pt 3 Flashcards

(107 cards)

1
Q

What is the main goal of Chest Physiotherapy (CPT)?

A

To help mobilize or eliminate secretions, re-expand lung tissue, and promote efficient respiratory muscle use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name four techniques used in Chest Physiotherapy.

A

Aerosol therapy, postural drainage, manual percussion and vibration of the chest, and breathing and coughing exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A suspension of very fine liquid or solid particles in a gas

A

aerosol therapy?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

two methods of aerosol therapy

A

Nebulization and Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A procedure that uses an air compressor to force air through liquid medication, turning it into a fine mist for breathing

A

Nebulization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A small, hand-held device filled with medicine that delivers a specific amount of medication through the mouth and into the lungs

A

Metered-Dose Inhaler (MDI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What add-on device can help with MDI use?

A

A spacer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

It helps with coordination of breathing and aerosol delivery, and allows aerosolised particles to remain in suspension longer

A

MDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What percentage of medication from aerosol therapy reaches the lungs?

A

Approximately 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

four types of medications used in aerosol therapy.

A

Bronchodilators, steroids, antibiotics, and mucolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

two examples of bronchodilators.

A

Anticholinergics and Beta 2 Agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

liquefies respiratory secretions, decreasing their tenacity and viscosity

A

mucolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the proper position for a child during nebulization.

A

Semi-Fowler’s or Fowler’s position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How should a child breathe during nebulization with a mask?

A

Slowly and deeply through an open mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long does a typical nebulization treatment last?

A

10-15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What technique can be used during or after nebulisation to further help mobilize secretions?

A

Percussion or clapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should be assessed before and after aerosol treatments?

A

Breath sounds and work of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Uses gravity to help move peripheral pulmonary secretions into the bronchi and trachea for expectoration

A

postural drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is postural drainage indicated?

A

When excessive fluid or mucus in the bronchi is not being removed by normal ciliary activity and cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name two conditions where postural drainage can be effective in children.

A

Cystic fibrosis and bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of medication may be given before postural drainage?

A

bronchodilator or nebulization therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When should postural drainage be performed in relation to meals?

A

Before meals or 1.5 to 2 hours after meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How often is postural drainage typically carried out?

A

Three or four times daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How long does a postural drainage treatment usually last?

A

20 to 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Using cupped hands to clap on the chest
percussion
26
What sound should percussion make?
A "popping," hollow sound
27
Where should percussion be performed?
over the rib cage only
28
Done manually using hands or a motorised device; used with percussion or as an alternative in patients with chest trauma, severe pain, or who are frail
vibration
29
Name three types of breathing exercises
Diaphragmatic breathing, pursed-lip breathing, and huffing technique
30
Where should you avoid percussing?
Over the spine or internal organs
31
What should the child wear during chest physiotherapy?
lightweight shirt or infant blanket
32
What two types of light does a pulse oximeter emit?
Red and infrared
33
How does oxygen saturation affect light absorption in pulse oximetry?
Hemoglobin saturated with oxygen (oxyhemoglobin) absorbs more infrared light than hemoglobin not saturated with oxygen (deoxyhemoglobin)
34
List five clinical signs of low oxygen saturation in newborns.
Nasal flaring, subcostal retractions, suprasternal retractions, intercostal retractions, grunting, cyanosis, inability to feed
35
What is the normal oxygen saturation range?
97%-100%
36
What factors can affect the accuracy of pulse oximetry?
Movement, temperature, and nail polish
37
What is the minimum flow rate for an oxygen hood and why?
At least 7 L/min to maintain oxygen concentrations and remove exhaled carbon dioxide
38
A quick prick on the heel of the infant using a safety lancet to draw blood samples
heel stick procedure
39
Why is the heel preferred over the finger for blood draws in infants?
To avoid trauma, pain, and tissue damage
40
List three situations when a heel stick should not be used.
When large blood volume is needed, if the heel has injury/infection/edema, or if the infant is 4-12 months old
41
What is the recommended incision depth for premature babies (up to 1 kg) during a heel stick?
0.65 mm
42
Why is it important to warm the neonate's foot before a heel stick?
To facilitate circulation to the peripheral area. Warmth helps to dilate vessels and allow blood to move freely
43
Why should the first drop of blood be wiped away during a heel stick?
To prevent contamination and dilution of the specimen
44
Where on the heel should the puncture be made?
In the lateral or medial aspect of the hee
45
List three things to evaluate after a heel stick procedure.
RBS/ glucose level of the neonate, reaction of the neonate (vital signs and response to pain)
46
Excessive level of accumulated bilirubin in the blood
hyperbilirubinemia
47
Yellowish discoloration of the skin, sclerae, and nails
jaundice (icterus)
48
What causes jaundice?
Elevated bilirubin levels
49
What are the two types of bilirubin?
Unconjugated (indirect) and conjugated (direct)
50
Deposition of bilirubin in the brain
kernicterus
51
What medication may be used to promote liver enzyme synthesis in newborns?
Phenobarbital
52
A medical treatment using natural or artificial light to improve a health condition
phototherapy
53
What type of light do Bili lights emit?
Blue-green spectrum light (wavelengths 430-490nm)
54
What is the purpose of phototherapy?
To decrease serum bilirubin levels
55
How does phototherapy help reduce bilirubin levels?
Light promotes bilirubin excretion by photoisometrization, which alters the structure of bilirubin to a soluble form (lumirubin) for easier excretion
56
Name three pieces of equipment used during phototherapy.
Bili lights, eye pads or eye shields, diaper
57
How far should the baby be placed from the phototherapy lamp?
45cm
58
Why are the baby's genitals covered during phototherapy?
To protect them from high-intensity lights
59
Why are eye pads or shields used during phototherapy?
To protect the eyes from the effect of high-intensity lights on the retina and avoid abrasions to the cornea
60
How often should the baby's position be changed during phototherapy?
Every 2 hours
61
List five potential side effects of phototherapy.
Loose, greenish stools, transient skin rashes, hyperthermia, dehydration, electrolyte disturbances
62
A newborn, regardless of gestational age or birth weight, who has a greater chance of morbidity or mortality due to conditions associated with birth and adjustment to extrauterine existence
high risk neonate
63
A rapid assessment to determine apparent problems in newborns
APGAR score
64
List five signs assessed in an Apgar score.
Heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and colour
65
What is a low birth weight (LBW) infant?
less than 2500 g (5.5 pounds) regardless of gestational age
66
What is a very low birth weight (VLBW) infant?
less than 1500 g (3.3 pounds)
67
What is an extremely low birth weight (ELBW) infant?
less than 1000 g (2.2 pounds)
68
What is a preterm infant?
born before completion of 37 weeks of gestation
69
What is a post-term infant?
born after 42 weeks of gestational age
70
What is the most crucial need of LBW infants after respiration is established?
Application of external warmth
71
What axillary temperature range is considered appropriate for preterm infants?
36.3° and 36.9° C (97.3° and 98.4° F)
72
List three consequences of cold stress in neonates.
Hypoxia, metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia
73
What is the foundation of infection prevention?
Thorough, meticulous, and frequent hand washing
74
List two common routes of fluid infusion for high-risk infants.
Peripheral and umbilical venous catheters
75
Why do ELBW, VLBW, or critically ill infants often receive the majority of their nutrients parenterally?
Because of their inability to digest and absorb enteral nutrition
76
A safe means of meeting the nutritional requirements of infants who are unable to feed orally
gavage feeding
77
List three behaviors that indicate readiness for oral feedings.
strong, vigorous suck; Coordination of sucking and swallowing; A gag reflex; Sucking on the gavage tube, hands, or a pacifier; Rooting and wakefulness before and sleeping after feedings
78
What are the proposed benefits of non-nutritive sucking (NNS)?
Improved weight gain, improved milk intake, more stable heart rate and oxygen saturation, earlier age at full oral feeds, and improved behavioral state
79
What position is best for most preterm infants early in hospitalisation?
prone position
80
What type of soap should be avoided for skin care in newborns?
Alkaline-based soap
81
Give two examples of tactile developmental interventions
Stroke skin slowly and gently in head-to-toe direction; Provide firm boundaries: foot bracing, blankets, “nesting”; Encourage skin-to-skin (kangaroo) holding; Provide containment holding
82
What is considered the best auditory stimulus for infants?
mother's voice
83
What breathing problem can premature babies develop?
Respiratory distress syndrome
84
An infant who is over 8 pounds, 13 ounces at birth
macrosomia
85
Occurs when the placenta fails to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the infant
placental insufficiency
86
An infant breathing in amniotic fluid and meconium during labor and delivery
meconium aspiration
87
What is a sudden bluish discoloration seen in the toes of infants with umbilical venous or arterial lines called?
Catheter toes
88
Encourages deep breathing to expand lung capacity.
Diaphragmatic Breathing
89
Helps control shortness of breath and prevent airway collapse.
Pursed-Lip Breathing
90
Used to clear mucus from the lungs without causing strain.
huff coughing
91
he most common and minimally invasive procedure performed in neonatal intensive care unit and the least traumatic way to draw blood samples for routine medical testing.
heel stick procedure
92
tiny blood vesells which carry blood to the tissues and connect arteries and veins
Capillaries
93
This is the stage when babies are normally able to place their toes in their mouth.
4-7 months
94
_ months, babies are pulling themselves up, standing, and preparing to walk or walking; so heel sticks are not recommended at this developmental stage because the heels are bearing weight to varying degrees.
8 to 12
95
preferred puncture site for heel stick procedure
medial or lateral portions of the plantar surface
96
incision length for premature babies with weight up to 1 kg (2 lbs.)
0.65 mm x 1.4 mm
97
incision length for newborns with low-birth-weight between 1-2.5 kg (3-6 lbs.)
0.65 mm x 1.75 mm
98
incision length for newborns from 3-6 months with birth weight between 2.5 kg (6- 20 lbs.)
1 mm x 2.5 mm
99
The _ or indirect hyperbilirubinemia is the most commonly seen in newborns.
unconjugated form
100
direct bilirubin, water soluble
conjugated bilirubin
101
indirect bilirubin, lipid soluble
unconjugated bilirubin
102
the result of the baby not receiving enough milk to lower their bilirubin levels
breastfeeding jaundice
103
KERNICTERUS usually occurs if the bilirubin levels are _/dl or higher in term infants
25mg
104
Light promotes bilirubin excretion by photoisometrization, which alters the structure of bilirubin to a soluble form (_) for easier excretion.
lumirubin
105
T OR F Oily lubricants or lotions are used on the skin while the infant is under phototherapy.
false
106
is an unusual neonatal dyschromia that occurs during phototherapy in some neonates with elevated serum levels of conjugated bilirubin.
bronze baby syndrome
107