PTM Questions Flashcards
(134 cards)
1
Q
The minimum pavement width for a 180* turn with a 5 foot margin of safety is
A
58ft
2
Q
The aircraft may be towed up to a limit of ___________ of nosewheel angle with the torque links connected and the nosewheel steering control system deenergized
A
120*
3
Q
At what degree of nosewheel angle will the nose landing gear swivel pins shear?
A
123
4
Q
How is the passenger doors normally closed?
A
Electrically
5
Q
The purpose of the vent flap is the cabin door handle is
A
To equalize cabin pressure to ambient pressure
6
Q
Under what condition does a PASSENGER DOOOR cation CAS message display when the aircraft is in the ground and the door is not fully secured
A
The left engine RUN switch is in the RUN position
7
Q
Under what condition does the PASSENGER DOOR caution CAS message display when the aircraft is in flight?
A
The passenger door rollers are not fully engaged into the fitting guides
8
Q
What is the indication if the aircraft is on the ground and the cargo door is open
A
With the left engine run switch in RUN, a CARGO DOOR caution CAS message is displayed
9
Q
The AC inverters provide power for
A
Passenger convenience only
10
Q
Individual battery voltage can be read on
A
The electrical synoptic page
11
Q
The generators come online
A
Automatically with the engines running and and ground power deactivated
12
Q
The auxiliary buses are load shed when
A
In flight, with only one generator operative
13
Q
What buses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight
A
The essential and battery buses
14
Q
When does the green AVAIL light illuminate on the electrical control panel?
A
When the GPU Voltage and polarity is correct
15
Q
Selecting the battery switch to the on position
A
Connects the batteries to their respective essential buses
16
Q
The DC power centers provide the following
A
Powered loads in the aft section of the aircraft, electronic logic for load shedding, and control and re-configure the distribution system in response to manual switching, or when a fault occurs.
17
Q
The secondary power centers provide power for the following
A
Cockpit circuit breaker panel, loads in the front section of the aircraft, the circuit breaker panels on the equipment rack
18
Q
When armed, when do the emergency lights come automatically
A
When right main bus power is lost
19
Q
Emergency lighting will last a minimum of
A
10 minutes at critical ambient temperature (low temperature)
20
Q
Power is normally supplied to the standby instrument lighting by
A
The left main bus
21
Q
If power to the standby instrument lights normal source is lost, standby lights are automatically switched to
A
The right essential bus
22
Q
What powers the emergency lights?
A
Two independent rechargeable battery packs
23
Q
The cabin entry/exit door light switch is powered by
A
The left battery bus regardless of the battery switch position
24
Q
The secondary navigation light is selected on the
A
Right avionics rack CB panel
25
The engine indicating and crew alerting system (EICAS) provides all of the following
Automatic system monitoring, aural alert warning messages, and integration of system information
26
What denotes normal status of a component or not flow through the line?
White
27
What denotes component failure(no flow, energy, or pressure)
Amber
28
On the synoptic page display, a parameter that exceeds the established limits changes the indication to what color
Red
29
Which EICAS messages are accompanied by a single chime and flashing master caution lights
Caution (amber)
30
Which EICAS messages require prompt action
Caution (amber)
31
How are CAS messages prioritized on the MFD display
By order of importance and order of occurrence
32
Selected EICAS messages are inhibited for takeoff when
Airspeed is above 80 knots and continues until aircraft reaches 400 ft AGL or one minute elapses
33
How does the pilot select a synoptic page to display on an MFD
By selecting the individual system switch in the MFD control panel (MCP)
34
The aural warning panel is located
On the right aft cockpit bulkhead above the CB panel
35
All fuel supplied to the engines come from the
The collector tanks
36
How is fuel supplied to the APU
The right main ejector or the right electric fuel pump takes fuel from the right collector tank
37
What is the function of the surge bay
To provide additional expansion volume for the vent system
38
What operates the main ejectors
Motive flow from the engine-driven fuel pumps
39
The FUEL BALANCED status (white) CAS message is displayed when
Fuel is balanced within 100 lbs and the XFER valve is open
40
With more then 13,700 lbs of fuel, fuel balance must be maintained with
250 lbs
41
Single point pressure refueling is limited to
55 psig
42
What are some of the functions of the the Honeywell 36-150BD APU
Automatic fault detection, automatic and remote shutdown, and automatic fire extinguishing
43
The primary function of the APU is
To provide power for the gear box mounted generator
44
The APU emergency shut off switch is located
Right side, aft of the wing, adjacent to the external power connector
45
The ________ controls airflow to the bleed system and protects the APU from an over temp condition
APU bleed valve
46
When does the ECU command the APU surge control valve to open
When the APU is supplying electrical loads a flight altitudes above 15,000ft
47
An APU warning (red) CAS message on the ground
Will automatically shut the APU down and activate the fire extinguisher
48
Above what altitude will the APU BLEED ALT LIMIT caution (amber) CAS message be displayed
Above 20,000ft
49
Normal takeoff thrust flat rates to ISA +15*C at sea level for Honeywell AS 907 engine is
7,372 lbs
50
The engine run/off switch’s perform what functions
Activates ignition system, position the starter control valve open, turn on the fuel DC boost-pump
51
During normal start cycle, engine rotation is achieved by
Bleed air pressure from the APU, opposite engine bleed air, or external air cart
52
During normal start sequence, when does the start valve close and the ATS (air turbine starter) disengage
55.0% N2
53
What are the maximum consecutive start cycles allowed prior to to a required 15 min cooling period
3
54
How long must the engine be motored after an aborted engine start
30 sec
55
APR thrust is indicated in the associated N1 gage by
Cyan APR icon
56
When low engine oil pressure is detected the digital readout changes to
Red
57
When N1 or N2 sync is selected, the engines are synchronized if both engines are in the CRZ or CLB rating and the N1 difference between the two engine is within ____ %
5%
58
Manually selecting the ignition switch to ON is recommended
During flight through moderate or heavy intensity turbulence
59
What are the cockpit indications for a normal TR deployment
White REV icon followed by a green REV icon
60
What are some of the functions of the fire protection system
Fire detection in the engine and APU, overheat detection in the main landing gear bay, fire extinguishing capabilities for the engine and APU
61
The engines and APU are fitted with dual fire detection loops. The loops and connected to the
FIREX control
62
The electronic fire detection and extinguishing control unit (FIREX-CU) is in
The aft equipment bay
63
If fire is detected in an engine, what occurs
Affected L/R FIRE switches illuminate, master warning light illuminates, master warning chimes
64
The APU fire detection system
Detects an overheat condition within the APU enclosure
65
The main landing gear bay is protected
By a single overheat detection loop
66
The pneumatic system provides high pressure air for
Wing anti ice
67
The high pressure valve limits engine discharge pressure to
45+- psi
68
The IP valve are closed when
Power is lost to the valves
69
The source of the bleed air for takeoff and landing is normally
APU Bleed
70
During climb the sequence to switch to engine bleed air is
X BLEED closed
L BLEED on
APU BLEED off
R BLEED on
71
What is monitored by dual-sensing loops
Pack ducts
Bleed air ducts in engine pylons
Anti-ice ducts
72
A BLEED LOOP FAIL CAS message indicates
Both loops of the dual loop zone are INOP
73
Channel B if IASC monitors what
Bleed leak detection monitoring and control
74
The challenger 350 has how many ice detectors
2
75
What EICAS message will be displayed when the anti ice systems are ON and ice is detected
ICE DETECTED advisory (cyan) CAS message
76
What EICAS message will be displayed when the anti ice systems are OFF and ice is detected
ICE DETECTED caution (amber)
77
What is not tested during the ICE DET system check
Ice detector prob heater
78
The wing anti ice valves are
Spring loaded to the closed position
79
The wing cross bleed valve is
Normally closed
80
What source of bleed air is recommended for AC during ground operation
APU
81
The APU provides bleed air for air conditioning in flight up to
20,000ft
82
When the start switch is selected, the flow control valves
Automatically close to shut down the air conditioning system
83
RAM AIR can be used to open the ram air valve to ventilate the cabin
Below 10,000ft
84
The primary source of air conditioning in the challenger 350 is
PACK air
85
What is the function of the AIR SOURCE selector
To control the position of the flow control valves
86
The pressurization system has how many independent modes of operation
3
87
The purpose of the safety valves is
To provide over pressure and negative pressure relief
88
When LNDG ALT is set automatically from the FMS destination airport database is will be displayed in what color on the EICAS
Magenta
89
Pressing EMER DEPRESS during AUTO mode will depressurize the aircraft up to the aircraft altitude whichever is lower
At 2500 fpm up to 14,000 ft +- 100ft
90
What is true about ditching
Ditching depressurizes the cabin
It’s inhibited above 15,000ft
Keeps the OFV closed in the event of a water landing
91
In the “takeoff and return to base pressurization sequence”
The landing field elevation must be set through the FMS departure airport database
92
The maximum differential pressure allowed for landing is
1 psid
93
A CABIN DELTA P warning (red) CAS message indicates
A cabin differential pressure greater then 9.2 or less then -0.5
94
What are some of the functions of of the pressurization control panel
Switching to manual control of the cabin pressure when automatic control fails, control cabin pressure altitude rate in manual mode, depressurization of the cabin to evacuate smoke or fume in an emergency
95
What is the purpose of the PTU
Gear retraction when the left EDP is not operational
96
The hydraulic fire wall shutoff valves are
normally open
97
The Aux hydroelectric system provides hydraulic system pressure to the rudder when
There is a loss of hydraulic power from the right system
98
The left DCMP is powered by the
Right main DC bus
99
Normal hydraulic system pressure is
3000 psi
100
The DCMPs
Are capable of providing sufficient hydraulic pressure on their own
101
Nosewheel steering is actuated by
The left hydraulic system
102
The nose landing gear is center
Electronically by the steering control unit (SCU)
103
The speed limitation for all tires is
182 kts
104
Rudder pressure commands nosewheel steering up to________* in either direction
7
105
The landing gear system is electronically controlled by
The proximity sensing system
106
The main landing gear is held in the up and locked position by
Mechanical unlocks
107
Nose wheel steering using the tiller is limited to
65* either side of center
108
In case of failure of both the left and right hydraulic systems, accumulators in both the hydraulic breaks systems provide pressure for
At least 6 break applications
109
Horizontal stab trim range of movement is
0 - 15*
110
Normal flap extension from 0 to 30 degrees should not exceed
20 seconds
111
Multifunction spoilers extend to any position up to
45*
112
Which of the primary flight controls are not hydraulically assisted
Ailerons
113
Which if the spoiler panels operate as multifunction spoilers
The 2 outboard panels
114
When disconnected, the roll disconnect mechanism
Allows the left pilot to control roll spoilers
115
When engaged the gust lock
prevents damage to the aileron surfaces from wind gust
116
What are some of the functions of the rudder system
Trapped hydraulic fluid provides rudder gust lock dampening, a rudder control unit supplies simulated pedal load to the crew, a full scale deflection on the rudder position synoptic corresponds to maximum rudder travel
117
The primary pitot static system supports
Air data computers 1 and 2
118
The altimeter barometer knob is located on the
Compass panel just above each pilots radio panel
119
By selecting the ADC reversion switch to the #1 position
Both PFDs receive data from only air data computer 1
120
What is interfaced with the inertial reference system
Stall protection system
Weather radar
Terrain awareness warning system
121
Crew control of the EFIS system consists of
Pilot and copilot display control panels and a single flight guidance panel on the glare shield
122
The slip/skid indicator is
A small rectangle below the roll Pointer driven by the lateral acceleration
123
The airspeed trend vector
Indicates the airspeed predicted in the next 10 sec
124
VOR/localizer displays on the horizontal situation indicator are
Green pointer or CDI for the onside information, amber for cross side information
125
The autopilot engagement indication is
A green AP on the top of the PFD
126
The flight guidance mode goes to half bank automatically when
Climbing through 31,600ft
127
To automatically tune COM1 to 121.5
Select the tune reversion switch to the COM1 121.5 position
128
The default lateral mode of flight director is
ROLL
129
What are all the ways autopilot may be disconnected
Pressing TOGO
Pressing the AP button the FGP
Lowering the AP/YD DISC bar on The FGP
130
Manually entered data is depicted on the flight display in ______ and FMS supplied data is depicted in _______
Cyan/magenta
131
Under normal operation the oxygen system delivers oxygen from the cylinder directly to
The EPAV
132
When fully charged, oxygen system pressure should be
1850 psi
133
The oxygen service point is located
On the right side of the fuselage directly aft of the wing
134
What mush the flight crew members do if a fire extinguisher is discharged In the flight compartment
All flight crew must wear oxygen mask with EMERGENCY selected
