PSYU2235 Developmental Psych

Question 1

Week 2 What is epigenetics?

Answer 1

The study of heritable changes in gene expression or cellular phenotype caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence. Epigenetic marks include covalent DNA modifications and posttranslational histone modifications.

Question 2

Week 1 What are the 3 goals of developmental psychology?

Answer 2

1. To describe:
   -Normal development
   -Individual differences
2. To explain - individual differences
3. Optimise - to make a difference to peoples live trajectories

Question 3

Week 2 Discuss the importance of understanding the interaction between genes and the environment during prenatal development in the context of developmental psychology.

Answer 3

Answer: This question would require students to explore how genetic predispositions and environmental factors, such as maternal health, nutrition, and stress, interact to influence development before birth. Students should discuss the implications of this interaction for later cognitive, emotional, and physical development, as well as the relevance of this understanding for developmental psychology.

Question 4

Week 2 What are genes?

A) The process by which cells divide
B) Units of hereditary information
C) A type of protein in the body
D) Cells that carry oxygen

Answer 4

B

Question 5

Week 2 Which of the following best describes the term “Genome”?

A) A cell organelle
B) A type of protein
C) An algorithm or code
D) A segment of RNA

Answer 5

C

Question 6

Week 2 What are genes comprised of?

A) Proteins
B) RNA
C) Chromosomes
D) Short segments of DNA

Answer 6

D

Question 7

Week 2 Where are genes located within a cell?

A) Mitochondria
B) Nucleus
C) Chromosomes
D) Ribosomes

Answer 7

C

Question 8

Week 2 How many chromosomes do humans have?

A) 23
B) 46
C) 22
D) 24

Answer 8

B

Question 9

Week 2 What does a pair of sex chromosomes determine?

A) Blood type
B) Eye colour
C) Gender
D) Height

Answer 9

C

Question 10

Week 2 What are the two types of chromosomes found in human cells?

A) Autosomes and mitochondria
B) Autosomes and sex chromosomes
C) Ribosomes and autosomes
D) Mitochondria and ribosomes

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Week 2 How are genes inherited from parents?

A) All genes come from the mother
B) All genes come from the father
C) Genes are inherited in pairs, one from each parent
D) Genes are only inherited from the dominant parent

Answer 11

C

Question 12

Week 2 What is the primary purpose of mitosis?

A) Sexual reproduction
B) Repair of damaged tissues
C) Production of energy
D) Formation of sperm and ova

Answer 12

B

Question 13

WEEK 2 What is the result of mitosis in terms of cell replication?

A) One single larger cell
B) Two identical cells
C) Four different cells
D) Two cells with different genetic information

Answer 13

B

Question 14

WEEK 2 How many sets of chromosomes does each cell have after mitosis?

A) One set of chromosomes
B) Two sets of chromosomes
C) Four sets of chromosomes
D) Half a set of chromosomes

Answer 14

B

Question 15

WEEK 2 Which of the following processes involves mitosis?

A) Formation of gametes (sperm and egg cells)
B) Fertilization
C) Growth and repair of aging tissues
D) Crossing over of chromosomes

Answer 15

C

Question 16

WEEK 2 What is the main purpose of meiosis?

A) Growth and repair of tissues
B) Energy production
C) Sexual reproduction
D) Asexual reproduction

Answer 16

C

Question 17

WEEK 2 How many cells are produced at the end of meiosis?

A) Two cells with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell
B) Four cells, each with half the number of chromosomes of the original cell
C) Two identical cells
D) One cell with double the number of chromosomes

Answer 17

B

Question 18

WEEK 2 What happens during fertilization?

A) The number of chromosomes in the zygote is halved
B) The number of chromosomes in the zygote doubles
C) Chromosome pairs come together to form a zygote
D) The zygote splits into two identical cells

Answer 18

C

Question 19

WEEK 2 What is the significance of “crossing over” during meiosis?

A) It ensures that each daughter cell is identical to the parent cell
B) It creates cells with double the number of chromosomes
C) It results in a unique mixture of maternal and paternal DNA in each chromosome pair
D) It prevents the mixing of genetic information between the parents

Answer 19

C

Question 20

WEEK 2 What is unique about each chromosome pair in the fertilized egg (zygote)?

A) Each pair is identical to one parent
B) Each pair is a unique mixture of maternal and paternal DNA
C) Each pair only contains maternal DNA
D) Each pair only contains paternal DNA

Answer 20

B

Question 21

WEEK 2 What is the chromosome count in a zygote after fertilization?

A) 23 chromosomes
B) 23 pairs of chromosomes
C) 46 single chromosomes
D) 92 chromosomes

Answer 21

B

Question 22

Week 2 Difference between meiosis and mitosis

Answer 22

The key differences between meiosis and mitosis lie in their purpose, process, and outcomes. Here’s a summary:

Mitosis
Purpose: Mitosis is the process of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. It is used for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction in somatic (non-reproductive) cells.
Process:
A single cell undergoes one division cycle, resulting in two identical cells.
Each daughter cell has the full set of chromosomes (diploid, 2n), which means they have two sets of chromosomes (one from each parent).
Outcome:
Two genetically identical cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell (typically 46 in humans).
Role: Important for general growth, tissue repair, and replacement of old cells.

Meiosis
Purpose: Meiosis is a special type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and ova) for sexual reproduction. It reduces the chromosome number by half to create cells with only one set of chromosomes (haploid).
Process:
Involves two division cycles (Meiosis I and Meiosis II).
The first division (Meiosis I) separates homologous chromosomes, while the second division (Meiosis II) separates sister chromatids, leading to four non-identical cells.
Each resulting cell has half the number of chromosomes (haploid, n) compared to the original cell.
Outcome:
Four genetically unique cells, each with half the number of chromosomes of the original cell (23 in humans).
Role: Essential for sexual reproduction, contributing to genetic diversity through recombination and the formation of unique gametes.

Summary
Mitosis produces two identical diploid cells, maintaining the chromosome number, and is used for growth and repair.
Meiosis produces four genetically unique haploid cells, reducing the chromosome number by half, and is used for sexual reproduction.

Question 23

WEEK 2 What is a mutation in the context of meiosis or mitosis?

A) A normal and expected outcome of cell division
B) A random mixing of alleles
C) An error in the process of cell division
D) The pairing of dominant and recessive genes

Answer 23

C

Question 24

WEEK 2 In the dominant-recessive gene principle, how many hereditary elements are there for each trait?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Answer 24

B

Question 25

WEEK 2 What are the two alternate forms of the same gene called? A) Chromosomes B) Alleles C) Nucleotides D) Zygotes

Answer 25

B

Question 26

WEEK 2 From where do these two hereditary elements come? A) Both from the male parent B) Both from the female parent C) One from each parent D) They are formed randomly

Answer 26

C

Question 27

WEEK 2 What happens if an individual has one dominant allele and one recessive allele for a trait? A) The recessive allele is always expressed B) The dominant allele overrides the effect of the recessive allele C) Both alleles are expressed equally D) The individual shows a mixture of both traits

Answer 27

B

Question 28

WEEK 2 Under what condition are recessive genes expressed? A) When both alleles are dominant B) When both parents carry the recessive gene C) When there is one dominant and one recessive allele D) When the dominant allele is inactive

Answer 28

B

Question 29

WEEK 2 What is the primary purpose of prenatal diagnosis and genetic counselling? A) To produce perfect humans B) To ensure that only dominant genes are passed on C) To allow early treatment and facilitate informed decision making D) To eliminate recessive genes from the population

Answer 29

C

Question 30

WEEK 2 Which statement best describes the role of genetic counseling? A) It is solely focused on preventing genetic mutations B) It ensures that all children will be born without genetic disorders C) It helps families plan and prepare for a child with a health problem D) It guarantees the birth of a genetically "perfect" child

Answer 30

C

Question 31

WEEK 2 Which of the following statements about the dominant-recessive gene principle is correct? A) Recessive genes are expressed more frequently than dominant genes B) Dominant genes are only expressed if both alleles are dominant C) A single dominant allele can override the effect of a recessive allele D) Both dominant and recessive genes are always expressed equally

Answer 31

C

Question 32

WEEK 2 What is not a goal of genetic counselling and prenatal diagnosis? A) To facilitate planning for a child with a health problem B) To allow early treatment as appropriate C) To produce perfect humans D) To facilitate informed decision making

Answer 32

C

Question 33

WEEK 2 What is the main focus of behavioral genetics? A) The study of gene-environment contributions in humans B) The study of behavioral patterns in animals C) The study of physical traits passed from parents to offspring D) The study of environmental impacts on plants

Answer 33

A

Question 34

WEEK 2 Which methods are commonly used in behavioural genetics to study gene-environment contributions? A) Clinical trials, surveys, and experiments B) Kinship studies, twin studies, and adoption studies C) Observation, interviews, and case studies D) Genetic engineering, DNA sequencing, and brain scans

Answer 34

B

Question 35

WEEK 2 What is epigenetics? A) The study of genetic inheritance B) The study of changes in phenotype or gene expression caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence C) The study of how genes are passed from parents to offspring D) The study of genetic mutations

Answer 35

B

Question 36

WEEK 2 How can environmental events affect genes? A) By changing the DNA sequence B) By turning genes on or off C) By completely eliminating genes D) By increasing the number of genes

Answer 36

B

Question 37

What is a phenotype? A) The genetic makeup of an organism B) The physical appearance or expression of a gene C) The process by which genes are inherited D) The environment in which an organism lives

Answer 37

B

Question 38

What is meant by "genes do not complete their work before birth"? A) Genes are only active during embryonic development B) Genes continue to be influenced and expressed throughout an individual's lifespan C) Genes are inactive until birth D) Genes are fully expressed only in adulthood

Answer 38

B

Question 39

Which type of gene-environment correlation occurs when a child passively receives correlated genes and environment from their parents? A) Active (niche-picking) B) Evocative C) Passive D) Reactive

Answer 39

C

Question 40

Which type of gene-environment correlation involves a child eliciting reactions from parents that provide environments correlated with the child's genes? A) Active (niche-picking) B) Evocative C) Passive D) Reactive

Answer 40

B

Question 41

WEEK 2 Which type of gene-environment correlation involves a child's genes leading them to actively seek out correlated environmental experiences? A) Active (niche-picking) B) Evocative C) Passive D) Reactive

Answer 41

A

Question 42

WEEK 2 What is the important question regarding heredity and environment interactions? A) How much is explained by genes vs environment? B) How do heredity and environment work together? C) How many genes are inherited from each parent? D) How do environmental factors influence DNA sequences?

Answer 42

B

Question 43

WEEK 2 An example of passive gene-environment correlation is: A) A child with musical parents receiving both musical genes and a musical environment B) Parents noticing musical ability in a child and providing musical input C) A child seeking out a conservatorium for high school D) A child saving money for music lessons

Answer 43

A

Question 44

WEEK 2 An example of evocative gene-environment correlation is: A) A child with musical parents receiving both musical genes and a musical environment B) Parents noticing musical ability in a child and providing musical input C) A child seeking out a conservatorium for high school D) A child saving money for music lessons

Answer 44

B

Question 45

WEEK 2 Which of the following is a maternal chronic illness that can affect prenatal development? A) Diabetes B) Asthma C) Arthritis D) Flu

Answer 45

A

Question 46

WEEK 2 What is a teratogen? A) A genetic mutation B) An agent that causes a birth defect C) A prenatal vitamin D) A type of ultrasound

Answer 46

B

Question 47

WEEK 2 At what stage does the fetus establish daily circadian rhythms? A) 12 weeks B) 14 weeks C) 24 weeks D) 28 weeks

Answer 47

D

Question 48

WEEK 2 What is the significance of the age of the mother or father at the time of conception? A) It determines the gender of the baby B) It influences the risk of genetic mutations C) It affects the length of the pregnancy D) It impacts the baby's weight at birth

Answer 48

B

Question 49

WEEK 2 Which period is known as the most rapid period of development in prenatal stages? A) Germinal period B) Embryonic period C) Fetal period D) Postnatal period

Answer 49

B

Question 50

WEEK 2 Which environmental hazard is known to be a teratogen? A) Clean water B) Fresh air C) Radiation D) Healthy diet

Answer 50

C

Question 51

WEEK 2 Which substance is NOT considered a teratogen? A) Alcohol B) Tobacco C) Caffeine D) Illicit drugs

Answer 51

C

Question 52

WEEK 2 What is one of the health-promoting behaviors for pregnant women? A) Smoking B) Drinking alcohol C) Relaxation D) Skipping meals

Answer 52

C

Question 53

WEEK 2 At what stage of prenatal development does implantation occur? A) Germinal period B) Embryonic period C) Fetal period D) Postnatal period

Answer 53

A

Question 54

WEEK 2 What is the concept of fetal attachment? A) Establishing a relationship with the fetus through behaviors B) Taking prenatal vitamins C) Avoiding ultrasound scans D) Ignoring the unborn baby

Answer 54

A

Question 55

WEEK 2 Which phase of prenatal development is characterized by the formation of the placenta? A) Germinal period B) Embryonic period C) Fetal period D) Postnatal period

Answer 55

B

Question 56

WEEK 2 How can prenatal stress impact fetal development? A) Decreases blood flow to the uterus, impacting fetal growth B) Enhances fetal growth C) Has no effect on fetal development D) Reduces maternal heart rate

Answer 56

A

Question 57

WEEK 2 WHAT IS BARKERS HYPOTHESIS

Answer 57

The Barker hypothesis implicates the fetal in-utero environment as a significant determinant of risk for major chronic diseases, such as cardiovascular disease, stroke, anxiety, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and obesity later in life.

Question 58

WEEK 2 WHAT IS HABITUATION?

Answer 58

the diminishing of an innate response to a frequently repeated stimulus. "habituation was leading to a marked drop in arousal level in these subjects"

Question 59

WEEK 3 Question: What are the three stages of labour in the birth process?

Answer 59

The three stages of labor are: 1st Stage: Contractions of the uterus to dilate the cervix. 2nd Stage: Pushing the baby through the birth canal, also known as "crowning." 3rd Stage: Expelling the placenta.

Question 60

WEEK 3 What is the rate of Caesarean delivery in Australia, and how does it compare to New Zealand?

Answer 60

Australia has the highest rate of Caesarean delivery in the world, with 32% of all births being Caesarean, compared to 20% in New Zealand.

Question 61

WEEK 3 What are some birth risks to the infant?

Answer 61

Some birth risks to the infant include: Prematurity: Baby born before lungs and sucking are fully mature. Hypoxia: Caused by labour complications such as "failure to progress" or posterior presentation.

Question 62

WEEK 3 How do contractions and expulsion during childbirth affect the baby?

Answer 62

Contractions and expulsion during childbirth cause moderate stress, which stimulates the baby’s respiratory function. However, complications such as anoxia can occur if there is a cord tangle or if the baby's position is problematic.

Question 63

WEEK 3 What are the effects of maternal pain relief drugs during labor on the infant?

Answer 63

Maternal pain relief drugs, such as morphine derivatives, can have a sedative effect on the infant's respiratory function. Additionally, maternal distress and high blood pressure during childbirth can affect the baby's heart rate.

Question 64

WEEK 3 What is a common outcome of using epidural anaesthesia during childbirth?

Answer 64

The use of epidural anaesthesia often results in the mother not actively pushing the baby out, which increases the likelihood of an instrumental delivery.

Question 65

WEEK 3 What are some early caretaking practices for newborns?

Answer 65

Early caretaking practices for newborns include co-sleeping or rooming in with the parents versus placing the baby in nurseries.

Question 66

WEEK 3 What does the APGAR test assess in newborns?

Answer 66

The APGAR test assesses the following in newborns: Appearance (skin color) Pulse (heart rate) Grimace response (reflexes) Activity (muscle tone) Respiration (breathing rate and effort)

Question 67

WEEK 3 Identifying at risk newborns, list the physical risks:

Answer 67

Physical Risk Factors: Prematurity Low birth weight -Linked to low SES -Quality of nutrition, smoking/drugs in pregnancy, access to antenatal care & education -Linked to multiple birth Respiratory Distress – anoxia

Question 68

WEEK 3 Which of the following is an example of a risk factor within the child or environment that can stress or impair adaptive functioning? A) Supportive parenting B) Good schools C) Difficult temperament D) Economic advantage

Answer 68

C

Question 69

WEEK 3 According to the Cumulative Stress Model, when do problem outcomes occur? A) When a single major stressor is present B) When stressors are mitigated by protective factors C) When stressors add together and exceed a threshold D) When there are no stressors present

Answer 69

C

Question 70

WEEK 3 What does ontogenic development refer to? A) Community and family support B) An individual’s biological characteristics and developmental history C) Socioeconomic status D) Availability of good schools

Answer 70

B

Question 71

WEEK 3 Which of the following is considered a protective factor that can reduce the negative impact of stressors? A) Postnatal depression in a parent B) Mental illness in a parent C) Early discharge from the hospital D) Supportive responsive parenting

Answer 71

D

Question 72

WEEK 3 What does the Additive Main Effects Model suggest about developmental outcomes? A) They are solely the result of stressors B) They are solely the result of protective factors C) They result from the combined effects of stressors and protective factors D) They are not influenced by stressors or protective factors

Answer 72

C

Question 73

WEEK 3 What does sensorimotor integration refer to? A) The suppression of sensory inputs B) The combination of sensory inputs with motor outputs C) The separation of motor control from sensory feedback D) The automatic generation of motor outputs without sensory input

Answer 73

Answer: B) The combination of sensory inputs with motor outputs

Question 74

WEEK 3 Reflexes in early development are primarily: A) Voluntary responses to stimuli B) Automatic, involuntary, stereotyped responses to external stimulation C) Complex, learned behaviors D) Always permanent and never superseded by voluntary control

Answer 74

Answer: B) Automatic, involuntary, stereotyped responses to external stimulation

Question 75

WEEK 3 By what age are most primitive reflexes integrated? A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) 12 months

Answer 75

B

Question 76

WEEK 3 Which developmental principle describes the progression from gross (global) to fine (differentiated) motor skills? A) Cephalocaudal B) Proximo-distal C) Ortho-genetic D) Gross-to-Fine Principle

Answer 76

C

Question 77

WEEK 3 The principle of cephalocaudal development refers to: A) Development from head to feet B) Development from feet to head C) Development from core to extremities D) Development from fine to gross motor skills

Answer 77

A

Question 78

WEEK 3 What does proximo-distal development refer to? A) Development from gross to fine motor skills B) Development from the head down to the toes C) Development from the core to the extremities D) Development of reflexes into voluntary movements

Answer 78

C

Question 79

WEEK 3 What is the significance of head control in prone position in motor development? A) It indicates advanced fine motor skills B) It is an early gross motor milestone C) It is not related to gross motor milestones D) It only occurs after a child begins to walk

Answer 79

B

Question 80

WEEK 3 Why is floor time important for a child's development? A) It helps develop fine motor skills only B) It is irrelevant to motor development C) It supports gross motor milestones like propping and crawling D) It restricts motor development by limiting movement

Answer 80

C

Question 81

WEEK 3 What underpins fine motor development according to the information provided? A) Head control alone B) Postural stability and core strength C) Reflex integration only D) Sensory inputs without motor outputs

Answer 81

B

Question 82

WEEK 3 What motor milestone is typically achieved by age 3? A) Walking B) Running, standing on one leg, hopping C) Rolling over D) Walking backwards and changing direction quickly

Answer 82

B

Question 83

WEEK 3 How do grasp reflexes progress in motor development? A) From voluntary to reflexive B) From fine to gross C) From gross to fine, with voluntary release D) They remain reflexive throughout life

Answer 83

C

Question 84

WEEK 3 How does practice and environment affect motor development? A) They do not have any effect on motor development B) They influence the timing of motor milestone achievement C) They completely determine motor development D) They only affect motor development in extreme cases

Answer 84

B

Question 85

WEEK 3 What does intermodal (cross-modal) perception involve? A) Combining different sensations to inform perceptions B) Ignoring all sensory inputs to focus on motor tasks C) Separating sensory inputs for more refined perception D) Using only visual input for motor development

Answer 85

A

Question 86

WEEK 3 Why is vision considered fundamental in motor development? A) It is the only sensory process involved in motor development B) It underpins postural reflexes and motor coordination C) It is irrelevant to motor development D) It only becomes important after infancy

Answer 86

B

Question 87

WEEK 3 What is the purpose of early intervention in motor development? A) To accelerate natural motor development B) To provide compensatory activities for children with developmental motor problems C) To replace sensory inputs with motor outputs D) To prevent any motor development issues from arising

Answer 87

B

Question 88

WEEK 3 At what age do neonates typically show a preference for their mother’s voice? A) 1 day after birth B) 4 days after birth C) 2 weeks after birth D) 1 month after birth

Answer 88

B

Question 89

WEEK 3 The "Cat in the Hat" study demonstrated that: A) Infants cannot recognize familiar stories B) Newborns are indifferent to their mother's voice C) Fetuses can recognize stories heard during pregnancy D) Infants prefer unfamiliar stories

Answer 89

C

Question 90

WEEK 3 By what age can infants discriminate pitch, tempo, contour, rhythm, and melody in music? A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) 12 months

Answer 90

B

Question 91

WEEK 3 The "Pa… Ba" experiment is used to study: A) Phoneme discrimination in infants B) Sound localization in newborns C) Music preference in infants D) Speech production in toddlers

Answer 91

A

Question 92

WEEK 3 What is true about newborns' ability to localize sounds? A) Newborns cannot localize sounds B) Newborns only localize high-pitched sounds C) Newborns can localize sounds from birth D) Sound localization develops after 6 months

Answer 92

C

Question 93

WEEK 3 What do newborns prefer in terms of sound? A) Random noise B) High-pitched, patterned sounds similar to human voices C) Low-pitched noises D) Silence

Answer 93

B

Question 94

WEEK 3 At what age do infants begin to distinguish between different sounds? A) 1 month B) 3 months C) 6 months D) 12 months

Answer 94

A

Question 95

WEEK 3 What is true about newborns' sense of smell (olfaction)? A) Newborns have poor olfactory perception B) Newborns prefer unfamiliar smells C) Newborns have highly acute olfaction D) Newborns cannot distinguish between different smells

Answer 95

C

Question 96

WEEK 3 Which taste does a newborn infant typically express satisfaction with? A) Bitter B) Sour C) Sweet D) Salty

Answer 96

C

Question 97

WEEK 3 By 6 days old, how do infants respond to their mother’s breast pad compared to another’s? A) They show no preference B) They turn away from their mother’s breast pad C) They turn towards their own mother’s breast pad D) They randomly turn to any breast pad

Answer 97

C

Question 98

WEEK 3 What type of facial expression do newborns typically show when they taste something sour? A) Smile and satisfaction B) Lip-pursing, nose wrinkling, and eye blinking C) Neutral expression D) Wide-open mouth and excitement

Answer 98

B

Question 99

WEEK 3 How do newborns typically respond to bitter tastes? A) With a smile B) By sucking eagerly C) With expressions of dislike and vomiting movements D) By showing no reaction

Answer 99

C

Question 100

WEEK 3 At what age does manual tactile exploration begin to develop in infants? A) At birth B) By 2 months C) By 4 months D) By 6 months

Answer 100

C

Question 101

WEEK 3 What did Rebecca Slater's research suggest about infants' perception of pain? A) Infants do not feel pain B) Infants feel less pain than adults C) Infants feel pain, and their threshold may be lower than adults D) Infants’ pain threshold is the same as adults

Answer 101

C

Question 102

WEEK 3 What type of interaction do infants engage in to explore their environment? A) Only visual exploration B) Only auditory exploration C) A combination of oral, tactile, and visual exploration D) Only motor exploration

Answer 102

C

Question 103

WEEK 3 The classic pacifier experiment demonstrated that infants can: A) Only recognize objects by sight B) Match objects they have mouthed with visual images C) Ignore tactile input when presented with visual stimuli D) Distinguish objects only by sound

Answer 103

B

Question 104

WEEK 3 What is the function of crying in infants? A) To communicate discomfort or need B) To practice vocalization C) To avoid interaction D) To regulate sleep patterns

Answer 104

A

Question 105

WEEK 3 What is a key developmental task in the first three months related to sleep? A) Walking independently B) Developing a preference for daytime sleep C) Establishing an organized sleep-wake pattern D) Learning to sleep without interruptions

Answer 105

C

Question 106

WEEK 3 How do young infants' sleep patterns change as they develop? A) They start sleeping more during the day B) REM sleep decreases as they develop C) They sleep less at night as they grow D) Their sleep patterns remain the same

Answer 106

B

Question 107

WEEK 3 What is the function of adults' stylized voices and facial expressions when interacting with babies? A) To confuse infants B) To entertain themselves C) To regulate and enhance communication with infants D) To distract infants from crying

Answer 107

C

Question 108

WEEK 3 What is a common feature of adults' speech when talking to infants? A) Monotone voice B) Slow speed with exaggerated pitch and loudness changes C) Fast and complex speech D) Minimal facial expressions

Answer 108

B

Question 109

WEEK 3 Peek-a-boo games played with babies are believed to: A) Have no effect on development B) Only provide entertainment C) Strengthen visual tracking and promote social development D) Discourage object permanence understanding

Answer 109

C

Question 110

WEEK 3 Synchronised interactions between adults and infants serve to: A) Overstimulate the infant B) Disorganize the infant's behaviour C) Elicit infant attention and aid in behaviour organization D) Encourage independent behaviour from infancy

Answer 110

C

Question 111

WEEK 3 What is affect attunement in parent-infant interaction? A) Mimicking the infant’s behavior exactly B) Matching the quality of a shared affect state without imitating the exact behavior C) Ignoring the infant’s affective state D) Overloading the infant with different emotions

Answer 111

B

Question 112

WEEK 3 What is the purpose of turn-taking and reciprocity in infant communication? A) To delay communication development B) To allow infants to control the interaction C) To structure and organize communication between mother and infant D) To prevent infants from understanding language

Answer 112

C

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