attached to the mitochondria in axon terminals that catalyzes the oxidation (breakdown) of monoamines such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. This enzyme functions in the presynaptic neuron to recycle monomaines that have been removed from the synaptic cleft. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase therefore increases the cocentrations of monoamines in the axon terminal and eventually within the synaptic cleft. SSRIs belong to another class of antidepressants that selectively block the reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, thereby prolonging the presence of serotonin in the synaptic cleft Not B because reuptake inhibitors such as SSRIs block the uptake of neurotransmitters into the PREsynaptic cleft, where they were originalyl synthesized and released

Question 268

The recall of which of the following should be most subjected to serial position effects? A) the vocabulary words presented at the beginning and end of the list B) the toy objects presented at the beginning and the end of the sequence C) the vocabulary words that were the most familiar to the subjects D) the toy objects to which the subjects had a personal connection 400171

Answer 268

B) the toy objects presented at the beginning and the end of the sequence not the vocab words because these words were presented as a list and the students were allowed to study that list for 10 minutes, so there is no way to know how long and in what order they studied each definition. Because the vocabulary words were not presented one at a time (like the toy objects), recall would be less subject to serial position effects

Question 269

Awake, relaxed (EEG)

Answer 269

alpha waves

Question 270

sleep stage 1 | EEG

Answer 270

theta waves

Question 271

sleep stage 2 | EEG

Answer 271

theta waves sleep spindles K complex

Question 272

sleep stages 3&4 | EEG

Answer 272

delta waves

Question 273

social desirability bias

Answer 273

the tendency of research participants to provide the most favorable or acceptable responses to research questions. Participants may overemphasize positive behaviiors (eg, studying), while downplaying or underreporting undesirable behaviors (eg, consuming alcohol)

Question 274

In this study, the vocabulary recall task most directly assessed which of the following types of memory? A) implicit B) semantic C) short-term D) working 400175

Answer 274

B) semantic Explicit/declarative memory is memory for facts and events that can be consciously or intentionally recalled, including: - semantic memory, which includes knowledge about facts (eg, humans are mammals) - episodic memory, which includes personal experiences (eg, what you ate for dinner last night) during the testing phase of this study, students were asked to recall objects they had previously seen (episodic memory) and define vocabulary words they had previously studied (semantic memory). Therefore, the recall tasks in this study were most directly assessing these 2 aspects of explicit/declarative memory

Question 275

If the students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other had higher than average recall scores, to which of the following might this be attributed? I. Spreading activation II. Semantic networks III. Source monitoring 400172

Answer 275

I and II only I. The spreading activation model suggests that when a node in the semantic network is activated (eg, viewing a picture of a toy fire engine), nodes directly connected to that node (eg, firefighter, alarm) are activated as well, which is known as priming. Spreading activation could account for better recall when students related the toy objects and definitions to each other. II. Each individual has a uniqeuly organized semantic network according to the personal meaning associated with each node. It tends to be easier to recall information that is semantically relevant/meaningful. Therefore, better recall for students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other may be attributable to the use of semantic networks.

Question 276

If a neuroimaging study compared normal dreaming with lucid dreaming, in what brain region would more activity be expected during lucid dreaming? A) cerebellum B) prefrontal cortex C) amygdala D) primary visual cortex 400134

Answer 276

B) prefrontal cortex Prefrontal cortex is associated with executive functions, such as critical thinking, problem solving, planning, impulse control, and executive decision-making. Because lucid dreaming involves critical analysis and executive decision making, a neuroimaging study would be expected to demonstrate greater activation of the prefrontal cortex during lucid dreaming as compared with normal dreaming

Question 277

box and whisker graph confidence interval

Answer 277

middle region! see question 400140

Question 278

Self-administration of nicotine in animal models is most likely suppressed by means of: A) blocking dopaminergic pathways B) blocking adrenergic pathways C) enhancing dopaminergic pathways D) enhancing adrenergic pathways 400152

Answer 278

A) blocking dopaminergic pathways Rewarding stimuli including commonly abused drugs increase domaminergic activity in the brain by increasing the production of dopamine, interfering with its clearance from receptors, or directly stimulating dopamine receptors in the brain. In turn, the reward system is activated and the brain learns to associate the drug with reward. Self-administration in animal models is used a measure of how addictive a substance is. The more addictive the drug, the more an animal will engage in self-administering behavior. Antagonists can be used to bind to receptors and block the activity of specific neurotransmitters. Studies show that blocking the activity of dopamine can disrupt the reward pathway and decrease addicitive behavior Not C: Enhancing dopaminergic pathways would not suppress self-administration of nicotine in animal models, but would likely reinforce the behavior

Question 279

A proponent of the universalism perspective would state that the results in Figure 1B support the belief that: A) cognition is influenced by language B) cognition is required for language C) language and cognition develop via social interaction D) language is necessary for cognition 400120

Answer 279

B) cognition is required for language Universalism, the belief that cognition controls language, posits that certain cognitive processes are universal, so all human languages also possess certain universals (eg, nouns). Therefore, a universalist would interpret figure 1B as support for the belief that cognition is required for language development.

Question 280

universalism (langauge and congnition)

Answer 280

cognition CONTROLS language

Question 281

piaget (language & congition)

Answer 281

cognition INFLUENCES language

Question 282

Vygotsky (language & cognition)

Answer 282

cognition and language develop independently, merging later

Question 283

linguistic relativity (language & cognition)

Answer 283

language INFLUENCES cognition

Question 284

linguistic determinism (language & cognition)

Answer 284

language CONTROLS cognition

Question 285

Critical period of language acquisition

Answer 285

0-18 (declines as age progresses) time-sensitive early period in life during which language acquisition is easier (with proper exposure), as compared to the period afterward, during which language acquisition is much more difficult

Question 286

During Task 1, the researcher found that subjects' response time was slower and color identification accuracy was worse during the natural condition. Which of the following best accounts for this finding? A) color and motion are processed simultanesouly B) color information is processed slower than motion C) motion is processed in the retina whereas color is processed in the occiptial lobe D) color and motion information are transmitted to the brain via the same pathway 400110

Answer 286

A) color and motion are processed simultanesouly parvo "what" (form and color) and magno "where" pathways (motion) Parallel processing describes the brain's ability to simultanesouly process the various components of visual stimuli. Information from the retina is transmitted to the primary visual cortex (V1) of the occiptial lobe via two separate pathways (parvo and magno), which are named according to where they project in the LGN, the region of the thalamus that receives visual input color and motion are processed simultanesouly via two different pathways. The artifical condition involved identifying the color of a fixed, nonmoving object, which required processing of only one component (color), whereas the natural condition required the simultaneous processing of two components. Therefore, subjects' response time and accuracy should be worse during the natural condition.

Question 287

Based on the concept of the looking-glass self, which of the following unintended study effects is most likely? A) the female surgeon reported feelings of insecurity immediately after study participation B) the white surgeon reported feelings of empowerment during study participation C) both male surgeons reported feelings of deviance while playing the role of nurse D) the black surgeons reported feelings of empowerment after playing the role of doctor 400595

Answer 287

A) the female surgeon reported feelings of insecurity immediately after study participation The looking-glass self suggests that self-concept (beliefs about oneself) is derived from social interactions with other: the way an individual is perceived and treated by others impacts how they then perceive themselves. For example, if a female surgeon is assumed to be a nurse by most of her patients, these interactions will have an impact on her self-concept. Because "nurse" is a lower status role than "surgeon," the impact of this assumption is most likely to have a negative effect on self-concept, such as feelings of insecurity

Question 288

cognitive component of human emotion

Answer 288

mental processing accompanying an emotion & involved in appraisal of the situation ex: thoughts, beliefs, expectations, rationalization

Question 289

behavioral component of human emotion

Answer 289

immediate outward reaction to an emotion that is involuntary & automatic ex: smiling, gasping

Question 290

physiological component of human emotion

Answer 290

bodily processes that accompany an emotion | ex: heart rate changes, respiration rate changes, sweating

Question 291

social exclusion

Answer 291

inability to participate: - economically (ie, as an income earner or consumer) - socially (ie, limited/no interaction with others in society) - civically (ie, community and political involvement)

Question 292

Social stratification

Answer 292

Hierarchial organizaiton of indiviudals in society based on social class, social status, and power 1. Social class : economic assets, eg: income, property 2. Social status: prestige (favorable reputation) among others in society 3. power (ability to exert control over the actions of others)

Question 293

The first paragraph describes how certain villagers engaged in initial acts of positive deviance (PD) to nourish their children. This description of PD engaged in by these villagers is most applicable to which of the following? A) differential association theory B) strain theory C) labeling theory D) conflict theory 400084

Answer 293

B) strain theory Strain theory predicts that individuals experience tension (strain) when there is a disconnect between goals and available means for achieving those goals. For example, a parent who is unable to feed her child (goal) because there is not enough food (lack of means) experiences strain. This strain causes individuals to seek deviant means of achieving the goal. Strain theory suggests that innovation occurs when individuals come up with new strategies for obtaining goals, which is the most applicable to the first paragraph's description of the initial acts of PD by the Vietnamese villagers.

Question 294

differential assocation

Answer 294

individuals learn specific deviant behaviors & values/norms through interaction with others with those same behaviors & values/norms

Question 295

labeling theory

Answer 295

primary deviance (a small social norm violation) leads to a deviant label & social stigma, causing secondary deviance (more serious violations)

Question 296

strain theory

Answer 296

deviant behavior results from the disconnect between goals and the means for achieving those goals

Question 297

confirmation bias

Answer 297

- seeking information that supports belief - ignoring information that refutes belief - interpreting ambigious information as support

Question 298

functional fixedness

Answer 298

inability to see a use for an object beyond its intended use

Question 299

mental set

Answer 299

- inability to see a problem from a new perspective | - inclination to use old methods to solve new problems

Question 300

Hawthorne effect

Answer 300

describes when research subjects behave differently as a result of knowing that they are being observed

Question 301

Major agents of socialization

Answer 301

1. Family - usually a genetic relationship - high degree of contact, espeically early in life - provides earliest socialization, teaching norms, values, behaviors, etc 2. Friends/peers - usually simialr age & life circumstance (eg, same neighborhood) - High degree of contract, especialyl during adolescence - may socialize in ways that confirm or contradict family values 3. School/workplace - brings together many different types of people - standardized behaviors are taught and usually enforced (eg, arriving on time) 4. Mass media - social institution that spreads information - helps to shape attitudes and to change cultural norms and values - provides new means of communication (eg, social media)

Question 302

economic capital

Answer 302

financial assets | ex: money, income, property

Question 303

social capital

Answer 303

social network assets | ex: friends, family, coworkers

Question 304

cultural capital

Answer 304

nonfinancial/nonsocial network assets | ex: education, hard work, attractiveness

Question 305

Microsociology

Answer 305

- focuses on individual attributes and interactions - important concepts: communication, symbols, reciprocity, interpersonal exchange - ex: how does the interaction between a doctor and patient reflect racial inequality?

Question 306

macrosociology

Answer 306

- focuses on groups, populations, social structures - important concepts: institutions, inequality, impact of the social environment on people's interactions - ex: how does racial inequality influence how minorities access health care?

Question 307

Which interpretation of the global obesity pandemic is most consistent with the structural functionalist perspective? A) disrupts dynamic equilibrium in society B) represents a manifest function of globalization C) results from income inequality in society D) is subjectively defined through social interactions

Answer 307

A) disrupts dynamic equilibrium in society Structural functionalism is a macrosociological perspective that compares society to a biological organism. This theory proposes that, like the various organ systems attemptnig to maintain homeostasis in an organism, aspects of society (eg, institutions) work together in an attempt to maintain dynamic equilibrium (ie, societal balance)

Question 308

Durkheim describes a type of suicide committed by individuals who feel disconnected from society for not providing them a moral compass. What is the societal condition that occurs when a society does not provide enough moral guidance to individuals? A) Anomie B) Cultural relativism C) Relative deprivaiton D) Deindividuation

Answer 308

A) Anomie Anomie = state of normlessless that occurs when a society fails to provide individuals with norms and values to guide behavior. In an anomic society, individuals lack guidance and purpose and feel aimless or alientated from society. Anomie is often the result of a shift or transition in society that causes instability, undermining current norms (before new norms arise to replace them)

Question 309

Durkheim is often associated with which sociological theory? A) structural functionalism B) conflict theory C) social constructionism D) symbolic interactionsm

Answer 309

A) structural functionalism

Question 310

"Suicide clusters" are greater-than-average ratse of suicide occuring within a short time frame. After a well-publicized initial suicide, suicide rates tend to rise, particularly among teenagers and young adults. This phenomenon can be described as: A) groupthink B) the mere exposure effect C) mass hysteria D) imitiation of a reference group

Answer 310

D) imitiation of a reference group

Question 311

How would a proponent of Malthusian theory most likely interpret the data in Figure 1? A) increased suicide rates provide evidence for a Malthusian catastrophe B) the decline in suicide rates during World War II supports Malthusian theory C) The Great Depression would be considered a positive check D) increased suicide rates during recessions are negative checks 400458

Answer 311

C) The Great Depression would be considered a positive check Malthusian theory of population growth suggests that the human population increases exponentially while resources increase at a slower rate. According to this theory, the population growth rate can be slowed by preventative checks and positive checks. Preventative checks = decrease the birth rate (typically voluntary, such as waiting to marry and having less children) Positive checks = increase the death rate, slowing population growth by shortening the average life span. Can be small scale (eg, increased death rate due to a flu virus) or large-scale (eg, an epidemic that wipes out half the population) Large-scale positive checks, called Malthusian catastrophes (eg, widespread famine, disease epidemics, large-scale wars) dramatically reduce the population to a level that the available resources can easily sustain, by slowing or stopping population growth entirely

Question 312

state effects

Answer 312

memories encoded during mood. Ex: memories encoded during a happy mood easier to recall during a happy mood, harder to recall during a sad mood

Question 313

Franz Gall

Answer 313

Phrenology

Question 314

Pierre Flourens

Answer 314

Functions of major sections of the brain. used extirpation to study parts of the brain

Question 315

William James

Answer 315

Functionalism | How mental processes help individuals adapt to their environment

Question 316

John Dewey

Answer 316

Functionalism

Question 317

Paul Broca

Answer 317

Studied people with lesions in specific regions of brain | Broca's area: speech production

Question 318

Hermann von Helmholtz

Answer 318

Speed of impulse. Made psychology a science

Question 319

Sir Charles Sherrington

Answer 319

Synpases

Question 320

Sigmund Frued

Answer 320

Psychoanalytic perspective

Question 321

Sensory neurons

Answer 321

Afferent | receptors --> spinal cord

Question 322

interneurons

Answer 322

between other neurons | mostly CNS

Question 323

Motor neurons

Answer 323

efferent | CNS --> muscles and glands

Question 324

reflex arcs

Answer 324

interneurons in spinal cord relay info to the source of stimuli while simultaneously routing it to the brain

Question 325

Acetylcholine

Answer 325

used by somatic nervous system to move muscles also used by the parasympathetic and CNS

Question 326

dopamine

Answer 326

maintains smooth movements and steady posture

Question 327

epinephrine and norephinephrine

Answer 327

maintain wakefulness and mediate fight or flight responses epinephrine tends to act has a hormone, norepinephrine acts as a neurotransmitter

Question 328

GABA

Answer 328

Inhibitory neurotransmitters Acts as brain "stabilizers" *Glycine serves a similar function in the spinal cord

Question 329

Glutamate

Answer 329

acts as an excitory neurotransmitter

Question 330

Serotonin

Answer 330

modulates mood, sleep, eating, and dreaming

Question 331

cortisol

Answer 331

stress hormone released by the adrenal cortex

Question 332

testosterone and estrogen

Answer 332

mediate libido testosterone also increases aggressive behavior. Both are produced in gonads, released by adrenal cortex

Question 333

hindbrain

Answer 333

cerebellum, medulla oblongata, reticular formation

Question 334

midbrain

Answer 334

inferior and superior colliculi

Question 335

forebrain

Answer 335

thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system, cerebral cortex

Question 336

thalamus

Answer 336

relay station for sensory information

Question 337

hypothalamus

Answer 337

homeostasis and the 4 F's: feeding, fleeing, fighting, fucking integrates with the endocrine system hypothalamus --> hypophyseal portal --> anterior pituitary

Question 338

basal ganglia

Answer 338

smooths movements and helps postural stability

Question 339

limbic system

Answer 339

septal nuclei: pleasure and addiction amygdala: fear and aggression hippocampus: emotion and memory

Question 340

cerebral cortex

Answer 340

four lobes 1. frontal: executive function, impulse control, speech, motor 2. parietal: touch, pressure, temp, pain, spatial processing 3. occipital: visual 4. temporal: sound, speech perception, memory, emotion

Question 341

left cerebral hemisphere

Answer 341

analytic, language, logic, math | *usually the dominant sphere right

Question 342

right cerebral hemisphere

Answer 342

intuition, creativity, spatial processing

Question 343

neural development

Answer 343

the nervous system develops through neurulation, in which the notochord stimulates overlying ectoderm to fold over, creating a neural tube topped with neural crest cells

Question 344

neural tube

Answer 344

becomes the CNS

Question 345

neural crest cells

Answer 345

spread out throughout the body, differentiating into many tissues

Question 346

primitive reflexes

Answer 346

exist in infants and should disappear with age | rooting, moro, babinski, grasping

Question 347

rooting reflex

Answer 347

turns head towards stimulus

Question 348

moro reflex

Answer 348

extends arms, response to falling sensation

Question 349

babinski reflex

Answer 349

big toe is extended and other toes fan out in response to brushing on sole of foot

Question 350

grasping reflex

Answer 350

grabs anything put into hands

Question 351

developmental milestones

Answer 351

- gross and fine motor abilities progress head to toe and core to periphery - social skills shift from parent oriented to other oriented - language skills become increasingly complex

Question 352

projection areas

Answer 352

areas in the brain that analyze sensory input

Question 353

absolute threshold

Answer 353

the minimum of stimulus energy that will activate a sensory system

Question 354

threshold of conscious perception

Answer 354

the minimum stimulus energy that will create a signal large enough in size and long enough in duration to be brought into awareness

Question 355

difference threshold

Answer 355

the minimum difference in magnitude between two stimuli before one can perceive this difference

Question 356

weber's law

Answer 356

just noticeable difference for a stimulus is proportional to the MAGNITUDE of the stimulus

Question 357

signal detection theory

Answer 357

refers to the effects of non-sensory factors, such as experiences, motives, and expectations on perception of a stimuli, accounts for response bias

Question 358

cornea

Answer 358

gathers and filters incoming light

Question 359

iris

Answer 359

controls size of pupil colored part of eye divides front of the eye into the anterior and posterior chamber contains 2 muscles, the dilator and the constrictor pupillae

Question 360

lens

Answer 360

refracts incoming light to focus it on the retina

Question 361

aqueous humor

Answer 361

produced by the ciliary body nourishes the eye and gives the eye its shape drains through the canal of Schlemm

Question 362

retina

Answer 362

rods: detect light/dark, contain rhodopsin cones: color; cones are in the fovea, which is part of the macula pathway from retina: rods/cones --> bipolar cells --> ganglion cells --> optic nerve

Question 363

Retinal disparity

Answer 363

space between eyes; allows for binocular vision and depth

Question 364

horizontal and amacrine cells

Answer 364

integrates signals from ganglion cells and performs edge-sharpening

Question 365

vision support

Answer 365

vitreous on inside | sclera and choroid on outside

Question 366

parallel processing

Answer 366

color, form, and motion at the same time

Question 367

magnocellular cells

Answer 367

motion, high temporal resolution

Question 368

parvocellular cells

Answer 368

shape, high spatial resolution

Question 369

visual pathway

Answer 369

eye --> optic nerves --> optic chiasm --> optic tracts --> lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) --> visual radiations --> visual cortex

Question 370

outer ear

Answer 370

pinna (auricle), external auditory canal, tympanic membrane

Question 371

middle ear

Answer 371

connected to nasal cavity by Eustachian tube Ossicles (MIS / HAS) Malleus: Hammer Incus: Anvil Stapes: Stirrup. Footplate of stapes rests in the oval window of cochlea

Question 372

inner ear

Answer 372

- bony labyrinth: filed with perilymph - membranous labryinth: filled with endolymph; consists of cochlea (sound), utricle and saccule (linear acceleration) and semicircular canals (rotational acceleration and balance)

Question 373

superior olive

Answer 373

localizes sound, located in brain stem

Question 374

inferior colliculus

Answer 374

startle reflex, also used by both eyes and ears in the vestibulo-ocular reflex which keeps the eyes fixed on a single point as the head rotates

Question 375

auditory pathway

Answer 375

cochlea --> vestibulocochlear nerve --> medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) --> auditory cortex

Question 376

smell

Answer 376

the detection of volatile or aerosolized chemicals by the olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) in the olfactory epithelium -smell info bypasses the thalamus

Question 377

taste

Answer 377

the detection of dissolved compounds by taste buds in papillae -sweet/sour/salty/bitter/unami

Question 378

somatosensation

Answer 378

refers to the four touch modalities: pressure, vibration, pain, temperature

Question 379

two-point threshold

Answer 379

minimum distance necessary between two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli

Question 380

physiological zero

Answer 380

the normal temperature of skin to which objects are compared to

Question 381

nociceptors

Answer 381

pain reception gate theory of pain lowers just noticeable difference for pain

Question 382

kinesthetic sense

Answer 382

senses of position and movement of the body

Question 383

top-down processing

Answer 383

the recognititon of an object by memories and expectations. little attention to details. uses background knowledge

Question 384

bottom up processing

Answer 384

details --> whole recognition of objects by feature detection not influenced by background knowledge

Question 385

gestalt principles

Answer 385

proximity, similarity, continuity, closure | all are governed by the law of pragnanz

Question 386

habituation

Answer 386

becomes USED TO a stimulus

Question 387

dishabituation

Answer 387

when a second stimulation intervenes causing a RESENSITIZATION of the original stimulus

Question 388

associative learning

Answer 388

pairing together stimuli / responses or behaviors / consequences

Question 389

operant conditioning

Answer 389

behavior is changed through the use of consequences - reinforcement: increases likelihood of BEHAVIOR - punishment: decreases likelihood of BEHAVIOR - schedule: the schedule of reinforcement can be based on the amount of time or a ratio of behavior/reward, and can be either fixed or variable - positive response: ADDING something - negative response: REMOVING something

Question 390

extinction

Answer 390

when a previously reinforced behavior is no longer reinforced, it is extinct

Question 391

shaping

Answer 391

in operant conditioning, shaping is when a behavior that is closer and closer to the target behavior is reinforced

Question 392

classical conditioning

Answer 392

with repetition, a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus that produces a conditioned response

Question 393

observational learning or modeling

Answer 393

the acquisition of behavior by watching others

Question 394

encoding

Answer 394

the process of putting new information into memory it can be automatic or effortful semantic encoding is stronger than both acoustic or visual encoding

Question 395

sensory and short term memory

Answer 395

transient and based on neurotransmitter activity

Question 396

working memory

Answer 396

requires short term memory, attention, and executive function to manipulate information

Question 397

long term memory

Answer 397

requires elaborative rehearsal and is the result of increased neuronal connectivity

Question 398

explicit (declarative) memory

Answer 398

- type of long-term memory | - accounts for the memories that we must consciously recall with effort and focus

Question 399

implicit (nondeclarative) memory

Answer 399

- type of long term memory | - accounts for acquired skills and conditioned responses to circumstances and stimuli

Question 400

semantic networks

Answer 400

stores facts - concepts are linked together based on similar meaning - certain triggers will activate associated memories

Question 401

retrieval

Answer 401

recognition of information is stronger than recall retrieval is often based on priming interconnected nodes of the semantic network

Question 402

alzheimers

Answer 402

degenerative brain disorder linked to a loss of acetylcholine in neurons that link to hippocamus; causes dementia and memory loss

Question 403

korsakoff's syndrome

Answer 403

memory loss caused by thiamine (B12) deficiency in the brain; causes retrograde amnesia and anterograde amnesia -another symptom is confabulation, the fabrication of vivid but fake memories

Question 404

agnosia

Answer 404

loss of ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds; usually caused by physical damage to brain

Question 405

retroactive interference

Answer 405

new memories make you forget old memories

Question 406

proactive interference

Answer 406

old memories interfere with learning new memories

Question 407

procedural memory

Answer 407

type of implicit / long-term memory | -involves memory of skills and tasks

Question 408

episodic memory

Answer 408

- branch of declarative memory (long-term) | - events and experiences

Question 409

semantic memory

Answer 409

- branch of declarative memory (long-term) | - memory of facts and concepts

Question 410

information processing model

Answer 410

the brain encodes, stores, and retrieves information much like a computer

Question 411

piaget's stages

Answer 411

involve schemas and assimilation vs accommodation

Question 412

sensorimotor stage (piaget)

Answer 412

0-2 - child manipulates the environment to meet physical needs through circular reactions - object permanence develops at the END of this stage

Question 413

preoperational stage (piaget)

Answer 413

2-7 | -pretend play, symbolic thinking so they learn to talk, egocentrism and centration

Question 414

concrete operational (piaget)

Answer 414

- 7-11 | - understands the feelings of others, conservation develops, math

Question 415

formal operational (piaget)

Answer 415

12+ | -abstract thought and problem solving, moral reasonign

Question 416

deductive reasoning

Answer 416

forms conclusions from RULES

Question 417

inductive reasoning

Answer 417

forms conclusion from EVIDENCE

Question 418

availability heuristic

Answer 418

when we make our decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined

Question 419

representative heuristic

Answer 419

the tendency to focus on information that fits an individual's beliefs, while rejecting information that goes against those beliefs

Question 420

gardner's theory of multiple intelligences

Answer 420

7 areas of intelligence: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal

Question 421

alertness

Answer 421

state of being awake and thinking

Question 422

waves when alert or concentrating

Answer 422

EEG SHOWS BETA WAVES

Question 423

waves when awake but tired

Answer 423

ALPHA WAVES (a for alpha or aloof)

Question 424

hypnosis

Answer 424

individuals appear to be in normal control of the faculties but are in a highly suggestible state, used for pain control, psychological therapy, memory enhancement based on idea of social influence

Question 425

meditation

Answer 425

quieting of the mind, used for relief of anxiety

Question 426

depressants

Answer 426

alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines | -increase GABA

Question 427

stimulants

Answer 427

amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy | -increase dopamine, increase norepinephrine, increase serotonin at synaptic cleft

Question 428

opiates and opioids

Answer 428

heroin, morphine, opium, oxycodone, and hydrocodone | can cause death by respiratory depression

Question 429

hallucinogens

Answer 429

LSD, peyote, mescaline, ketamine

Question 430

mesolimbic pathway

Answer 430

- mediates drug addiction - includes nucleus accumbens, medial forebrain bundle, and ventral tegmental area - dopamine is the main neurotransmitter

Question 431

phonology

Answer 431

the actual sound of speech

Question 432

morphology

Answer 432

the building blocks of words

Question 433

semantics

Answer 433

the meaning of words

Question 434

syntax

Answer 434

rules dictating word order

Question 435

pragmatics

Answer 435

changes in language delivery depending on context

Question 436

nativist (biological) theory

Answer 436

language acquisition is innate

Question 437

learning (behaviorist) theory

Answer 437

language acquisition is controlled by operant conditioning and reinforcement by parents and caregivers

Question 438

social interactionist theory

Answer 438

language acquisition is caused by a motivation to communicate and interact with others

Question 439

whorfian hypothesis

Answer 439

LINGUISTIC RELATIVITY the lens by which we view and interpret the world is CREATED BY LANGUAGE

Question 440

broca's area

Answer 440

produces speech

Question 441

wernicke's area

Answer 441

language comprehension

Question 442

arcurate fasciculus

Answer 442

connects broca's area and wernicke's area

Question 443

conduction aphasia

Answer 443

can't repeat words

Question 444

order of brain waves

Answer 444

BAT-D Beta - Alpha - Theta - Delta

Question 445

stage 1 of sleep

Answer 445

light sleep, theta waves

Question 446

stage 2 of sleep

Answer 446

slightly deeper sleep than stage 1, theta waves, sleep spindles, k complexes -decrease in heart rate, respiration, and temperature

Question 447

stages 3 and 4 of sleep

Answer 447

deep sleep, delta waves, slow-wave sleep, most sleep disorders occur during these stages also called non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep -growth hormone released

Question 448

rapid eye movement

Answer 448

- REM sleep - the mind appears awake on EEG, but the person is asleep - eye movements and body paralysis - mostly beta waves

Question 449

sleep cycle

Answer 449

90 minutes | stages: 123432REM or 1234REM

Question 450

circadian rhythm

Answer 450

24 hours, melatonin triggers sleepiness, cortisol promotes wakefulness

Question 451

dreaming

Answer 451

mostly during REM

Question 452

activation-synthesis theory

Answer 452

dreams result from brain activation during REM sleep | activation in brainstem, synthesis in cortex

Question 453

dyssomnias

Answer 453

difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, or avoid sleep | ex: insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea

Question 454

parasomnias

Answer 454

abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep | ex: night terrors, sleepwalking

Question 455

selective attention

Answer 455

allows one to pay attention to particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli in the background require attention

Question 456

divided attention

Answer 456

uses automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at one time

Question 457

motivation

Answer 457

the purpose, or driving force, behind our actions | can be extrinsic or intrinsic

Question 458

instincts

Answer 458

innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli

Question 459

instinct theory

Answer 459

people perform certain behaviors because of their evolutionary programmed instincts

Question 460

arousal

Answer 460

the state of being awake and reactive to stimuli

Question 461

optimal arousal theory

Answer 461

optimal performance requires optimal arousal. arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance

Question 462

drives

Answer 462

internal states of tension that beget particular behaviors focused on goals primary drives: related to biological processes secondary drives: stem from learning

Question 463

drive reduction theory

Answer 463

motivation arises from the desire to eliminate drives, which create uncomfortable internal states

Question 464

maslow's heirarchy of needs

Answer 464

physiological, safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem, and self-actualization -higher needs only produce drives once lower needs are met

Question 465

self-actualization

Answer 465

full realization of one's talents and potential

Question 466

self-determination theory

Answer 466

emphasizes three universal needs: autonomy, competence, and relatedness

Question 467

incentive theory

Answer 467

explains motivation as the desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishments

Question 468

expectancy-value theory

Answer 468

the amount of motivation for a task is based on the expectation of success and the value of that success

Question 469

opponent process theory

Answer 469

explains motivation for drug use: as drug use increases, the body counteracts its effects, leading to tolerance and uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms

Question 470

house money effect

Answer 470

after a prior gain, people become more open to assuming risk since the new money is not treated as one's own

Question 471

gambler's fallacy

Answer 471

if something happens more frequently than normal, it will happen less frequently in the future, or vice versa

Question 472

prisoner's dilemma

Answer 472

two people act out of their own self-interest, but if they had cooperated, the result would have been even better

Question 473

emotion

Answer 473

a state of mind, or feeling, that is subjectively experienced based on circumstances, mood, and relationships

Question 474

three components of emotion

Answer 474

1) cognitive: subjective 2) physiological: changes in autonomic nervous sytem 3) behavioral: facial expressions and body language

Question 475

universal emotions

Answer 475

happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger

Question 476

james lange theory

Answer 476

behavior and physiological actions LEAD TO EMOTIONS EX: power posing arousal (snake) --> heart pounding, sweating --> fear (emotion)

Question 477

cannon bard theory

Answer 477

emotional and physiological responses to a stimulus occur SIMULTANEOUSLY, they arise from separate and independent areas of the brain ex: arousal (snake) --> heart pounding/sweating + fear (emotion)

Question 478

schacter-singer two factor theory

Answer 478

two factor theory of emotion, physiological arousal and interpretation of context or "cognitive label" leads to emotion ex: arousal (snake) --> heart pounding/sweating, cognitive label ("i'm scared) --> fear (emotion)

Question 479

stress

Answer 479

the physiological and cognitive response to challenges or life changes

Question 480

stress appraisal

Answer 480

primary appraisal: classifying a potential stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful secondary appraisal: evaluating if the organism can cope with the stress

Question 481

stressors

Answer 481

anything that leads to a stress response | can lead to distress or eustress

Question 482

general adaptation syndrome

Answer 482

specific stressors do not have specific responses, they all generate the same general physical stress response 3 stages of stress: alarm, resistance, exhaustion these involve both the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system release of ACTH leads to increased cortisol

Question 483

self-concept

Answer 483

the sum of ways we describe ourselves

Question 484

identities

Answer 484

individual components of our self-concept related to the group to which we belong

Question 485

self-esteem

Answer 485

the closer our actual self is to our ideal self and our ought self (who others want us to be), the increased our self esteem

Question 486

self efficacy

Answer 486

the degree to which we see ourselves as being capable at a given skill or situation

Question 487

learned helplessness

Answer 487

a state of hopelessless that results from being unable to avoid repeated negative stimuli

Question 488

internal locus of control

Answer 488

we control our own success/failure

Question 489

external locus of control

Answer 489

outside factors have more control

Question 490

freud's formation of identity

Answer 490

psychosexual stages of personal development based on tensions caused by the libido -failure at any stage leads to fixation, which causes personality disorder

Question 491

oral stage (freud)

Answer 491

0-1

Question 492

anal stage (freud)

Answer 492

1-3

Question 493

phallic stage (freud)

Answer 493

3-6

Question 494

latent stage (freud)

Answer 494

6-puberty

Question 495

genital stage (freud)

Answer 495

puberty - adulthood

Question 496

erikson's theory of development

Answer 496

stages stem from conflicts throughout life

Question 497

erikson's theory: age 0-1

Answer 497

trust vs mistrust

Question 498

erikson's theory: ages 1-3

Answer 498

autonomy vs shame

Question 499

erikson's theory: ages 3-6

Answer 499

initiative vs guilt

Question 500

erikson's theory: ages 6-12

Answer 500

industry vs inferiority

Question 501

erikson's theory: ages 12 to 20

Answer 501

identity vs role confusion

Question 502

erikson's theory: ages 20-40

Answer 502

intimacy vs isolation

Question 503

erikson's theory: ages 40-65

Answer 503

generativity vs stagnation

Question 504

erikson's theory: ages 65-death

Answer 504

integrity vs despair

Question 505

kohlberg's theory of development

Answer 505

stages based on moral dilemmas | 6 stages in 3 phases

Question 506

vygotsky's theory of development

Answer 506

zone of proximal development: the skills that a child has not yet mastered and require a more knowledgeable other to accomplish

Question 507

imitation and role taking

Answer 507

common ways children learn from others

Question 508

reference group

Answer 508

the group to which we compare ourselves

Question 509

id (freud)

Answer 509

base urges of survival and reproduction

Question 510

superego (freud)

Answer 510

the idealist and perfectionist

Question 511

ego (freud)

Answer 511

the mediator between the id and superego and the conscious mind

Question 512

carl jung's theory of personality

Answer 512

collective unconscious links all humans together. personality is influenced by archetypes

Question 513

adler and horney

Answer 513

unconscious is motivated by social urges

Question 514

humanistic perspective of personality

Answer 514

emphasizes the internal feelings of healthy individuals as they strive for happiness and self-realization maslow's heirarchy of needs and roger's unconditional positive regard flow from the humanistic view of personality

Question 515

type and trait theory

Answer 515

personality can be described by identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviors

Question 516

example of type theories

Answer 516

Ancient greek humors, Sheldon's somatotypes, division into type A and type B, and Myers Brigg Type inventory

Question 517

PEN trait theory

Answer 517

Psychoticism (nonconformity) Extraversion (sociable) Neuroticism (arousal in stressful situations)

Question 518

Big 5 trait theory of personality

Answer 518

CANOE Conscientiousness, Agreeableness, Neuroticism, Openness to experience, Extraversion

Question 519

3 basic traits

Answer 519

Cardinal traits: traits around which a person organizes their life Central traits: major characteristics of personality secondary traits: more personal characteristics and limited in occurrence

Question 520

social cognitive theory of personality

Answer 520

individuals react with their environment in a cycle called reciprocal determinism people mold their environments according to their personality, and those environments in turn shape their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

Question 521

behaviorist perspective of personality

Answer 521

our personality develops as a result of operant conditioning (it is reward and punishment based)

Question 522

biological perspective of personality

Answer 522

behavior can be explained as a result of genetic expression

Question 523

schizophrenia

Answer 523

prototypical disorder with psychosis positive symptoms: add something to behavior, cognition, or affect. Ex: delusions or hallucinations negative symptoms: the loss of something, such as disturbance of affect or avolition (lack of motivation)

Question 524

depressive disorders

Answer 524

include major depressive disorder and seasonal affective disorder major depressive disorder: at least 1 major depressive episode persistent depressive disorder: dysthymia for at least two years that does not meet the criteria for major depressive disorder seasonal affective disorder: depression occurring in winter

Question 525

bipolar and related disorders

Answer 525

manic or hypomanic episodes bipolar 1: at least one manic episode bipolar 2: at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode cyclothymic disorder: hypomanic episodes with dysthymia

Question 526

anxiety disorders

Answer 526

generalized anxiety disorder, phobias, social anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, and panic disorder

Question 527

body dysmorphic disorder

Answer 527

unrealistic negative evaluation of one's appearance

Question 528

PTSD

Answer 528

intrusive symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares avoidance symptoms negative cognitive symptoms arousal symptoms

Question 529

dissociative amnesia

Answer 529

can't recall past experiences

Question 530

dissociative fugue

Answer 530

assumption of a new identity

Question 531

dissociative identify disorder

Answer 531

multiple personalities

Question 532

depersonalization/derealization disorder

Answer 532

feeling detached from the mind and body or environment

Question 533

somatic symptom disorder

Answer 533

"somatoform disorder" | a somatic symtom causes disproportionate concern

Question 534

illness anxiety disorder

Answer 534

preoccupation with thoughts about having or coming down with an illness

Question 535

conversion disorder

Answer 535

associated with prior trauma, involves unexplained symptoms resulting in loss of body function

Question 536

hypochondriasis

Answer 536

"illness anxiety disorder" one strongly believes that he or she has a serious illness despite no or few symptoms

Question 537

personality disorders

Answer 537

patterns of inflexible, maladaptive behavior that cause distress or impaired functions

Question 538

cluster A of personality disorders

Answer 538

"weird" paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid

Question 539

cluster B of personality disorders

Answer 539

"wild" - dramatic, emotional, or erratic behaviors antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

Question 540

cluster C of personality disorders

Answer 540

"worried" - characterized by anxious or fearful behaviors avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive

Question 541

behaviorist approach to understanding psych disorders

Answer 541

classical and operant conditioning shapes the disorder

Question 542

biomedical approach to understanding psych disorders

Answer 542

takes into account only physical and medical causes

Question 543

biopsychosocial approach to understanding psych disorders

Answer 543

considers relative contributions of biological, psychological, and social components

Question 544

biological basis of schizophrenia

Answer 544

genetic factors, birth trauma, marijuana use, family history

Question 545

biological basis of depression

Answer 545

increased glucocorticoids | decreased norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine

Question 546

biological basis of bipolar disorders

Answer 546

increased norepinephrine and serotonin | also heritable

Question 547

biological basis of alzheimer's

Answer 547

genetic factors, brain atrophy, decreased acetylcholine, senile plaques of B-amyloid (this specifically leads to lewy body dementia)

Question 548

biological basis of parkinson's

Answer 548

bradykinesia, resting tremor, pill-rolling tremor, masklike facies, cogwheel rigidity, and a shuffling gait decreased dopamine

Question 549

social facilitation

Answer 549

describes the tendency of people to perform at a different level when others are around

Question 550

deindividuation

Answer 550

a loss of self-awareness in large groups

Question 551

bystander effect

Answer 551

when in a group, individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need

Question 552

peer pressure

Answer 552

the social influence placed on individuals by others they consider equals

Question 553

social loafing

Answer 553

an individual does not pull his or her weight in a group setting

Question 554

polarization

Answer 554

the tendency toward making decisions in a group that are more extreme

Question 555

groupthink

Answer 555

the tendency for groups to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas

Question 556

culture

Answer 556

the beliefs, ideas, behaviors, actions, and characteristics of a group or society

Question 557

assimilation

Answer 557

the process by which an immigrant or minority takes up elements of mainstream culture. Assimilation is a specific type of socialization. To experience assimilation, a person must first have their own culture, then absorb elements of a new culture

Question 558

multiculturalism

Answer 558

the encouragement of multiple cultures within a community to enhance diversity

Question 559

subculture

Answer 559

a group of people within a culture that distinguish themselves from the primary culture

Question 560

attitudes

Answer 560

``` tendencies toward expression of positive or negative feelings or evaluations of something attitude has three components: 1) affective 2) behavioral 3) cognitive ```

Question 561

functional attitudes theory

Answer 561

states that there are four functional areas of attitudes: knowledge, ego expression, adaptability, and ego defense

Question 562

learning theory

Answer 562

states that attitudes are developed through forms of learning: direct contact, direct interaction, direct instruction, and conditioning

Question 563

elaboration likelihood model

Answer 563

states that attitudes are formed and changed through different routes based on degree of elaboration central route processing: the process by which attitudes are formed or changed as a result of carefully scrutinizing and thinking about the central merits of attitude-relevant information peripheral route processing: occurs when someone evaluates a message, such as an advertisement, on the basis of physical attractiveness, background music, or other surface level characteristics rather than the actual content of the message

Question 564

social cognitive theory of attitude and behavior

Answer 564

states that attitudes are formed through watching others, personal factors, and the environment. people change their behavior or attitudes based on observation

Question 565

socialization

Answer 565

the process of internalizing the social norms and values expected in one's society

Question 566

positive sanction

Answer 566

a reward for certain behavior

Question 567

negative sanction

Answer 567

a punishment for certain behavior

Question 568

formal sanction

Answer 568

an official reward or punishment

Question 569

informal sanction

Answer 569

a sanction that is not enforced or punished by an authority but occurs in everyday interactions with other people ex: asking people to lower their voice in a movie theater

Question 570

norms

Answer 570

determine the boundaries of acceptable behavior within a society

Question 571

mores

Answer 571

informal norms with MAJOR importance for society, and if broken, can result in severe sanctions ex: drug abuse is not socially acceptable right vs rude

Question 572

folkways

Answer 572

informal norms that are less significant, yet they still shape our everyday behavior ex: holding a door for someone right vs rude

Question 573

taboos

Answer 573

considered unacceptable by almost every culture (like cannibalism or incest)

Question 574

taboos

Answer 574

considered unacceptable by almost every culture (like cannibalism or incest)

Question 575

stigma

Answer 575

the extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on perceived differences from the rest of society

Question 576

deviance

Answer 576

violation of norms, rules, or expectations in a society

Question 577

differential association theory

Answer 577

deviance can be learned through our interactions with others. people commit crimes, at least in part, because of their associations with other people

Question 578

conformity

Answer 578

changing beliefs or behaviors in order to fit into a group or society

Question 579

compliance

Answer 579

when individuals change their behavior based on the requests of others

Question 580

obedience

Answer 580

a change in behavior based on a command from someone seen as an authority figure

Question 581

status

Answer 581

a position in society used to classify individuals

Question 582

ascribed status

Answer 582

involuntarily assigned to an individual based on race, gender, ethnicity, etc

Question 583

achieved status

Answer 583

voluntarily earned by an individual

Question 584

master status

Answer 584

the status by which an individual is primarily identified

Question 585

role

Answer 585

a set of beliefs, values, and norms that define the expectations of a certain status in a social situation

Question 586

role performance

Answer 586

refers to carrying out behaviors of a given role

Question 587

role partner

Answer 587

another individual who helps define a specific role within the relationship

Question 588

role set

Answer 588

a set of all roles that are associated with a status

Question 589

role conflict

Answer 589

difficulty managing MULTIPLE roles

Question 590

role strain

Answer 590

difficulty managing JUST ONE ROLE

Question 591

groups

Answer 591

2 or more people with similar characteristics that share a sense of unity

Question 592

peer group

Answer 592

a self-selected group formed around shared interests

Question 593

family group

Answer 593

group to which you are born, adopted, or married

Question 594

affinal kinship

Answer 594

individuals that are related by choice (eg, married)

Question 595

consanguineous kinship

Answer 595

related through blood

Question 596

out group

Answer 596

group you compete with or oppose

Question 597

primary group

Answer 597

those that contain strong emotional bonds

Question 598

secondary group

Answer 598

often temporary, contain weaker bonds overall

Question 599

gemeinschaft

Answer 599

community

Question 600

gesellschaft

Answer 600

society

Question 601

network

Answer 601

an observable pattern of social relationships between individuals or groups

Question 602

organizatio

Answer 602

a group with identifiable membership that engages in certain action to achieve a common purpose

Question 603

bureaucracy

Answer 603

a rational system of administration, discipline, and control, max weber gave it six defining characterisitcs

Question 604

iron law of oligarchy

Answer 604

democratic or bureaucratic systems naturally shift to being ruled by an elite group

Question 605

sect

Answer 605

a religious group that arose from a split of a larger religion

Question 606

basic model of expressing emotions

Answer 606

states that there are universal emotions and expressions that can be understood across cultures

Question 607

social construction model of expressing emotion

Answer 607

states that emotions are solely based on the situational context of social interactions

Question 608

display rules

Answer 608

unspoken rules that govern the expression of emotions

Question 609

impression management

Answer 609

refers to the maintenance of a public image, which is accomplished through various strategies: flattery, boasting, managing appearances, ingratiation, aligning actions, alter-cating

Question 610

dramaturgical approach

Answer 610

people create images of themselves in the same way that actors perform a role in front of an audience front stage: where you are seen by an audience back stage: you are not in front of the audience

Question 611

nonverbal communication

Answer 611

communicating through means other than the use of words | ex: body language, prosody, gestures

Question 612

animal communication

Answer 612

takes place not only between nonhuman animals, but between humans and other animals as well. animals use body language, facial expressions, visual displays, scents, and vocalizations to communicate

Question 613

interpersonal attraction

Answer 613

what makes people like each other influenced by physical attractiveness, similarity of thoughts and physical traits, self-disclosure, reciprocity, and proximity

Question 614

aggression

Answer 614

a physical, verbal, or nonverbal behavior with the intention to cause harm or increase social dominance

Question 615

attatchment

Answer 615

an emotional bond to another person | usually refers to the bond between a child and caregiver

Question 616

secure attachment

Answer 616

requires a constant caregiver | child shows a strong preference to the caregiver compared to strangers

Question 617

avoidant attachment

Answer 617

occurs when a caregiver has little or no response to a stressed child child shows no preference for the caregiver compared to children

Question 618

ambivalent attachment

Answer 618

occurs when a caregiver has an inconsistent response to a child's distress, sometimes responding appropriately, sometimes neglectful child will become distressed when caregiver leaves and is ambivalent when he or she returns

Question 619

disorganized attachment

Answer 619

occurs when a caregiver is erratic or abusive | the child shows no clear pattern of behavior in response to the caregiver's absence or presence

Question 620

social support

Answer 620

the perception or reality that one is cared for by a social network

Question 621

emotional support

Answer 621

listening to, affirming, and empathizing with someone's feelings

Question 622

esteem support

Answer 622

affirms the qualities and skills of a person

Question 623

material support

Answer 623

providing physical or monetary support

Question 624

informational support

Answer 624

providing useful information to a perso

Question 625

network support

Answer 625

providing a sense of belonging to a person

Question 626

foraging

Answer 626

searching for and exploiting food resources

Question 627

mating system

Answer 627

describes the way in which a group is organized in terms of sexual behavior

Question 628

monogamy

Answer 628

exclusive mating relationships

Question 629

polygamy

Answer 629

one member of a sex having multiple exclusive relationships with members of the opposite sex

Question 630

polygyny

Answer 630

male with multiple females

Question 631

polyandry

Answer 631

female with multiple males

Question 632

promiscuity

Answer 632

no exclusivity

Question 633

mate choice

Answer 633

the selection of a mate based on attraction and traits

Question 634

altruism

Answer 634

a helping behavior in which the person's intent is to benefit someone else at some cost to him or herself

Question 635

game theory

Answer 635

attempts to explain decision making between individuals as if they are participating in a game

Question 636

inclusive fitness

Answer 636

a measure of an organism's success in the population based on how well it propagates its own genes. also includes the ability of those offspring to then support others

Question 637

social perception

Answer 637

social cognition the way by which we generate impressions about people in our social environment contains a perceiver, target, and situation

Question 638

social capital

Answer 638

the practice of developing and maintaining relationships that form social networks willing to help each other

Question 639

implicit personality theory

Answer 639

when we look at somebody for the first time, we pick up on one of their characteristics, we then take that characteristic and assume other traits about the person based off of that one characteristic we first picked up on

Question 640

attribution theory

Answer 640

focuses on the tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people's behavior

Question 641

dispositional attribution theory

Answer 641

internal | causes of a behavior are internal/personality based

Question 642

situational

Answer 642

external | surroundings or context cause behavior

Question 643

correspondent inference theory

Answer 643

focuses on the intentionality of a person's behavior when someone unexpectedly does something that either helps or hurts us, we form a dispositional attribution, we correlate the action to the person's personality

Question 644

fundamental attribution error

Answer 644

the bias toward making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions in regard to the actions of others

Question 645

attribution substitution

Answer 645

occurs when individuals must make judgements that are complex but instead substitute a simpler solution or heuristic

Question 646

actor observer bias

Answer 646

tendency to attribute your own actions to external causes and others' actions to dispositional causes

Question 647

stereotypes

Answer 647

COGNITIVE | occur when attitudes and impressions are based on limited and superficial information

Question 648

self fulfilling prophecy

Answer 648

when stereotypes lead to expectations and those expectations create conditions that lead to confirmation of the stereotype

Question 649

stereotype threat

Answer 649

concern or anxiety about confirming a negative stereotype about one's social group

Question 650

prejudice

Answer 650

AFFECTIVE | An irrational positive or negative attitude toward a person, group, or thing prior to an actual experience

Question 651

ethnocentrism

Answer 651

refers to the practice of making judgements about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one's own culture

Question 652

cultural relativism

Answer 652

refers to the recognition that social groups and cultures should be studied on their own terms

Question 653

discrimination

Answer 653

behavioral | when prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently from others

Question 654

functionalism

Answer 654

focuses on the function of each part of society manifest functions: deliberate actions that serve to help a given system latent functions: unexpected, unintended, or unrecognized consequences of manifest actions

Question 655

conflict theory

Answer 655

based on the works of Karl Marx conflict theory focuses on how power differentials are created and contribute to maintaining social order explains how groups compete for resources to attain power or superiority

Question 656

conflict sociology

Answer 656

the study of the way that distinct groups compete for resources

Question 657

symbolic interactionism

Answer 657

the study of the ways individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and other symbols the "meaning" of social symbols

Question 658

micro-sociology

Answer 658

the study of expressions, symbolic gestures, and other small, individual components of society

Question 659

social constructionism

Answer 659

explores the ways in which individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality the "value" they place on certain social constructs social constructionism focuses on altering that constructed view

Question 660

rational choice theory

Answer 660

states that individuals will make decisions that maximize benefit and minimize harm expectancy theory: applies rational choice theory within groups

Question 661

feminism theory

Answer 661

explains the ways in which one gender can be subordinated

Question 662

social institutions

Answer 662

well-established social structures that dictate certain patterns of behavior or relationships

Question 663

4 tenets of medicine

Answer 663

beneficence, nonmalefience, respect for autonomy, and justice

Question 664

material culture

Answer 664

refers to the physical objects, resources, and spaces that people use to define their culture

Question 665

symbolic culture

Answer 665

indicates the ideas associated with a cultural group

Question 666

cultural lag

Answer 666

the idea that material culture changes more quickly than symbolic culture

Question 667

language

Answer 667

spoken or written symbols combined into a system

Question 668

value

Answer 668

what a person deems important in life

Question 669

belief

Answer 669

something a person considers to be true

Question 670

ritual

Answer 670

formal ceremonial behavior, usually includes symbolism

Question 671

demographics

Answer 671

statistics of populations | most common: age, gender, race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, and immigration

Question 672

fertility rate

Answer 672

average number of children born to a woman during her lifetime in a population

Question 673

birth and mortality rate

Answer 673

usually measured as the number of births or deaths per 1000 people per year

Question 674

migration

Answer 674

the movement of people from one location to another

Question 675

ethnic migrants

Answer 675

ethnic groups emigrating to more industrialized countries tend to have increased fertility AND increased mortality compared to the industrialized nation's popularity

Question 676

demographic transition

Answer 676

a model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

Question 677

social movements

Answer 677

organized to either promote (proactive) or resist (reactive) social change

Question 678

globalization

Answer 678

the process of integrating a global economy with free trade and tapping of foreign labor markets

Question 679

urbanization

Answer 679

the process of dense areas of population creating a pull for migration

Question 680

social stratification

Answer 680

the system by which society ranks categories of people into a hierarchy

Question 681

functionalism

Answer 681

states that social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those with special intelligence, knowledge, and skills to be a part of the most important professions and occupations a harmonious equilibrium

Question 682

social class

Answer 682

a category of people with shared socioeconomic characteristics

Question 683

prestige

Answer 683

respect and importance tied to specific occupations or associations

Question 684

power

Answer 684

the capacity to influence people

Question 685

anomie

Answer 685

the lack of social norms, or the breakdown of social bonds between individuals and society

Question 686

strain theory

Answer 686

focuses on how anomic conditions can lead to deviance, and in turn reinforces social stratification

Question 687

meritocracy

Answer 687

advancement up the social ladder is based on intellectual talent and achievement

Question 688

social mobility

Answer 688

allows one to acquire higher-level employment opportunities by achieving required credentials and experience

Question 689

absolute poverty

Answer 689

when one can't acquire basic life necessities

Question 690

relative poverty

Answer 690

when one is poor in comparison to a larger population ex: "anyone who earns less than 60% of the median income is poor" it is relative to the population, not based on a hard number value

Question 691

relative deprivation theory

Answer 691

people seek to acquire something that others possess and which they believe they should have too. they are not necessarily poor, but they may perceive that they are lacking resources or money. it is all relative

Question 692

social reproduction

Answer 692

the passing on of social inequality, especially poverty, from one generation to the next

Question 693

spatial inequality

Answer 693

social stratification across territories

Question 694

incidence

Answer 694

the number of NEW cases of a disease per population at risk

Question 695

prevalence

Answer 695

the number of CURRENT cases of a disease per population

Question 696

mortality

Answer 696

deaths caused by a given disease

Question 697

morbidity

Answer 697

the burden or degree of illness associated with a given disease

Question 698

affordable health care act

Answer 698

attempts to increase health insurance coverage rates and reduce the cost of health care

Question 699

medicare

Answer 699

covers people greater than 65 years old, those with end-stage renal disease, and those with ALS

Question 700

medicaid

Answer 700

covers patients in significant financial need