Psychopharmacology Flashcards
(85 cards)
1
Q
Cytochrome p450
Dexamethasone usually induces
A
CYP2D6
2
Q
Cytochrome p450
Cigarette smoke usually induces
A
CYP1A2
3
Q
Cytochrome p450
Barbiturates usually induce
A
CYP3A4
4
Q
Cytochrome p450
St John’s Wort usually induces
A
CYP3A4
5
Q
Cytochrome p450
Primarily metabolises Fluvoxamine
A
CYP1A2
6
Q
Cytochrome p450
Primarily metabolises Risperidone
A
CYP2D6
7
Q
Cytochrome p450
Primarily metabolises Carbamazepine
A
CYP3A4
8
Q
Cytochrome p450
Responsible for the interaction of Clozapine and Fluvoxamine
A
CYP1A2
9
Q
Cytochrome p450
Metabolises Venlafaxine to Desvenlafaxine
A
CYP2D6
10
Q
Cytochrome p450
Inhibited by grapefruit juice
A
CYP3A4
11
Q
Cytochrome p450
Induced by Mondafinil
A
CYP1A2
12
Q
Cytochrome p450
Induced by Carbamazepine
A
CYP2C19
13
Q
CYP1A2 Substrates
A
Amitriptyline Clomipramine Imipramine Agomelatin Clozapine Olanzapine Haloperidol Caffeine Fluvoxamine
14
Q
CYP1A2 Inhibitors
A
Fluvoxamine Herbal teas Grapefruit juice Cumin Turmeric
15
Q
CYP1A2 Inducers
A
Tobacco Broccoli, brussel sprouts, chargrilled meat, cauliflower Insulin Modafanil Omeptrazil
16
Q
CYP2C19 Substrates
A
TCAs SSRIs Anti epileptics (phenytoin and phenobarbital) Diazepam Gliclazide PPIs
17
Q
CYP2C19 Inhibitors
A
Mocobemide
Fluvoxamine
Fluoxetine
18
Q
CYP2C19 Weak Inhibitors
A
Topiramate
Valproate
Carbamazepine
19
Q
CYP2C19 Inducers
A
Carbamazepine
Norethisterone
Prednisone
20
Q
CYP2C9 Substrates
A
NSAIDS Phenytoin Sulfonylureas Amitryptiline Fluoxetine
21
Q
CYP2C9 Inhibitors
A
Fluconazole Miconazole Ginkgo St John's Word Valproate Fluvoxamine Sertraline
22
Q
CYP2C9 Inducers
A
Rifampicin
23
Q
CYP2D6
Substrates
A
All TCAs Most SSRIs Venlafaxine Mianserin Opioids Many antipsychotics Beta blockers Amphetamine Atomoxetine Duloxetine Metoclopramide
24
Q
CYP2D6 Inhibitors
A
Bupropion Ritonavir Duloxetine Antipsychotics Antihistamines Some SSRIs Clomipramine Methadone Moclobemide
25
CYP2D6 Inducers
Dexamethasone
| Rifampicin
26
CYP3A4 Substrates
```
Immunosuppressants
Chemotherapy agents
Azalea anti-fungals
Macrolide's
TCAs
SSRIs
Mirtazapine
Reboxetine
Venlafaxine
Trazodone
Buspirone
Antipsychotics
Opiates
Benzos
Donepezil
```
27
CYP3A4 Inhibitors
```
Protease inhibitors
Macrolide's
Fluoxetine
Fluvoxamine
Star fruit
Milk thistle
Ginkgo
Grapefruit juice
```
28
CYP3A4 Inducers
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
St John's Wort
Modafanil
29
What is the Australian TGA classification of Clozapine
Schedule 4
30
What is the Australian TGA classification of Paliperidone
Schedule 4
31
What is the Australian TGA classification of diphenhydramine
Schedule 3
32
What is the Australian TGA classification of Paladine Forte
Schedule 4
33
What is the recommended dose for a 28 year old female with BPAD being started on Lamotrigine
25mg every 2 days
34
What is the recommended dose for a 32 year old man with Schizophrenia being commenced on Clozapine
12.5mg
35
What is the recommended dose for a 78 year old woman with dementia and significant behavioural disturbance being commenced on risperidone
0.25mg BD
36
What is the recommended dose for a 32 year old man with Schizophrenia being commenced on paliperidone depot having had no reaction to oral paliperidone
150mg
37
What is the usually fortnightly dose of Zuclopenthixol detonate for a 38 year old man with Schizophrenia
200mg
38
What is the usual monthly dose of Olanzapine pamoate for a 41 year old female with Schizophrenia
405mg
39
What is the usual fortnightly dose of Risperidone Consta for a 27 year old man with Schizophrenia
50mg
40
What is the dose of Ziprasidone IM for an acutely disturbed 23 year old male with first episode psychosis
20mg
41
A patient with mania becomes toxic on 1200mg lithium carbonate after a dose increase
Narrow therapeutic index
42
Better clinical response to an IM depot rather than PO phenothiazine
First pass effect
43
Amisulpride is a
Substituted benzamide
44
Flupenthixol is a
Thioxanthine
45
Zuclopenthixol is a
Thioxanthine
46
Chlorpromazine
Aliphatic phenothiazine
47
Fluphenazine is a
Piperazine phenothiazine
48
Droperidol is an
Butyrophenone
49
Risperidone is a
Pyridopyrimidine
50
Cytochrome P450
A patient on Sertraline becomes more depressed when carbamazepine is added as a mood stabiliser
CYP2B6 induction
51
An excitatory signal is received at the dendrite of a pyramidal glutamate neutron. When the signal is release from the incoming presynaptic dopaminergic axon, it is received as an inhibitory signal. However, the signal is not integrated properly with other incoming signals to that neuron. Which is the most likely site at which the error of integrating this signal with other incoming signals occurred?
Soma
52
Soma
Integrates chemical encoding of signal transduction from all incoming signals - improper signal integration is most likely at this site
53
Dendritic membrane
The site of signal detection
54
Axonal zone
The site of signal propagation
55
Presynaptic zone
The site of signal output
56
A receptor synthesised wth an erroneous amino acid sequence is sent via fast anterograde transport to its axonal destination. If you want to find the original site of error, which organelle would you elect to observe
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
57
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Also known as membrane-bound ribosomes, is the site of integral protein synthesis, These proteins are destined for membrane insertion and travel via fast transport
58
Mitochondria
Important energy sources to fuel cellular transport
59
Golgi apparatus
Is the place to which integral proteins are sent for modification after synthesis
60
Free polysomes
Also known as non-membrane bound ribosomes, are the site of peripheral protein synthesis
61
What channels are involved in regulating neurotransmission via excitation-secretion coupling
Both Voltage sensitive sodium channels and voltage sensitive calcium channels
62
Agonists cause ligand-gated ion channels to
Open more frequently
63
Presynaptic reuptake transports are a major method of inactivation for
Serotonin and GABA
64
Histamine
Does not have a known presynaptic reuptake transporter and is inactivated via enzymatic degradation
65
Neupeptides
Do not have a known presynaptic reuptake transporter and is inactivated via enzymatic degradation
66
A neuron is infected with a toxin and causes a rather sudden inflammatory reaction. You detect a high concentration of cytokines in the surrounding area. Which process has taken place?
Necrosis
67
Synaptogensis
The process of forming synapses
68
Exicotoxicity
The process of synaptic damage from over excitation which can result in cell death
69
Apoptosis
Triggered by a cell's own genetic machinery cause the cell to fade away
70
Neurogenesis
The process of forming neutrons
71
Communication between human CNS neutrons at synapsis is
Chemical.
Although electrical communication occurs within neutrons during the propagation of an action potential, communication at synapses is chemical
72
A serotonin molecule binds to a 5HT2A receptor causing electrical impulses to be sent down a GABA neurones axonal terminal, eventually releasing GABA to the GABAa receptor of its postsynaptic neuron. What type of neurotransmission does this describe?
Classic synaptic neurotransmission
73
Retrograde neurotransmission
Reverse neurotransmission process in which the postsynaptic neuron communicates with the presynaptic neuron and this can occur with endocannabinoids, nitric acid and nerve growth factors
74
Volume neurotransmission
Is the process of neurotransmission without a synapse
75
Signal transduction cascade
Is the larger process of neurocommunication that involves long strings of chemical and ionic signals
76
A receptor with four-transmembrane regions changes conformation as GABA binds
Ligand-Gated ion channel
77
Voltage sensitive ion channels
Six-transmembrane region ion channels that open and close under instruction from charges or voltages as determined by ion flow
78
Presynaptic transporters
Twelve-transmembrane region transporters that bind to neurotransmitters to transport them across the presynaptic membrane
79
The direct role of transcription factors is to
Influence gene expression
Transcription factors are proteins that bind to promoter sequences of DNA to turn gene expression on and off
80
What is the most likely impetus for up regulation of D2 receptors on a stratal dopamine neuron
A D2 antagonist persistently binds to the receptor
Agonists can mimic neurotransmitter actions, potentially signally the neuron to down regulate synthesis of that receptor type
81
hat is the correct order and direction of ion flow into and out of a neuron experiencing an action potention
Sodium in
Calcium in
Potassium out
82
What is epigenetics
Heritable trait not coded for by a change in DNA sequence
This is a parallel process that determines whether a given gene is expressed into its RNA or is silenced
83
NMDA receptions are activated by
Glutamate, glycine and depolarisations
In resting state, NMDA receptors are blocked by magnesium
NMDA receptors are liana-gated ion channels that regular excitatory post-synaptic neurotransmission triggered by glutamate. Opening of NMDA receptors requires the presence of both glutamate and glycine.
When magnesium is bound, depolarisation must remove magnesium while both glutamate and glycine are bound to their sites in order for the NMDA channel to open
84
Neurogenesis has recently been discovered to occur in adults
In the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and in the olfactory bulb
85
In a G-protein linked signal transduction cascade, the second messenger can be synthesised
In the postsynaptic neuron
