Psychopathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is required for diagnosis for intellectual developmental disorders?

A

a) Clinical Assessment and individualised standardised intelligenece testing
b) Deficits in adaptive functioning towards societal-cultural standards and functioning for personal independence and social responsibility
c) And on onset of deficits during the developmental period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With regards to intellectual development disorders, in intelligence testing individuals normally score

A

individuals normal obtain scoring that is two or more standard deviations below the population mean on an intelligence testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the specifiers that are used for intellectual development disorders, and what domains are they taken in consideration of ?

A

Mild, moderate, severe and profound which is based upon adaptive functioning in connection with conceptual , social, and practical domains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What percentage of cases are known causes of intellectual disability Disorder?What are the percentage breakdown of those cases related to

A

25 – 50 % of cases are known, with 80 – 85% related to prenatal factors 5 -10 % related to perinatal factors and 5-10% related to postnatal factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the most common chromosomal causes of Intellectual Disability disorder?What is the most preventable cause ?

A

The most common chromosomal cause are Down syndrome, followed by Fragile X disorder, and the most common preventable cause is Fetal Alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the length of time required for ADHD symptoms to be present? From before what age do onset of symptoms need to be present?

A

Six months, 12 years old,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many settings does ADHD need to be present in? What areas does ADHD need to affect in order for there to be a diagnosis ?

A

Two

Social, Academic, Or Occupational Functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the symptom requirements for ADHD

A

Six Symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity as follows

Inattnetion Symptoms include :
a) Doesn’t listen to when spoken to
b) Fails to pay close attention to details
c) Doesn’t Follow through on instructions
d) Is easily distracted by extraneous stimuli
e) Forgetful in daily activities
Symptoms of Hyperactivity Include
a) Is unable to engage in play or leisure activities quietly
b) Often runs or climbs in inappropriate situations
c) Talks excessively
d) Has trouble waiting for his or her turn
e) Interrupts or intrudes on others
Specified to include predominantly Inattention, Predominantly Hyperactivity -Combined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most prevalent diagnosed disorder amongst youth in the US

A

ADHD - Between the ages of 3 and 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What three things have studies found in relation to the relationship to ADHD in adults

A

A) Excissive motor ability decreases and has been replaced for example by an inability to sit still or relax
B) Impulsivity decreases slightly and changes to behaviour such as reckless driving, abruptly quitting jobs, ending relationships and overspending
C) Inattention continues during adulthood and can affect meeting deadlines, and an inability to meet important dates. Making mistakes and procrastination are common themes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Whats the most likely comorbid diagnosis for children with ADHD

A

Oppositional Defiance Disorder, followed by an anxiety disorder and conduct disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neuroimaging studies in Children have found that children with ADHD have:

A

Children with ADHD have
1. Impaired response system relative to abnormalities in the striatum, prefrontal cortex and thalamus
2. Difficulties differentiating temporal processing, the ability to address and organise time related issues this is associated with differences in the prefrontal cortex and the cerebellum.
3. Emotional difficulties associated with abnormalities in the prefrontal cortex and the Cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is required for the diganosis of Autism spectrum Disorder

A

A) Deficits in social communication and social interaction amongst multiple contexts,

B) Restrictive and repetitive patterns of behaviors, interests, and activities.

The prognosis for ADHD is best when IQ is over 70, functional language skills by age 5 and an absence of comorbid mental health problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some associated features of Autism Spectrum Disoder

A

Head banging, walking on tippytoes, motor abnormalities, clumsiness and walking on tiptoes, and poor facial recognition skills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What gender has most prevalence of ASD , and at what times rate?

A

Males three to four times more often with a prevalence of over 1 to 2 % in the population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some of the physical attributes for ASD that occurs

A

Larger than normal head size with with growth plateauing out by preschool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many tic disorders are there and what are their names?

A

Three,
A) tourettes syndrome, which consists of one vocal tic and multiple, have persisted for one year and onset occured bedore the age of 18

B) Persistant chronic motor or vocal tic disorder consists of either or one or more vocal tic or motor tic

c) Provisional Tic disorder occurs before the age of 18 and for less than one year. Beginnings of tics occurs usually before 4 and 6 years old and severity usually peaks at age 10 - 12 years old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Whats the most common co -occuring disorder for tic disorder

A

ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the most common interventions for tic disorders.

A

Psychopharmacology - Anti-psychotic (Haloperidol)

Behavioral treatments such as CBIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the deficits in language disorders treat. At what age does it indicate when is the best time to indicate the breakway of severity.

A

Stuttering, age 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

On average, how many school children have a learning disorder? What is the most usual diagnosis for a learning disorder?

A

On average, 5 to 15% of children have a learning disorder. Dyslexia, with dysphonic dyslexia the most common type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder

A

Brief Psychotic disorder requires at least one of four characteristic symptoms for at least one day but less than a month. Symptoms include delusions, Disorganised Speech, hallucinations, and grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenaform

A

For the diagnosis of schizophreniform, there needs to be a presence of at least two of five required characteristic symptoms with at least one of the characteristics being delusions, hallucinations or disorganized speech. The prevalence must be there for at least one month but less than six months . Symptoms include hallucinations, disorganized speech, delusions, catatonic behaviour and negative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is required for a Diagnosis of schizophrenia ?

A

For the diagnosis of schizophrenia, there needs to be a presence of at least two of the five required characteristic symptoms with at least one of the characteristics being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. Presence of a prodromal and antiquated phase with negative symptoms to last for at least 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For the etiology of schizophrenia, what is the greatest indicator?

A

Genetic closeness compared to family member with presence of schizophrenia. For example there is a 6% chance presence for a parent comparably to a monozygotic twin with prevalence of 48%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the main transmitters present in presentation of schizophrenia

A

Dopamine , glutamate and serotonin. Most common theory is the dopamine theory which relates to the hyper and hypoactivity of dopamine levels in those with schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common treatments for Schizophrenia

A

NAVIGATE and CBTp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of Schizoaffective disorder ?

A

The presence of both schizophrenia and a mood disorder but with the initial presence of delusions or hallucinations for two or more weeks before the mood disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is required for the diagnosis of delusional disorder

A

Delusional disorder is the lack of presence of any issues in relation to the delusion apart from direct consequence of the delusion itself. Specficer of Erotomanic, Grandiose , Jealous, persecutory or somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the characteristics of a manic episode

A

A Manic episode is presented with an abnormal and persistent elevated expansive or irritable mood and increased energy for one week.

It includes three or more characteristics of, such as impaired sleep, flight of ideas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the characteristics of a hypomanic episode

A

A hypomanic episode is characterised by an abnormally and persistantly elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased activity or energy and three or more symptoms of mania for at least four consecutive days

Symptoms are not severe enough for hospitalization and do not include psychotic features.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the characteristics of a major depressive episode?

A

a major depressive episode is characterised by five or more symptoms, with at least one of them being depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure in most activitiesfor at least two weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are some aetiological causes of Bipolar disorder?

A

There has been associations with genetic, and brain abnormalities as well as neurotransmitter and circadian rhythm issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What areas of the brain are said to be affected by Bipolar disorder

A

a) Prefrontal Cortex
b) Amygdala
c) Hippocamupus
d) Basal Ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are some of the Circadian rhythm irregularities related to Bipolar

A

a) Abnormalities in sleep wake cycle
b) Secretion of hormones
c) Appetite
d) core body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

whats a possible differential diagnosis for Bipolar ? What are some of the similar traits that are shared

A

The most common differential diagnosis is ADHD.

Some of the similar traits include distractability, irritability and accelrated speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference in sexual behaviour between Bipolar and ADHD

A

Bipolar relates to an increase in hypersexuality, including sexual speech, preoccuaption with sex.

Comparably ADHD has higher rates of sexual disorders and greater involvement of risky sexual behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most common psychosocial treatments for Bipolar disorder ?

A

A) CBT
B) Psychoeducation
C) interpersonal therapy
D) Family focused therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the most common psychopharmacological treatment for classic bipolar disorder? What are the characteristics of “classic” bipolar

A

Litihium

A) long periods of time between episodes
B) less likelihood for mixed mood/hypomania
C) onset between ages 15 and 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common psychopharmacological treatment for atypical bipolar? What are the common traits of “atypical” bipolar treatment?

A

Carbamazapine . Valporic Acid

a) Mixed mood states
b) Rapid Cycling
c) A lack of full recovery between episodes
d) Onset between 10 and 15 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the three Depressive disorders ?

A

a) Major Depressive Disorder
b) Persistent Depressive Disorder
c) Disruptive mood regulation disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the Criteria of Diagnosis for Major Depressive Episode?

A

Requires five or more symptoms of depression for at least two weeks, with one symptom being a low mood or loss of interest in activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the symptoms of persistent depressive disorder ? (Dysthymia)

A

Two symptom characteristics for at least two years in adults or one year for children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the symptoms of disruptive mood dysregulation Disorder?

A

a) The presence for at least 12 months severe and recurrent temper bursts that are out of proportional behaviour to the situation and occur three times a week or more

b) Persistant irritable or angry mood that is obserable to others most of the day and nearly every day between bursts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some of the specifiers for Depressive Disorder ?

A

Peripartum onset, Seasonal Affective Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the most common medication given for peripartum depression

A

Sertraline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some of the symptoms included in SAD

A

Hypersomnia, Overeating, Weight gain, craving carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How long must symptoms persist in children and adolescents before a diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder can be made?How long for adults ?

A

symptoms must last for at least four weeks in children and adolescents and typically need to be present for at least six months in adults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the primary criterion for the diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder according to DSM-5-IR?

A

The primary criterion is developmentally inappropriate and excessive fear or anxiety about being separated from attachment figures, as indicated by at least three of eight specified symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are some common symptoms of Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

Symptoms include excessive distress when anticipating or experiencing separation, persistent reluctance to go to school, work, or elsewhere due to fear of separation, and repeated complaints of physical symptoms when separation from major attachment figures is anticipated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What life events are known to often trigger Separation Anxiety Disorder in individuals?

A

Stressful life events such as parental divorce or the death of a relative or a pet can trigger Separation Anxiety Disorder.

52
Q

What is the typical age group for the onset of Separation Anxiety Disorder, and can it also affect adults?

A

While it is more commonly diagnosed in children and adolescents, Separation Anxiety Disorder can also persist into adulthood.

53
Q

How does school refusal relate to Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

School refusal is often a manifestation of Separation Anxiety Disorder, but it may also be due to social anxiety disorder or other disorders.

54
Q

What are the physical symptoms that children with school refusal may exhibit?

A

Children may complain of physical symptoms like headache, stomachache, nausea, and exhibit panic symptoms when the time to go to school approaches.

55
Q

What is the preferred treatment for Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

The preferred treatment is cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) that includes psychoeducation, exposure, relaxation techniques, and cognitive restructuring.

56
Q

How does cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) for children with Separation Anxiety Disorder benefit from the inclusion of parent training?

A

The effectiveness of CBT for children is increased when it’s combined with parent training.

57
Q

What is the initial treatment goal when Separation Anxiety Disorder involves school refusal?

A

The initial treatment goal is to get the child back to school as an initial step to reduce the risk for social isolation, academic failure, and other secondary impairments.

58
Q

What type of behavior pattern does Reactive Attachment Disorder involve?

A

A: It involves a persistent pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers.

59
Q

Q: What are the two main types of disturbances involved in RAD?

A

The two main types are (a) a lack of seeking or responding to comfort when distressed, and (b) persistent social and emotional disturbances.

60
Q

What are the social and emotional disturbances characteristic of RAD?

A

: They include at least two of the following: minimal social and emotional responsiveness to others, limited positive affect, unexplained irritability, sadness, or fearfulness.

61
Q

At what age must symptoms of RAD have been present for a diagnosis?

A

Symptoms must have been present before 5 years of age.

62
Q

What is the required developmental age for a RAD diagnosis?

A

The person must have a developmental age of at least nine months

63
Q

What historical factor is believed to be responsible for RAD symptoms?

A

There must be a history of extreme insufficient care.

64
Q

Q: What pattern of behavior characterizes Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder?

A

A persistent pattern of behavior that’s characterized by inappropriate interactions with unfamiliar adults.

65
Q

Name one symptom of Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder.

A

Reduced or absent reticence in approaching or interacting with strangers.

66
Q

How long must the history of extreme insufficient care be for DSED diagnosis?

A

The person must have a history of extreme insufficient care for at least nine months.

67
Q

What is a sign of DSED in terms of a child’s willingness to go with strangers?

A

Willingness to accompany a stranger with little or no hesitation.

68
Q

What is the minimum duration for PTSD symptoms for a diagnosis?

A

Symptoms must have lasted for more than one month.

69
Q

Do the diagnostic criteria for PTSD differ among age groups?

A

Yes, they differ slightly for adults, adolescents, and children over six years of age and children six years of age and younger.

70
Q

What types of events can lead to PTSD?

A

Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence.

71
Q

What are the four symptom types associated with PTSD?

A

Intrusion, avoidance, negative changes in mood or cognition, and alterations in arousal and reactivity.

72
Q

What does the intrusion symptom type of PTSD include?

A

Recurrent distressing memories of the traumatic event.

73
Q

What kind of avoidance is associated with PTSD?

A

Persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the traumatic event.

74
Q

Name a change in mood or cognition that is a symptom of PTSD.

A

Negative changes in mood or cognition.

75
Q

What does alteration in arousal and reactivity mean in the context of PTSD?

A

It can include being easily startled, feeling tense, or having difficulty sleeping.

76
Q

Can PTSD symptoms cause significant distress or impaired functioning?

A

Yes, symptoms must cause significant distress or impaired functioning.

77
Q

Q: Is a single exposure to trauma always necessary for PTSD to develop?

A

No, PTSD can result from the cumulative effects of trauma over time as well.

78
Q

What brain abnormalities have been linked to PTSD in neuroimaging studies?

A

PTSD has been linked to a hyperactive amygdala, a hypoactive ventromedial prefrontal cortex, and a reduced volume of the hippocampus.

79
Q

How does PTSD affect the activity of the hippocampus according to some studies?

A

Some studies have found increased activity of the hippocampus in individuals with PTSD.

80
Q

What is the role of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex in PTSD?

A

In PTSD, reduced activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex reduces inhibitory top-down control of the amygdala, resulting in an exaggerated fear response.

81
Q

Which neurotransmitters show increased levels and activity in PTSD?

A

Dopamine, norepinephrine, and glutamate show increased levels and activity in PTSD.

82
Q

Which neurotransmitter shows decreased levels and activity in PTSD?

A

: Serotonin shows decreased levels and activity in PTSD.

83
Q

Q: What types of treatments does the APA’s 2017 Clinical Practice Guideline for PTSD in Adults recommend?

A

It recommends psychological and pharmacological treatments.

84
Q

What psychological treatment does the APA strongly recommend for PTSD?

A

The APA gives a strong recommendation for cognitive-behavior therapy, cognitive processing therapy, cognitive therapy, and prolonged exposure.

85
Q

What is cognitive processing therapy?

A

It is a therapy that combines challenging negative cognitions with writing and reading a detailed description of the trauma.

86
Q

What does the APA give a conditional recommendation for?

A

It gives a conditional recommendation for brief eclectic psychotherapy, EMDR, and narrative exposure therapy.

87
Q

What are the findings on the effectiveness of EMDR’s rapid eye movements?

A

: Research has provided inconsistent results; some studies suggest they contribute to EMDR’s effectiveness, while others suggest they are unnecessary.

88
Q

What is the APA’s stance on single-session psychological debriefing for PTSD?

A

Single-session psychological debriefing, also known as critical incident stress debriefing, has not been found to be effective and may actually worsen symptoms.

89
Q

How does telepsychology compare to face-to-face interventions for treating PTSD?

A

Most studies have found it to be comparable in terms of effectiveness.

90
Q

What were the findings of Turgoose, Ashwick, and Murphy (2018) regarding telepsychology for veterans with PTSD?

A

They found that trauma-focused therapies delivered via telepsychology or in-person were similar in terms of PTSD symptom reduction and dropout rates.

91
Q

Did therapists find it challenging to develop a therapeutic alliance via telepsychology

A

While some therapists reported no trouble developing rapport with clients, others reported barriers to developing a therapeutic alliance, such as the inability to detect nonverbal communication.

92
Q

What is the requirement for a diagnosis of Acute Stress Disorder?

A

The diagnosis requires exposure to actual or threatened death, severe injury, or sexual violation, and the presence of at least nine symptoms from any of the five categories (intrusion, negative mood, dissociative symptoms, avoidance, arousal).

Symptoms must last from three days to one month and cause significant distress or impaired functioning.

93
Q

What event triggers Prolonged Grief Disorder?

A

The death of a person close to the bereaved at least 12 months ago for adults and 6 months ago for children and adolescents.

94
Q

What are the core symptoms of Prolonged Grief Disorder?

A

An intense yearning for the deceased person and/or preoccupation with thoughts about them, plus three or more symptoms of distress that occur nearly every day for at least the previous month.

95
Q

How does the DSM-5-TR describe dissociative disorders?

A

It describes them as involving a disruption of and/or discontinuity in the normal integration of consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception, body representation, motor control, and behavior.

96
Q

What characterizes Dissociative Amnesia?

A

An inability to recall important personal information, typically related to trauma or stress, that cannot be attributed to ordinary forgetfulness.

97
Q

What are the forms of amnesia in Dissociative Amnesia?

A

Amnesia can be localized, selective, generalized, systematized, or continuous.

98
Q

What does localized amnesia entail?

A

An inability to recall all events that occurred during a circumscribed period of time.

99
Q

What is selective amnesia?

A

An inability to recall some events that occurred during a defined period of time.

100
Q

What is generalized amnesia?

A

A complete loss of memory for one’s entire life.

101
Q

What is systematized amnesia?

A

A loss of memory for a specific category of information.

102
Q

What is continuous amnesia?

A

What is continuous amnesia?

103
Q

What is a specifier used with Dissociative Amnesia?

A

A specifier is used to indicate if the disorder includes dissociative fugue, which is purposeful travel or purposeless wandering that’s associated with the loss of memory.

104
Q

What is often the cause of Dissociative Amnesia?

A

It is often related to victimization or exposure to a traumatic event.

105
Q

What pharmacological treatments receive a conditional recommendation for PTSD?

A

SSRIs like fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, and the SNRI venlafaxine.

106
Q

What symptoms of PTSD do these pharmacological treatments help with?

A

They are useful for treating the depression that often accompanies PTSD and may alleviate core symptoms of re-experiencing, avoidance/numbing, and hyperarousal.

107
Q

What are the characteristic symptoms of Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder?

A

Persistent or recurrent episodes of depersonalization (a sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one’s thoughts, actions, etc.) or derealization (a sense of unreality or detachment with regard to one’s surroundings).

108
Q

Q: What type of reality testing is present in Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder?

A

Reality testing remains in tact

109
Q

Q: How does Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder impact functioning?

A

A: It causes significant distress or impaired functioning.

110
Q

Q: What is required for a diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder?

A

One or more somatic symptoms that cause significant disruption in daily life and are accompanied by excessive thoughts, emotions, or behaviors related to the symptoms or associated health concerns.

111
Q

Q: What are the types of thoughts associated with Somatic Symptom Disorder?

A

Disproportionate or persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the symptoms, a persistently high level of anxiety about health or symptoms, and excessive time and energy spent on health concerns or symptoms.

112
Q

Q: How are symptoms classified in Somatic Symptom Disorder?

A

Symptoms are classified using specifiers as mild, moderate, or severe, and can involve predominant pain, and are persistent if they last more than six months.

113
Q

What does Illness Anxiety Disorder involve?

A

A preoccupation with having a serious illness with no or mild somatic symptoms and either excessive health-related behaviors or avoidance of health care.

114
Q

What is the duration of symptoms for Illness Anxiety Disorder?

A

Symptoms must be present for at least six months.

115
Q

What is Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder characterized by?

A

One or more symptoms that involve a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning, which are incompatible with any known neurological or medical condition.

116
Q

How are symptoms of Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder diagnosed?

A

The diagnosis requires the symptoms to be incompatible with any known neurological or medical condition and cause significant distress or impaired functioning.

117
Q

What is a unique feature of Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder related to seizures?

A

It can involve psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES) that resemble true epileptic seizures but are not accompanied by the brain electrical activity associated with epileptic seizures.

118
Q

How is PNES diagnosed?

A

Video EEG is often used to diagnose PNES, where the EEG pattern does not correspond to the overt behaviors because they are not caused by abnormal brain electrical activity.

119
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for Pica

A

Pica is involves persistant eating of non nutritious foods or non edible substances (paint, dirt ) where it is not culturally acceptable.

Pica can occur at any age but it more prevalent for children and has elevated levels in pregnant women

120
Q

What is required for the Diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa - what are the specifiers

A

A) An intense fear of gaining weight or engage in behavior that interferes with weight gain.

B) A disturbance in how he or she experiences weight gain, lack of awareness in seriousness

Specifiers used to indicate type ( restriciting or purging) Course (remission or partial remission or full remission ,and severity - which is a persons BMI

121
Q

Which has a poorer prognosis Anorexia Nervosa or Bulimia

A

Anorexia Nervosa

122
Q

What is FBT

A

FBT is family based therapy which focuses on the relationship between healthy weight which is used with adolescents

123
Q

What does research show about Bulimia

A

Greater reduction in face to face - cognitions

124
Q

what is required for the diagnosis of Bulimia

A

This disorder involves recurrent patterns of binge eating thats accompanied by a lack of self-control and compensatory behavior
For Diagnosis
A) Binge eating must be present at least once a week for at least three months

Specifiers: Severity which is based upon average number of episodes of inappropriate compensatory behaviour per week.

125
Q

What is the most common elimianation disorder

A

Eurenesis

126
Q

What is required for the diagnosis of Eurnaesis

A

For euranesis to be diangosed there must be presence for two or three times a week for at least three months , a person needs to be five years old or the same developmental level.

A specifier is used for nocturnal, diurnal, or nocturnal and diurnal

127
Q
A