Psychopathology Flashcards
(102 cards)
1
Q
What is the less culturalist relativist view of abnormal behavior focused on?
A
Whether behavior poses a threat to oneself or others, or causes significant pain and suffering.
2
Q
What are the three general theories of the etiology of mental illness?
A
- Supernatural
- Somatogenic
- Psychogenic
3
Q
What does the supernatural theory of mental illness suggest?
A
Possession by evil or demonic spirits, displeasure of gods, or other supernatural causes.
4
Q
What is the somatogenic theory of mental illness based on?
A
Disturbances in physical functioning from illness, genetic inheritance, brain damage, or imbalance.
5
Q
What does the psychogenic theory of mental illness emphasize?
A
Traumatic or stressful experiences, maladaptive learned associations, or distorted perceptions.
6
Q
What is trephination?
A
Skull drilling to treat head injuries and release trapped evil spirits.
7
Q
What concept did the Chinese associate with mental illness around 2700 BC?
A
Imbalance between positive and negative bodily forces (Yin and Yang).
8
Q
What was the Greek understanding of mental illness in 400 BC?
A
A deficiency or excess of one of the four essential bodily fluids (humors).
9
Q
What are the four humors identified by Hippocrates?
A
- Blood - Sanguine
- Yellow Bile - Choleric
- Black Bile - Melancholic
- Phlegm - Phlegmatic
10
Q
What did Hippocrates classify mental illness into?
A
- Epilepsy
- Mania
- Melancholia
- Brain fever
11
Q
What was the common treatment for women with mental illness in ancient Mesopotamia and Egypt?
A
Use of strong-smelling substances to guide a wandering uterus back to its proper location.
12
Q
What was the Malleus Maleficarum?
A
The ultimate manual to guide witch hunts.
13
Q
What significant shift occurred beginning in the 16th century regarding mental illness?
A
The establishment of hospitals and asylums for the mentally ill.
14
Q
Who is considered the ‘Father of American Psychiatry’?
A
Benjamin Rush.
15
Q
What did Vincenzo Chiarugi advocate for in mental health treatment?
A
Removal of chains from patients and promotion of good hygiene and purposeful activity.
16
Q
What was the focus of the mental hygiene movement led by Clifford Beers?
A
Promoting humane treatment for the mentally ill and addressing their living conditions.
17
Q
What did the DSM-III published in 1980 introduce?
A
A multiaxial classification system considering the whole individual.
18
Q
What changes did the DSM-5 (2013) make compared to earlier editions?
A
Combined the first three axes and removed the last two.
19
Q
What are some criticisms of the DSM?
A
- Clinical and research findings biased towards Western culture
- Medicalized categorical classification system
- Tripling of diagnosable disorders since 1952
20
Q
What is Prolonged Grief Disorder?
A
Intense yearning for the deceased and related grief symptoms lasting at least 12 months.
21
Q
What does Unspecified Mood Disorder refer to?
A
Mood symptoms that do not meet full criteria for bipolar or depressive disorders.
22
Q
What phenomenon did Franz Anton Mesmer associate with hysterical symptoms?
A
Imbalances in a universal magnetic fluid.
23
Q
What is the cathartic method in psychotherapy?
A
Gaining insight and emotional relief from recalling and reliving traumatic events.
24
Q
True or False: Mental illness has always been viewed as a purely somatogenic condition.
A
False.
25
What is the definition of Unspecified Mood Disorder?
A residual category for presentations of mood symptoms that do not meet the full criteria for any of the disorders in either the bipolar or the depressive disorders diagnostic classes
26
What is Stimulant-Induced Mild Neurocognitive Disorder?
A type of substance-induced mild neurocognitive disorder recognizing that neurocognitive symptoms can be associated with stimulant use
27
What are the primary anxiety-related diagnoses?
* Generalized anxiety disorder
* Panic disorder
* Specific phobia
* Social anxiety disorder
* Post-traumatic stress disorder
* Obsessive-compulsive disorder
28
How is anxiety defined?
A negative mood state accompanied by bodily symptoms such as increased heart rate and muscle tension
29
What are the 'triple vulnerabilities' in relation to anxiety disorders?
A combination of biological, psychological, and specific factors that increase the risk for developing an anxiety disorder
30
What do biological vulnerabilities refer to in anxiety disorders?
Specific genetic and neurobiological factors that predispose someone to develop anxiety disorders
31
What are psychological vulnerabilities?
Influences from early experiences that affect how we view the world, particularly in relation to stress and trauma
32
Define Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Worrying excessively about various things, difficult to turn off, often accompanied by muscle tension, fatigue, and sleep difficulties
33
What is the prevalence of Generalized Anxiety Disorder in the population?
About 5.7% of the population has met criteria for GAD at some point in their lifetime
34
What characterizes Panic Disorder?
Unexpected panic attacks and continued intense anxiety, causing significant distress or interference in daily life
35
What is agoraphobia?
Avoidance of situations that trigger panic or anxiety, often developing alongside panic disorder
36
What are the four major subtypes of specific phobia?
* Blood-injury-injection (BII) type
* Situational type
* Natural environment type
* Animal type
37
What must be present for a diagnosis of Social Anxiety Disorder?
Fear and anxiety in social situations that lead to avoidance or significant distress, impacting daily functioning
38
What triggers Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
Intrusive reminders of a traumatic event, leading to fear, isolation, and hyper-vigilance
39
What defines Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Recurring obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors that cause significant distress or impairment
40
What is thought-action fusion?
The tendency to overestimate the relationship between a thought and an action, believing a 'bad' thought equates to a 'bad' action
41
What are effective treatments for anxiety disorders?
* Medications (anti-anxiety drugs and antidepressants)
* Exposure-based Cognitive Behavioral Therapies (CBT)
42
What are the core symptoms of a Major Depressive Episode (MDE)?
* Feeling down or depressed
* Anhedonia - loss of interest or pleasure in usual activities
43
What criteria must be met for a Major Depressive Episode according to DSM-5?
Five or more of the specified symptoms must be present for most of the day, nearly every day
44
What is the prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) worldwide?
Ranked among the top 10 leading causes of disability worldwide
45
What is the risk of suicide in individuals diagnosed with Bipolar Disorder (BD)?
25%-50% of people diagnosed with BD will attempt suicide at least once
46
What is a core criterion for a manic episode?
A distinct period of abnormally and persistently euphoric, expansive, or irritable mood and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy
## Footnote
The mood disturbance must last for one week or longer.
47
What are the symptoms required to diagnose a manic episode?
At least three of the following symptoms must be present:
* Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
* Increased goal-directed activity or psychomotor agitation
* Reduced need for sleep
* Racing thoughts or flight of ideas
* Distractibility
* Increased talkativeness
* Excessive involvement in risky behaviors
## Footnote
Four symptoms are required if the mood is irritable.
48
What distinguishes a manic episode from a hypomanic episode?
Manic episodes last one week and are associated with significant impairment in functioning, while hypomanic episodes are shorter and do not necessarily involve impairment.
49
What are the two major types of unipolar mood disorders according to DSM-5?
Major depressive disorder (MDD) and persistent depressive disorder (PDD, dysthymia)
## Footnote
MDD is characterized by one or more major depressive episodes.
50
What are the criteria for persistent depressive disorder (PDD)?
Feeling depressed most of the day for more days than not for at least two years, along with at least two of the following:
* Poor appetite or overeating
* Insomnia or hypersomnia
* Low energy or fatigue
* Low self-esteem
* Poor concentration or difficulty making decisions
* Feelings of hopelessness
## Footnote
Symptoms need to cause significant distress or impairment.
51
What is the hallmark of Bipolar I Disorder?
A single (or recurrent) manic episode
## Footnote
A depressive episode is not necessary for the diagnosis.
52
What characterizes Bipolar II Disorder?
Single (or recurrent) hypomanic episodes and depressive episodes.
53
What is cyclothymic disorder?
Characterized by numerous and alternating periods of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years
## Footnote
The periods of depression cannot meet full criteria for a major depressive episode.
54
What environmental factors are related to an increased risk for major depressive disorder (MDD)?
Stressful life events, early adversity, chronic stress, and interpersonal factors
## Footnote
Examples include childhood abuse, neglect, and economic instability.
55
What is a pessimistic attributional style?
A tendency to make internal, global, and stable attributions to negative events, which serves as a vulnerability to developing MDD.
56
True or False: Bipolar disorder is highly heritable.
True.
57
What role do environmental stressors play in bipolar disorder?
They can adversely impact the course of bipolar disorder, increasing the risk of relapse and depressive symptoms.
58
What does the Social Zeitgeber Theory suggest?
Stressors that disrupt sleep or daily routines can trigger episode relapse in bipolar disorder.
59
What are some well-supported treatments for depressive disorders?
Antidepressant medications, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS), behavior therapy, cognitive therapy, and interpersonal therapy.
60
What is a common treatment for bipolar disorders?
Pharmacotherapy
## Footnote
Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy (IPSRT) is an adjunctive treatment.
61
What is dissociation as defined by the DSM-5?
A disruption and/or discontinuity in the normal integration of consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception, body representation, motor control, and behavior.
62
What are the main types of dissociative disorders?
* Dissociative Amnesia
* Dissociative Fugue
* Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder
* Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)
63
What is depersonalization?
A feeling of detachment or estrangement from oneself
## Footnote
It may feel like observing oneself from outside the body.
64
What is derealization?
An alteration in the perception of one’s surroundings, leading to a sense of unreality in the external world.
65
What are the symptoms of schizophrenia?
Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms.
66
What is catatonia?
Behaviors that reflect a reduction in responsiveness to the external environment.
67
What are delusions?
False beliefs that are often fixed and hard to change, even when presented with conflicting information.
68
What types of hallucinations are common in psychosis?
* Auditory
* Visual
* Olfactory
* Gustatory
* Somatic
69
What characterizes schizophrenia?
Two or more symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and negative symptoms for at least one month.
70
What is the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia?
About 0.3% to 0.7%.
71
What distinguishes schizoaffective disorder?
Presence of both psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia and either major depression or manic episode.
72
What defines delusional disorder?
The presence of at least one delusion for at least a month without meeting criteria for schizophrenia.
73
What is brief psychotic disorder?
Presence of one or more psychotic symptoms for at least one day but less than one month.
74
What is the duration requirement for symptoms in Brief Psychotic Disorder?
At least 1 day but less than 1 month
## Footnote
Symptoms can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and grossly disordered or catatonic behavior.
75
What are the symptoms of Attenuated Psychotic Disorder?
Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech in an attenuated form
## Footnote
Symptoms must occur at least once a week for the past month and started or worsened in the past year.
76
What is the primary source of disability in schizophrenia?
Cognitive problems
## Footnote
These problems significantly impact functional capacity.
77
Define Functional Capacity.
The ability to engage in self-care, work, attend school, and engage in social relationships
## Footnote
It reflects an individual's capability to manage daily activities.
78
What cognitive deficits are commonly present in schizophrenia?
Episodic Memory, Working Memory, Processing Speed
## Footnote
Individuals with schizophrenia often experience difficulties in learning, retrieving information, and responding to stimuli.
79
What is the first line of treatment for schizophrenia?
Antipsychotic medications
## Footnote
There are two primary types: typical and atypical.
80
What characterizes typical antipsychotic medications?
Strong block of the D2 type dopamine receptor
## Footnote
They reduce hallucinations and delusions but have motor side effects.
81
What are atypical antipsychotics known for?
Mixed mechanisms of action and fewer motor side effects
## Footnote
They also influence D2 receptors but are not necessarily more effective for schizophrenia.
82
Identify a common side effect associated with atypical antipsychotics.
Metabolic syndrome
## Footnote
This includes weight gain, increased risk for cardiovascular illness, Type-2 Diabetes, and mortality.
83
What is Cognitive Enhancement Therapy (CET)?
A psychological intervention that improves cognition and functional outcomes
## Footnote
CET protects against gray matter loss in young individuals with schizophrenia.
84
What traits are associated with neuroticism in the Five Factor Model?
Fearful, apprehensive, angry, pessimistic, glum, timid, embarrassed
## Footnote
Neuroticism reflects emotional instability.
85
List three traits associated with emotional stability.
* Relaxed
* Optimistic
* Clear-thinking
## Footnote
Emotional stability is characterized by self-assuredness and even-temperedness.
86
What are the traits of extraversion?
* Sociable
* Outgoing
* Energetic
## Footnote
Extraversion is associated with warmth and assertiveness.
87
What does the term 'closedness' refer to in the Five Factor Model?
Practical, uninvolved, routine, rigid, traditional
## Footnote
Closedness indicates a lack of openness to new experiences.
88
What are some traits associated with agreeableness?
* Trusting
* Cooperative
* Humble
## Footnote
Agreeableness reflects a tendency toward compassion and cooperation.
89
Identify a characteristic of antagonism.
Skeptical, manipulative, aggressive
## Footnote
Antagonism reflects a lack of concern for others.
90
What traits are associated with conscientiousness?
* Organized
* Reliable
* Ambitious
## Footnote
Conscientiousness indicates a tendency toward self-discipline and goal-directed behavior.
91
What is the DSM-5 personality disorder that includes traits of social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy?
Avoidant Personality Disorder
## Footnote
This disorder combines traits from introversion and neuroticism.
92
Define Dependent Personality Disorder.
Includes submissiveness, clinging behavior, and fears of separation
## Footnote
It is primarily characterized by neuroticism and maladaptive agreeableness.
93
What traits characterize Antisocial Personality Disorder?
* Dishonest
* Manipulative
* Callous
## Footnote
It combines traits from antagonism and low conscientiousness.
94
What is the primary characteristic of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder?
Maladaptive conscientiousness
## Footnote
Traits include perfectionism and workaholism.
95
What defines Schizoid Personality Disorder?
Pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships
## Footnote
It is characterized by introversion and emotional restriction.
96
What are some traits of Borderline Personality Disorder?
* Emotionally unstable
* Vulnerable
* Self-destructive
## Footnote
It is largely a disorder of neuroticism.
97
What traits are associated with Histrionic Personality Disorder?
* Attention-seeking
* Melodramatic emotionality
* Seductiveness
## Footnote
It reflects maladaptive extraversion.
98
What is the DSM-5 diagnosis for individuals with traits not covered by existing personality disorders?
Other Specified Personality Disorder (OSPD)
## Footnote
This includes Unspecified Personality Disorder (UPD) and was previously referred to as PDNOS.
99
Why do individuals with personality disorders often not seek treatment?
They are largely comfortable with their characteristic behaviors
## Footnote
Many lack insight into the maladaptivity of their personality.
100
What is a common treatment-seeking behavior for individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder?
Seeking treatment to alleviate severe emotional distress
## Footnote
They often experience high levels of neuroticism.
101
Which personality disorder traits are often associated with narcissism?
* Arrogance
* Need for admiration
* Lack of empathy
## Footnote
Narcissistic Personality Disorder includes traits from multiple domains.
102
What is a key characteristic of Schizotypal Personality Disorder?
Eccentricity and unconventional thoughts
## Footnote
It includes traits from neuroticism, introversion, and antagonism.
