pt care & Image production Flashcards
(122 cards)
1
Q
When does an exam require a written consent?
A
When it becomes invasive
2
Q
right to refuse medical treatment including radiographic procedure
A
Autonomy
3
Q
HIPAA
A
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
4
Q
if two co-workers were talking about a pt in the hall who do you report it to?
A
ARRT Code of Ethics
5
Q
perceived by the affected person only
A
subjective
6
Q
perceptible to the senses
A
objective
7
Q
priority scheduling
A
emergency pt, fasting pt, pediatric and geriatric patients that are NPO, Diabetics having to delay medication, Routine
8
Q
Who is authorized to order a radiographic exam?
A
MD, PA & NP who work under a MD
9
Q
the threat of touching in an injurious manner
A
assault
10
Q
an unlawful touching of a person without consent
A
battery
11
Q
a radiograph taken against a pts will or taking an Xray of the wrong patient is considered?
A
battery
12
Q
when a pts body has been improperly touched or unnecessarily exposed is considered
A
invasion of privacy
13
Q
the neglect or omission of reasonable care and caution
A
Negligence
14
Q
defamation by written or printed words
A
Libel
15
Q
inaccuracies or misstatements entered into the pts. record
A
libel
16
Q
defamation by spoken words
A
slander
17
Q
intentional or unintentional act resulting in injury to the pt.
A
tort
18
Q
when a pt. is injured due to error caused by the health care provider
A
malpractice
19
Q
the doing of goodness, kindness, charity including all actions that benefit others
A
beneficence
20
Q
Let the master answer
A
respondeat superior
21
Q
the thing speaks for itself
A
res ispa loquitur
22
Q
an employer can be held liable for the actions of an employee
A
Respondeat Superior
23
Q
Requires the defendant to prove his/her innocence
A
Res Ispa Loquitur
24
Q
Something I failed to do
A
Negligence
25
Something I did wrong
malpractice
26
presentation of material, attitudes, voice tones and volume, effective listening
Verbal/ Written communication
27
Eye contact, touching, facial expressions, physical appearance, body language
Non Verbal communitcation
28
DABDA by Dr. Elisabeth Kubler- Ross
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance
29
2 modalities that do not use Radiation
MRI, Ultra sound
30
Wheelchairs should be ____ to the X-ray table
parallel
31
log rolling requires how many people ?
5 , 2 at each side of the pt and one at the head
32
used for the diagnosis of right and left ventricular failure and pulmonary disorders, and to monitor the effects of specific medications
Pulmonary Artery Swan-Ganz Catheter
33
Catheter that is placed into the pulmonary artery
Pulmonary Artery Swan-Ganz Catheter
34
Used to remove fluid or free air from the pleural cavity
Closed Chest Drainage
35
Maintain solution bag/bottle _____ above the level of the vein for IVS
18+
36
heart rate range for adults
60-100 beats/min
37
heart range for children
90-100 beats/min
38
heart range for infants
80-120 beats/ min
39
fast heart rate, greater than 100 beats per minute
tachycardia
40
slow heart rate, less that 60 beats per minute
bradycardia
41
the pressure created during contraction of the left ventricle
systolic
42
the pressure within the vascular system with the heart at rest
diastolic
43
how do you remove clothing from an injured patient
from uninjured site first
44
how do you put clothing back on an injured patient
injured site first
45
fx that breaks through the skin
compound
46
while taking blood pressure what are you cutting off?
brachial artery
47
CAB
compressions, airway, breathing
48
how many compression do you give per minute for CPR
100/min for all ages
49
med term for fainting
syncope
50
how should you move a fx extremity?
both ends of the fx site should be supported
51
high blood sugar
hyperglycemia
52
characterized by dry skin, fruity smelling breath, excessive thirst and urination
hyperglycemia
53
low blood sure
hypoglycemia
54
characterized by sweating, clammy, cold skin, nervousness and blurred vision
hypoglycemia
55
how do you stop pulsating blood from the artery
pressure between the site and the heart
56
how do you stop pulsating blood from the vein
pressure away from the heart
57
faint or lightheaded
orthostatic hypotension
58
when a pt. is feeling faint and experiencing orthostatic hypotension what position should you put them in?
trendelenburg
59
RACE
Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
60
PASS
Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
61
What to do incase of fire
Evacuate the immediate area, report the fire and location, close all doorsm shut off the main oxygen valves
62
deals with reducing the probability of infections organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual
Medical Asepsis
63
Microorganisms eliminated through the use of soap, water, friction, and various chemical disinfectants
Medical Asepsis
64
the complete removal of all organisms and their spores from equipment used to perform patient care or procedures
surgical Asepsis
65
any procedure that involves cauterization or the urinary bladder, tracheostomy care, dressing changes, penetration of the skin or mucosal membranes requires?
Sterile Technique
66
an inanimate object that has made contact with an infectious organism ( food, water, gloves, equipment)
Fomite
67
transmission of an infectious agent that is indirect by means of fomite that touches a persons body or is ingested
Vehicle
68
typically an arthropod (mosquito, flea, tick)
Vector
69
hospital acquired infection
Nosocomial Infection
70
how do you pass people in a sterile room?
back to back
71
where must gloves be kept in a sterile field?
above the waist
72
how should a sterile package be opened?
away from the operator
73
steam sterilization
autoclaving
74
used on electric, plastic, and rubber items
gas sterilization
75
what type of precautions are: gloves, gown, restricted pt. placement. Used for diseases spread by close or direct contact
Contact precautions
76
what type of precautions are: particulate mask and restricted pt. placement
droplet
77
what type of precaution is respiratory protection, and negative ventilation
airborne
78
precaution used on pts who's immune system is limited such as HIV positive pt, chemo pt, burn pt
Reverse Isolation
79
Who manages the radiographic equipment the clean tech or dirty tech?
clean
80
who manages the patient and the patients linens then clean tech or dirty tech?
dirty
81
Injection method in which a large or concentrated volume is rapidly administered into an IV line
IV push
82
contrast administered by gravity
IV drip
83
holds a single dose
Ampule
84
holds multiple doses
Vial
85
at what angle do you insert a needle?
15
86
related to the concentration of a solution
osmolarity
87
KV used for an exam that utilizes barium in a single contrast study
100-125KV
88
KV used for an exam that utilizes barium in a double contrast study
90-100KV
89
3 lab results that are good indicators of possible contrast medium induced renal effects
Blood Urea Nitrogen, Creatinine, Glomerular Filtration Rate
90
normal range of Creatinine
0.7-1.3 mg/dL
91
normal range of blood urea nitrogen
8-25 mg/dL
92
normal range of Glomerular Filtration Rate
90-120ml/min/1.73msquared
93
term used to describe a failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to support oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and is unable to remove the by products of metabolism
shock
94
results from massive infection
Septic
95
results from external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns
hypovolemic
96
Med given for Angina
nitroglycerin
97
med given for blood thinner
heprin
98
blood given for clonic spasm
glucagon
99
med given for diabetic
glucaphage
100
pre meds for allergic reaction
benadryl/decadron & a steriod
101
med given for seizures
dilantin
102
med given for edema
lasix
103
med given for cardiac arrest/ anaphylaxis
epinephrine
104
for a properly positioned waters view of the facial bones, where should the pertrous ridges be?
completely below the maxillary sinuses
105
what is not part of the microscopic anatomy of the kidney? A. loop of Henle B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Efferent arterioles D. Minor Calyx
D
106
Proper evaluation for a PA Caldwell projection of the skull?
petrous ridges located in the lower thirds of the orbits
107
Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
| A. production of bile B production of heparin C detox of blood impurities D storage of bile
D
108
With the patin in the RAO position, air will be located in what part of the stomach
Fundus
109
With an exposure made on deep inspiration, identify the portion of the thorax demonstrated on the resultant image with the pt placed in the LPO position
Left Axillary Ribs
110
Identify the most superior, lateral structure recorded on an AP projection of the scapula
Acromion Process
111
how should the tech identify an in patient prior to beginning an exam?
Check the pts. id bracelet
112
a requisition requires you to perform a prattle upright chest on a patient in ICU. Upon arrival at the patients room the patient is under heavy med and is lying dorsal recumbent position. what should your first step be?
ask the pts. nurse if the patient can be placed in an upright position
113
med term for hives
Urticaria
114
Type of contrast agent that will be successful in decreasing the subject receptor exposure of the part effected by the agent
Carbon Dioxide
115
Negative contrast agents cause subject receptor exposure to ________ and radiographic receptor exposure to _________.
Decrease, increase
116
Which of the following is an example of a non-ionic contrast agent? A. hypaque B. Isovue C. Renographin D. Conray
B
117
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Which of the following is an example of a moderate reaction to a contrast agent?
A. nausea and vomiting
B. Very low blood pressure
C. Tachycardia
D. Cyanosis
```
C
118
A drop in red blood cell production within the hematopoetic system resulting from radiation therapy treatments delivered to the long bones of the body would be classified as what type of radiation effect?
General Somatic
119
The unit of measurement equal to 100 ergs of energy absorbed per gram irradiated material describes the?
RAD
120
As the distance from source of radiation to the patient is doubled, the intensity of the:
decrease 4X
121
With the use of filtration, X-ray quality is said to ______ and X-ray quantity is said to_________
Increase, decrease
122
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The compton effect can be found in the ___ kVp range
A. high
B low
C mild
D. B and C are correct
```
C
