PTU quizzes Flashcards
1
Q
What are the five key components of the patient care process?
A
Collect, assess, plan, implement, follow up
2
Q
What is the primary role of a pharmacy technician?
A
Assists the pharmacist with dispensing prescriptions
3
Q
Depending on state law, who can perform the same tasks as pharmacists?
A
Intern
4
Q
What does scope of practice provide pharmacy technicians?
A
Boundaries for duties pharmacy techs can and cannot perform
5
Q
According to most state laws, what is the primary role of a pharmacist?
A
Counsels patients about their medication
6
Q
Mr. Wagner has a prescription for promethazine syrup. What is one of your main roles as a pharmacy technician?
A
Gather a list of Mr. Wagner’s current medications and medical conditions
7
Q
In which setting is a technician most likely to compound sterile products?
A
Hospital pharmacy
8
Q
In which type of pharmacy will a pharmacy technician typically communicate with patients in person?
A
Community pharmacy
9
Q
What is a basic description of a pharmacy technician’s role?
A
Works under pharmacist supervision to help and support patients
10
Q
In which type of pharmacy will a pharmacy technician typically package medications to ship to patients via postal service?
A
Mail-order pharmacy
11
Q
Scope of practice can differ for pharmacy technicians due to differences in:
A
Each state’s board of pharmacy
12
Q
In which setting is a technician most likely to package medications in blister packs for nursing homes?
A
Long-term care pharmacy
13
Q
What is the role of a physician when working with the pharmacy team?
A
Resolves medication therapy issues
14
Q
How can pharmacy technicians help with the follow-up component of the patient care process?
A
Reschedule patients who miss appointments
15
Q
According to most state laws, which duty can pharmacy technicians perform?
A
Manage pharmacy inventory
16
Q
Who sets regulations and requirements to practice as a pharmacy technician?
A
State board of pharmacy
17
Q
Completing continuing education courses is a way to:
A
Expand knowledge and grow professionally
18
Q
A pharmacy technician who has listed with their state Board of Pharmacy for the sole purpose of keeping their information on file is considered:
A
Registered
19
Q
What is an example of maintaining high standards of integrity and conduct?
A
Avoiding activities that discredit the pharmacy profession
20
Q
Kelly, a mail-order pharmacy technician, makes sure that patient information is protected and safe. Which code of ethic is this an example of?
A
Supporting patient respect and confidentiality
21
Q
What is a best practice for technicians to stay current with pharmacy practice and expand their knowledge?
A
Complete continuing education credits
22
Q
If a state Board of Pharmacy requires pharmacy technicians to meet special qualifications, the technicians could be considered:
A
Certified
23
Q
Nikki, a long-term care pharmacy technician, avoids illegal behavior. Which code of ethic is she following?
A
Being honest and maintaining integrity
24
Q
Cory, a community pharmacy technician, follows his pharmacy’s protocols for keeping protected health information safe. Which code of ethic is this an example of?
A
Maintaining patient confidentiality
25
Regulations and requirements to practice as a pharmacy technician are set by:
State board of pharmacy
26
An example of a verbal prescription is one that comes to your pharmacy through a(n):
*A) Automated answering machine
B) Prescriber's computer
C) Pharmacy’s fax machine
D) Patient's computer
27
What should you do when a prescription is transferred to your pharmacy?
*A) Treat it like a new prescription
B) Call the pharmacy for refills
C) Tell the patient you can't fill it
D) Wait 48 hours to fill after receiving it
28
Which medication must contain the prescriber's DEA number on the prescription?
A) Amlodipine
B) Metoprolol ER
*C) Oxycodone
D) Telmisartan
29
If you have a prescription for metoprolol ER, what patient information should be on the prescription?
*A) Date of birth
B) Full address
c) Insurance ID number
D) Telephone number
30
Which medication should have the patient's full address on the prescription
A) Lotensin HCT
*B) Percocet
C) Toprol-XL
D) Zocor
31
Noncontrolled prescriptions should contain the prescriber's:
A) DEA number
*B) License designation
C) Telephone number
D) Fax number
32
A prescription for a noncontrolled substance should include the patient's:
A) Home address
*B) Date of birth
C) Insurance information
D) Telephone number
33
When speaking with patients at drop off, you want to:
A) Avoid direct eye contact
B) Ask yes or no questions
C) Speak quickly and mumble
*D) Avoid using pharmacy jargon
34
Tamper-resistant paper is used to show:
*A) Alterations
B) Ink changes
C) Torn edges
D) Water stains
35
Which agency requires controlled prescriptions to include the patient's full address?
A) CDC
*B) DEA
C) FDA
D) NIH
36
A prescription for a controlled substance must include the:
*A) Prescriber’s DEA number
B) Pharmacy's DEA number
C) Insurance ID number
D) Pharmacy’s license number
37
If information is missing from a prescription, you should alert the patient at:
*A) Drop-off
B) Data entry
C) Filling
D) Pick up
38
What information is required on a prescription for tramadol?
*A) Patient's full address
B) Prescriber's NPI number
C) Patient's insurance provider
D) Pharmacy's DEA number
39
A prescription that comes to the pharmacy computer directly from the prescriber's computer is considered what type of prescription?
*Electronic
Fax
Paper
Verbal
40
What piece of information helps verify the medication a patient wants refilled?
Prescriber name
*Prescription number
Patient representative name
Prescriber telephone number
41
What is required on a noncontrolled prescription?
Drug NDC number
*Medication strength
Pharmacy address
Prescriber's telephone
42
How would you respond to a patient that is not pleased they are having to wait for clarification on their prescription?
*Empathetically
Frustratingly
Subliminally
Upsettingly
43
What can technicians do to help with the "transfer out" process?
A) Gather medication history for the patient's profile
*B) Confirm the prescription isn't expired before transferring it
C) Make sure the medication is in stock at the pharmacy that's transferring out
D) Ask the patient for their insurance information before billing the prescription
44
Which Schedule of controlled substances are not allowed to be transferred?
*II
III
IV
V
45
What does it mean to "transfer in" a prescription?
A) The pharmacy who has the prescription on file places it "on hold."
B) The pharmacy sending the prescription to another pharmacy fills it.
C) The pharmacy who has the prescription on file mails it to the patient.
*D) The pharmacy receiving the prescription from another pharmacy fills it.
46
What can technicians do to help with the "transfer in" process?
*A) Setup patient profiles
B) Fax transferring prescriptions to another pharmacy
C) Inform the receiving pharmacy of the last refill date
D) Ask patients nicely why they're leaving the pharmacy
47
How involved can technicians get with the Rx transfer process?
A) No states allow pharmacy technicians to transfer prescriptions
B) Every state allows pharmacy technicians to transfer prescriptions
*C) State law determines whether technicians can transfer prescriptions
D) Staff pharmacists may allow pharmacy technicians to transfer prescriptions
48
What information is important to gather at drop-off for all patients?
Drug allergies
49
Mr. Ramsey is a new patient and is dropping off his prescription. What information do you need to obtain from Mr. Ramsey?
Current medications and medical conditions
50
Which type of question is a good way to ensure you are getting the right information from a patient?
Open-ended
51
A new patient comes to your pharmacy drop-off window. She hands you an OxyContin prescription written by an out-of-state prescriber. She tells you her insurance does not cover this medication and she'll pay cash. What do you do?
Alert the pharmacist about the out-of-state prescriber.
52
A patient is at your pharmacy drop-off window talking about his medications. What do you need to do?
Make sure you are talking in a location where other customers cannot overhear.
53
What is an example of a red flag for a fraudulent prescription?
Using multiple prescribers to obtain prescriptions for the same controlled med
54
What is the process of accepting or denying a submitted claim called?
*Adjudication
Coinsurance
Formulary
Premium
55
Mrs. Huang just turned 65 and comes to your pharmacy wanting more information about Medicare. She asks when open enrollment of Medicare Part D is. Which date range do you tell her?
January 1 to April 15
May 1 to July 7
*October 15 and December 7
November 15 to December 31
56
PBMs (Pharmacy Benefits Manager) are:
Organizations who act as a middleman between the pharmacy and the insurer
57
What is a deductible known as?
An amount of money due before the insurance pays for healthcare costs
58
Insurance Premiums are:
Ongoing amount paid to keep insurance active
59
If a patient's insurance plan requires a primary care physician, it's likely they have which type of insurance?
*HMO
PBM
PPO
TRI
60
Once a patient has enrolled or made changes to Medicare Part D, when does it take effect?
*January 1
April 15
July 4
December 31
61
What does Medicare Part B cover?
Most outpatient prescriptions
Hospice
Hospital visits
*Prescriber visits
62
What is the role of third-party payers?
Reimburse healthcare providers for their services
63
What is a formulary known as?
A list of drugs covered by the insurance, organized in tiers by cost
64
Which Medicare plan combines original Medicare with a prescription plan?
Part A
Part B
*Part C
Part D
65
What does Medicare Part D cover?
Hospital visits
Nebulizer medications
*Outpatient prescriptions
Prescriber visits
66
Medicaid is run by:
Federal and state governments
67
What is it called when a percentage of the drug cost is to be paid, for each prescription?
*Coinsurance
Deductible
Formulary
Premium
68
Hospital visits, hospice, and skilled nursing facilities are covered by which Medicare part?
*A
B
C
D
69
What is a plan characteristic for patients with a PPO?
Able to see the prescriber of their choice
70
Which designation will you usually find on an insurance card that signifies pharmacy benefits?
Drug
Med
Pharm
*Rx
71
Which number is used as a second identifier to identify a specific plan within an insurance company?
Group
BIN
Member ID
*PCN
72
You are entering a prescription for Xeljanz for Mrs. Robinette into the computer. A message appears stating the prescribed medication is not covered and more information is needed from the prescriber before the drug is covered. What is this an example of?
Partial fill
*Prior authorization
Reconciliation
Refill too soon
73
What does a dual-eligible patient mean?
They have more than one insurance plan to cover the cost of medications
74
Mr. Rivas brings in his new prescription for clopidogrel. After you enter the prescription into the computer, you can see the claim is approved. What is this process known as?
*Adjudication
Cost-sharing
Med reconciliation
Prior authorization
75
How is the coordination of benefits process best described?
Submitting claims to dual-eligible third parties
76
What information does the BIN identify?
The third-party payer that's billed by the pharmacy for a prescription
77
Which number on an insurance card is used to identify the policyholder?
Group
IIN
*Member ID
PCN
78
Which type of data entry error can flag an insurance company to perform an audit?
Late refill
Invalid member ID
*Invalid days' supply
Missing dependent code
79
What action might an insurance company take when a pharmacy is dispensing refills too soon?
Audit
80
Which information is the dependent code used in determining?
The spouse or child who is receiving the prescription
81
What would you tell a colleague about billing diabetes testing supplies to Medicare Part B?
An ICD-10 groups of E08-E13 diagnosis code is needed to support medical necessity.
82
Which strategy will best help to avoid problems during a Medicare audit on DME orders?
Having proper documentation
83
Which item is generally covered under Medicare Part D?
Needles and syringes
84
What piece of information must be on an electronic order for diabetes testing supplies for a patient with Medicare?
Specific frequency for use
85
Which product can be classified as durable medical equipment?
Crutches
86
Which characteristic would you use to best describe medical supplies?
They are often used once, then discarded.
87
What is the maximum number of lancets Medicare will cover for a patient with diabetes who does not use insulin?
100 every three months
88
Which strategy would you recommend when dispensing and billing a DME prescription to Medicare?
Keep the documentation for proof of delivery in the pharmacy for at least 7 years.
89
Which item is generally covered under Medicare Part B?
Glucose control solution
90
Which personal protective equipment must be worn when cutting or crushing hazardous tablets?
Double gloves, respiratory protection, protective gown, and ventilation
91
Which statement must appear on all controlled substance prescription labels?
"Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the person for whom it was prescribed"
92
Which medication class may cause fetal harm or birth defects if inhaled or absorbed through the skin?
Chemotherapy
93
Which number would Mrs. Laurie find on her prescription label?
Prescription number
94
When you're preparing creams or ointments and need to weigh your ingredients, you generally will use a(n):
Electronic balance
95
Which equipment will you need to fill a prescription for metformin 500 mg tabs?
Counting tray and spatula
96
A prescription label is important because it:
Tells the patient how to correctly take the medication
97
What is an example of tall man lettering?
Clonidine
*LaMICtal
SPIRONOLACTONE
topiriMate
98
What should be done after handling a hazardous medication?
Wash hands thoroughly
99
Which identifier should be double-checked when selecting a product from the pharmacy shelf?
NDC number
100
What is tall man lettering?
Name of a medication written with certain parts in capital letters
101
What strategy can reduce LASA medication errors?
Place LASA shelf tags on shelves in the pharmacy
102
Which type of label contains the information "May Cause Drowsiness?"
Auxiliary
103
Which drug is most likely to cause devastating harm if an error occurs?
Avodart
*Humulin N
Topamax
Viagra
104
Which medication is classified as a hazardous drug?
Citalopram
Fluoxetine
*Paroxetine
Sertraline
105
USP <800> standards are intended to do what?
Protect healthcare personnel, patients, and the environment from exposure to hazardous drugs
106
OSHA requires that you have access to which type of resource when handling certain hazardous drugs?
HZD
PDR
*SDS
USP
107
Your pharmacy's policy requires you to wear gloves when handling tamoxifen tablets because the medication is classified as carcinogenic. This means tamoxifen may potentially cause which adverse effect when touched?
*Cancer
Diarrhea
Dizziness
Low blood pressure
108
Which pharmacy employee should be most concerned about handling broken colchicine tablets?
An employee who is pregnant
109
Which strategy would you share with a new colleague about dispensing hazardous drugs?
Wear chemo gloves when unpacking cartons and vials of hazardous drugs.
110
What will you likely find in a hazardous drug spill kit?
NIOSH list
Black waste bin
Closed-system transfer device
*Personal protection equipment (PPE)
111
Having your tablets in a single layer on the counting tray can:
*Prevent miscounts
Increase miscounts
Make counting slower
Make counting harder
112
When a patient receives more medication than what's on the prescription label, it can lead to:
Refill-too-soon rejections
Paying more than they should
Treatment regimen being cut short
*Pharmacy shortages and lost money
113
Which medication would you generally need to double-count?
*Alprazolam
Escitalopram
Trazodone
Venlafaxine
114
What may occur when a medication needs to be packaged in its original container, but is exposed to light and moisture?
*Loss of potency
Decrease in size
Increase effectiveness
Medication changes form
115
Which section in the package insert would state whether a drug should be stored in its original container?
Indications and Usage
Warnings and Precautions
Dosage Forms and Strengths
*How Supplied/Storage and Handling
116
When a drug is given a pregnancy category A rating it means the drug:
Has been shown to cause no harm to the fetus
117
Mr. Greer comes into the pharmacy and asks you to refill his blood pressure medication. When you look into the computer you see that he has both Crestor and Diovan available for refill. Which section of the package insert provides information about which medication is used to treat high blood pressure?
Dosage and Administration
*Indications and Usage
Use in Specific Populations
Warnings and Precautions
118
Which section of the package insert contains the most important prescribing information that can be found quickly?
Dosage and Administration
*Highlights
Indications and Usage
Table of Contents
119
Which section of the package insert is a reference area to help find specific prescribing information?
Appendices
Charts
Highlights
*Table of Contents
120
Mr. Quarterman gives you a prescription for Chantix. The prescriber has "take as directed" written on the prescription. Which section of the package insert provides information about how a medication is usually taken?
Contraindications
*Dosage and Administration
Indications and Usage
Warnings and Precautions
121
Which section of the package insert contains the Postmarketing Experience?
*Adverse Reactions
Drug Interactions
Use in Specific Populations
Warnings and Precautions
122
Mrs. Roberts brings in a prescription for Augmentin 875 mg. She informs you that she is severely allergic to penicillin. What section of the package insert provides information about drug allergies?
*Contraindications
Dosage and Administration
Indications and Usage
Use in Specific Populations
123
Which section of the package insert provides information on a drug affecting a lab test?
Adverse Reactions
Contraindications
Indications and Usage
*Warnings and Precautions
124
The Use in Specific Populations section of a package insert lists:
Safety concerns when using the drug in elderly patients
125
How are package inserts organized?
Alphabetically
Chapters
Numerically
*Sections
126
Off-label use means:
Prescribing the medication for an unapproved indication
127
You input Ms. Wright's new birth control prescription in the computer. You get a warning about Ms. Wright taking birth control while on carbamazepine. Which section of the package insert will inform you about the effects of taking birth control while on carbamazepine?
Adverse Reactions
*Contraindications
Drug Interactions
Warnings and Precautions
128
Ms. Woodenhall would like to get her acetaminophen with codeine prescription as a liquid because her throat is too sore to swallow tablets. Which section of the package insert will indicate if it's available as a liquid?
Indications and Usage
Dosage and Administration
Use in Specific Populations
*Dosage Forms and Strengths
129
The Product Description section of a package insert lists:
The structural formula of the medication
130
Which section of the package insert highlights information as a tool for the pharmacist when explaining how to take a medication to a patient?
Patient Counseling Information
131
A package insert's wording must be approved by:
Food and Drug Administration
132
The Clinical Pharmacology section of a package insert lists:
How a drug is absorbed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body
133
Which section of the package insert provides the signs and symptoms for when a patient takes too much of the medication?
Overdosage
134
Mr. Khan has just been prescribed Lyrica. In which section of the package insert can you find Lyrica's controlled substance schedule?
Drug Abuse and Dependence
135
The How Supplied/Storage and Handling section of a package insert lists the medication's:
Description of appearance
136
Ms. Supat is concerned about her cancer risk while taking her medication. Which section of the package insert would the pharmacist refer to?
Nonclinical Toxicology
137
Which section of the package insert provides information on how well the drug works for its approved indication?
Clinical Studies
138
The USP-NF can be used to look up:
Materials needed for compounding medications
139
A generic medication is identical in active ingredients, strength, and dosage form as the brand-name product. What else must be identical to be considered therapeutically equivalent?
Absorption and release in the body
140
An "AB" rating in the Orange Book means a brand and generic drug are:
Therapeutically equivalent
141
Natural Medicines provides information to:
Verify drug-herb interactions
142
Which drug information source provides generic substitution equivalence ratings for Lasix?
Prescribers' Digital Reference
143
Which drug information resource provides compatibility information on parenteral medications?
Handbook on Injectable Drugs
144
The first letter in the Orange Book rating code indicates:
Therapeutic equivalence
145
When applying a prescription label, a good way to adhere the label is to move from:
Left to right
146
How many 8-ounce prescription bottles will you need to fill a prescription of 480 mL of cetirizine?
2
147
What is an example of an appropriate measuring device for patients?
Oral syringe
148
Prescription amber bottles are measured in:
Ounces
149
Which item is generally used when weighing a cream or ointment?
Glassine paper
150
Which button on a digital scale clears the memory and resets the scale to 0 g?
Tare
151
A graduated cylinder is used to measure:
Liquids
152
According to federal law, what information must be distributed to the patient when picking up a prescription?
Notice of Privacy Practice
153
Why is a patient identifier significant at the pick-up counter?
Verifies the right patient
154
What is the term used to describe a percentage of the medication's cost?
Coinsurance
155
What does OBRA '90 require?
Patients to be counseled or offered counseling by the pharmacist
156
Where would you look to find a prescription for a non-controlled liquid medication that has been prepared for a patient?
Will-call area
157
Which prescription information are you allowed to inform patients about, according to most states?
Drug name
158
A patient's co-pay is determined by their:
Health insurance
159
How can you prevent mishaps when mailing or delivering medications?
Store meds flagged for delivery separately from other meds.
160
What should you keep in mind when mailing or delivering medications?
The delivery date is the date of service with Medicare-billed DME.
161
What's an important factor to consider with medication delivery?
It may increase the number of new patients.
162
What strategy is the most appropriate when packaging meds for mail or delivery?
Write "Fragile" on packages that contain liquid meds.
163
How can bar codes on medication stock bottles help with your pharmacy tasks?
Reordering medications from the supplier
164
What's a good best practice for preventing a wrong patient med error?
Use verified home and mailing addresses.
165
Automation is used in the pharmacy to:
Increase accuracy
166
You scan Mr. Dorsey's prescription bottle's bar code to do which function?
Refill his medication
167
How can the use of automated dispensing devices help keep patients safe?
Reduces the amount of errors in the dispensing process
168
With which pharmacy function do automated dispensing devices help?
Filling prescriptions
169
What is a best practice for incorporating a new pharmacy service into workflow?
Divide tasks among co-workers
170
Which practice can help evaluate and improve workflow?
Identify areas that take a long time to complete
171
What can hinder pharmacy workflow?
Arriving to work after a scheduled shift
172
What is a strategy to optimize pharmacy workflow?
Keep the pharmacy clean and organized
173
Marco has downtime during his pharmacy shift. What can he do to help with the workflow?
Restock supplies
174
Insulin is a high-alert medication because it:
Is more likely to cause serious harm
175
High alert medication:
High-alert medications are drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when they are used in error.
176
Which pharmacy employee should be most concerned about handling broken colchicine tablets?
An employee who is pregnant
177
Prescription amber bottles are measured in:
Ounces
178
Which medication is classified as a hazardous drug?
Divalproex
179
What is an appropriate measure to take when handling a hazardous drug spill?
Double-bagging used supplies and garb after cleaning the spill
180
If you are pregnant or may become pregnant, why is it recommended that you do not handle broken or crushed hazardous meds?
They may be absorbed through your skin and cause birth defects
181
USP <800> standards are intended to do what?
Protect healthcare personnel, patients, and the environment from exposure to hazardous drugs
182
What is a benefit to using automated dispensing devices in the pharmacy?
Handles high prescription volume
183
What should you tell a colleague about dispensing hazardous drugs
Outer packaging of hazardous drugs is prone to contamination, leading to skin exposure.
184
Which personal protective equipment must be worn when cutting or crushing hazardous tablets?
Double gloves, respiratory protection, protective gown, and ventilation
185
Which section in the package insert would state whether a drug should be stored in its original container?
How Supplied/Storage and Handling
186
How can bar codes on medication stock bottles help with your pharmacy tasks?
Reordering medications from the supplier
187
Which safety precaution should be performed when dispensing methotrexate tablets?
Avoid handling broken tablets
188
What is an example of tall man lettering?
ALPRAZolam
189
Liraglutide is classified as hazardous because it can cause harm to an unborn baby. Which term best describes this potential adverse effect?
Teratogenic
190
Look-alike/sound-alike medications are found on the Institute for Safe Medication Practices List of:
Confused Drug Names
191
Which medication would you generally need to double-count?
Alprazolam C-IV
192
Which type of alert would most likely show up when filling an Accutane prescription for a woman of child-bearing age?
Drug-Condition
193
Ms. Sampson has two prescription insurance plans. What's the process called when you submit a claim to both of her insurances for a medication?
Coordination of benefits
194
Which supplies are needed when filling a prescription for potassium chloride 20 mEq/15 mL oral solution?
Funnel and graduated cylinder
195
What temperature range should room temperature products be stored in the pharmacy?
59°F to 86°F
196
You are stocking inventory and notice a bottle of metoprolol tartrate 50 mg has an expiration date of January 2022. When will the product expire?
January 31, 2022
197
What temperature range is proper refrigerator temperature?
2°C to 8°C
198
Which inventory responsibility is usually assigned to a pharmacy technician?
Storing and placing stock in the pharmacy
199
A pharmacist usually handles which inventory responsibility?
Controlling par levels for perpetual inventory
200
Which temperature range should frozen medications be stored at inside the pharmacy?
-25°C to -10°C
201
According to the product label, Varivax should be stored at -15°C prior to reconstitution. Based on this information, where should you store the medication?
In the freezer
202
Which pharmacy zone should a Proair HFA inhaler be stored?
Prescription needed
203
Ms. Berger needs help locating items from her shopping list. Which item is generally found behind the counter in the pharmacy?
Pseudoephedrine
204
What is the definition of perpetual inventory?
An ongoing, real-time account of stock levels
205
How is a manual ordering process managed?
Keeping an eye on physical levels of current stock
206
How is a manufacturer, when used as a supplier, described?
Provides limited distribution or meds have special storage requirements
207
What is the reorder point for a specific medication called?
Par level
208
Which order check-in step ensures items that are supposed to be delivered have been delivered?
Marking off items on the packing slip as they're removed from the bin
209
Which type of ordering process provides a listing of all products that need to be replenished?
Automated
210
Which order check-in step maintains pharmacy compliance?
Filing the order invoice appropriately
211
Which type of supplier is used first when products are needed before the pharmacy warehouse delivery?
Preferred supplier
212
When a quantity level discrepancy is discovered for a medication, how should it be handled?
Research the discrepancy to see if it warrants the need to update the quantity.
213
Why are recalled meds sent back to the pharmacy's supplier?
The supplier or FDA sent a notice of meds that need to be sent back.
214
In regard to inventory, what is automatic drug substitution?
When a supplier is out of stock of a med and sends a different size or manufacturer
215
What strategy is used to provide affordable medication options to pharmacies?
Automatic drug substitutions
216
Which scenario can make a pharmacy a target for robbery?
Leaving the pharmacy door open
217
How should you handle meds that need to be returned to the supplier?
Place meds that need to be returned in a designated area.
218
Why would a pharmacy send back overstock items to their supplier?
The pharmacy can earn credit for meds they likely won't use.
219
What is it called when a supplier sends another size or manufacturer of a medication because it's less costly?
Automatic drug substitution
220
Which strategy is used to reduce the amount of medication the pharmacy has out of stock?
Automatic drug substitution
221
Why are short-dated products sometimes sent back to the pharmacy's supplier?
Because patients likely won't use the meds before they expire
222
Where should non-controlled meds that are waiting to be returned to the supplier be stored?
Out of workflow
223
Which situation is a red flag for diversion?
Missing a large quantity of expensive medication
224
Which type of ordering process provides a listing of all products that need to be replenished?
Automated
225
What strategy is the most appropriate to manage drug shortages?
Know when to allocate short supply meds
226
Which DAW code can be used during a drug shortage when the generic product is not available in the marketplace?
8
227
What example best describes a Class III recall?
A switch between types of blue dye in a tablet.
228
What is one of the most common causes of drug shortages?
Drug recalls
229
Medication therapy management refers to the:
Resolution of medication-related problems
230
Where is the best place to find drug shortage lists to monitor?
FDA
231
Why is medication therapy management beneficial?
It optimizes patient medication regimens
232
Which criteria does the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services require patients to meet for medication therapy management services?
Are on multiple meds and have multiple chronic conditions
233
Which duty can pharmacy technicians do to help with medication therapy management services?
Manage appointments
234
How does a targeted medication review differ from a comprehensive medication review?
A comprehensive medication review is done annually while a targeted medication review is done when issues come up.
235
Enhanced patient care services that focus on identification and resolution of drug-related issues, usually involving the creation of a medication action plan, is known as:
MTM
236
What is a factor when determining a patient's eligibility for MTM services?
Number of disease states
237
What does "MAP" stand for?
Medication Action Plan
238
What is an MTM function that techs can perform in most states?
Notify eligible patients of their MTM eligibility
239
Which item should patients bring to their MTM appointments?
Medication list
240
You've been working at a local retail pharmacy for two months that offers several health and wellness programs. Depending on your state law, which duty are you allowed to perform since you're a new employee?
Identify patients who are eligible for health and wellness services
241
What is the primary purpose of pharmacy health and wellness programs?
Help patients prevent, identify, and manage acute and chronic conditions
242
Which test determines appropriate warfarin therapy?
INR (International Normalized Ratio - time it takes a blood sample to clot)
243
Which duty can a pharmacy technician perform pertaining to health and wellness, depending on state law?
Manage documentation for health screenings
244
What does an HCV test screen for?
Hepatitis C
245
What is one benefit health and wellness services provide to pharmacies?
Additional income
246
Mr. Bean has high blood pressure and is thinking of participating in your pharmacy's hypertension wellness program. What would be a benefit for Mr. Bean if he participated in the program?
Provides monitoring, consultation, and medication adjustment recommendations in one healthcare visit
247
Which test screens for prostate cancer?
PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen - Presence of prostate-specific antigens
in the blood)
248
What is an MTM function that techs can perform in most states?
Notify eligible patients of their MTM eligibility
249
What does a TSH test diagnose or monitor for?
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone - Amount of thyroid stimulating
hormone in the blood
250
A patient-centered document that includes all medications, indications, directions, and prescriber information is known as:
PML -patient medication list
251
What details should be included on a med list or history?
Medication name, strength, and dosing schedule
252
What is a "best possible" medication list or history?
Contains all the medications a patient is taking, by any route, from any source, whether or not they require a prescription
253
When would a patient likely have changes to their medication list?
After visiting the prescriber's office
254
What is the difference between medication lists and medication histories?
Medication history is a term used more frequently in the hospital setting.
255
When gathering patient medication information, what is a good communication practice?
Make eye contact
256
Ms. Gonzales has been feeling better after taking her medication, so she decided to stop taking it to see if she needs it anymore. This is an example of:
Intentional nonadherence
257
How can pharmacy technicians help patients adhere to their medication regimens?
Explain pharmacy delivery services.
258
What can happen when patients are nonadherent to their medication regimens?
Endure withdrawal symptoms
259
Medication adherence can be described as:
Following directions for taking medications
260
What is a characteristic of someone who is at risk for medication nonadherence?
Complains about side effects
261
How does a viral vector vaccine work?
Uses a separate, modified virus to deliver genetic material to make a protein from the targeted pathogen
262
How does a conjugate subunit vaccine work?
Uses pieces of the bacteria's polysaccharide coat that are linked to a carrier protein
263
Prevnar 20 is an example of which type of vaccine?
Conjugate
264
How long does it generally take to establish immunity after receiving the final dose of a vaccine?
2 weeks
265
Which vaccine could have yeast cell culture remnants?
Recombivax HB
266
Hepatitis A is an example of which type of vaccine?
Inactivated
267
What’s the purpose for adding aminoglycosides to some vaccines?
To prevent the growth of bacteria during production of the vaccine
268
Which vaccine is a toxoid vaccine?
Tetanus
269
What’s the purpose for using formaldehyde in some vaccines?
To kill pathogens or inactivate toxins
270
What is an advantage of a live attenuated vaccine?
Antibody response is close to a natural infection
271
How often should you have your patients fill out a vaccine screening questionnaire and consent form?
Each time they get a vaccine
272
What is the minimum amount of time that a patient needs to wait after receiving a blood product before receiving a varicella vaccine?
3 months
273
Mr. Silva tells you he had swelling in his face and wheezing a few minutes after receiving his last tetanus booster. What kind of reaction did Mr. Silva experience?
Anaphylactic reaction
274
In which section of the immunization schedule will you find more information on additional risk factors and other indications?
Notes
275
Which strategy could you use to identify patients who may be eligible for immunization?
Check their medical conditions
276
Which vaccine may interact with oseltamivir?
FluMist Quadrivalent
277
What should you consider when a patient is scheduled to receive two adjuvanted vaccines on the same day?
The patient may have more side effects.
278
Which vaccine should pregnant patients receive to keep themselves and their baby healthy?
Inactivated influenza
279
Mrs. Ellis is receiving a shingles vaccine today. If she has Medicare, which part will you bill?
Part D
280
What temperature range should a refrigerator that stores vaccines be kept between?
2 to 8°C
281
The vaccine order arrived at the pharmacy. What is the first step you should take?
Tend to the shipment immediately to ensure the vaccines arrived in good condition.
282
A patient with Medicare is receiving a seasonal influenza vaccine in your pharmacy. Which Medicare Part will you bill?
Part B
283
Which strategy can help prevent errors when processing prescriptions for Tdap and DTap vaccines?
Being aware of vaccine abbreviations that lead to errors.
284
How often should you check the pharmacy’s refrigerator and freezer temperature if a continuous monitoring device is not available?
Twice per day
285
You’re training a new technician to enter orders into the pharmacy computer. Which classification will you tell the new technician vaccines are under?
Prescription only
286
According to federal law, when must you dispense a VIS to a patient receiving a human papillomavirus vaccine?
Before each dose
287
Which strategy is useful to ensure the correct vaccine is selected?
Read the brand name on the package
288
A patient of average size will be given a subcutaneous vaccine injection. Which length of needle will you need to select?
5/8"
289
What is an example of a nonemergent systemic adverse reaction to a vaccine?
Fever
290
Why should a patient remain seated after receiving a vaccination?
In case they have systemic adverse reactions
291
A patient is receiving 0.5 mL of Shingrix vaccine. Which size syringe will you select?
3 mL
292
What info must be documented on a vaccination administration record form?
Vaccine lot number
293
Which degree angle does a needle need to be when an intramuscular vaccine is administered?
90
294
Which is an example of a local reaction to a vaccine?
Pain at injection site
295
When putting up a vaccine order, if a vaccine has an expiration date of 7/2024, which is the last day it can be administered to a patient?
7/31/2024
296
Mr. Russo had an anaphylactic reaction to an influenza vaccine. Which symptom did Mr. Russo likely experience?
Difficulty breathing
297
You hear a patient tell the pharmacist "I heard vaccines cause autism." What is the most appropriate response by the pharmacist?
"This hasn't been proven, and most childhood vaccines no longer contain thimerosal or mercury."
298
What does a yellow bar mean on a child and adolescent immunization schedule?
Range of recommended ages for all children
299
Which time is most appropriate to assess the patient's immunization status?
When enrolling a new patient
300
Which regulatory body is responsible for publishing the immunization schedules each year?
CDC
301
Which routine vaccine would typically be given to a pregnant patient?
Tdap
302
According to federal law, which document must be presented to a patient receiving a COVID-19 vaccine?
EUA fact sheet
303
What does a standing order allow?
A pharmacist to order vaccines for patients without an Rx from their prescriber
304
Which vaccine is covered under Medicare Part B?
Pneumococcal
305
Which vaccine is grown in chicken egg cell culture?
Afluria Quadrivalent
306
A patient with which symptom can usually be vaccinated with a hepatitis B vaccine?
Diarrhea
307
A patient received the last dose of MMR vaccine series 2 weeks ago. When is the earliest he can receive a dose of a varicella-containing vaccine?
2 weeks
308
Which type of vaccine is created from a substance produced by certain bacteria?
Toxoid
309
What time of the year should you begin to offer the flu vaccine to patients?
Late summer/early fall
310
Varivax is which type of vaccine?
Live attenuated
311
Which medication should be avoided for at least 24 hours before receiving a varicella vaccine?
Valacyclovir
312
What is an example of a mRNA vaccine?
Coronavirus 19
313
A coworker accidentally pulled Adacel out of the refrigerator instead of Daptacel for a vaccine order. Which strategy can help prevent this error in the future?
Use bar-code scanning to check the product matches the label.
314
What is a vaccine?
Weakened or killed bacteria or virus that triggers immunity
315
What is an advantage of a live attenuated vaccine?
Antibody response is close to a natural infection
316
How does a conjugate subunit vaccine work?
Uses pieces of the bacteria's polysaccharide coat that are linked to a carrier protein
317
In which section of the immunization schedule will you find more information on additional risk factors and other indications?
Notes
318
Why are stabilizers used in some vaccines?
To protect the vaccine from heat, light, acidity, or humidity
319
Which medication can cause Reye’s syndrome if a patient takes it within six weeks after receiving a varicella-containing vaccine?
Aspirin
320
Which is a primary function of a medication reconciliation technician?
Gathering a list of the patient's medications
321
A thorough medication reconciliation will always contain the drug's:
Strength
322
An omission error occurs when a patient:
Has a disease, but is not taking any medications to treat it
323
Which is an example of a duplication error?
Two of the same antiseizure medications are taken at once
324
Which is an example of an incorrect dose error?
Antibiotic dose is too high for patient's infection
325
Which is an example of a drug-drug interaction error?
Multiple combined medications causing severe high blood pressure
326
Which resource contains enough meds to serve people in several large cities at the same time?
Healthcare Ready
327
Which type of emergency is a pandemic?
Natural disaster
328
A sudden and serious disruption of the functioning of a community causing widespread losses is known as a(n):
Disaster
329
Which resource serves as a guide to the federal government's emergency response?
National Response Framework
330
Who is sent by FEMA to provide medical care to patients affected by a disaster?
Disaster Medical Assistance Teams
331
Which federal government agency assesses vulnerabilities and threats to the U.S.?
DHS
332
According to the Emergency Prescription Assistance Program, how often can prescriptions be renewed for eligible patients in federal disaster areas?
30 days
333
Who should be located outside of your local area for your emergency plan?
Emergency responders
334
What can you offer to patients to help prevent pandemics?
Vaccinations
335
Whose emergency plans should you know?
Family's work sites
336
Ensuring employees take breaks and eat food during an emergency is part of which pharmacy emergency plan?
Safety
337
An element for an emergency plan is:
Establish a meeting place
338
When a hurricane is headed toward the island you live on, you should evacuate:
As quickly as possible
339
Who is likely responsible for setting up Basic Life Support training for employees to prepare for emergency situations?
Program committee
340
Prepare your pharmacy for an emergency by:
Anticipating supply chain problems
341
During an emergency, a shelter may require your pet's:
Immunization records
342
How much water should be included in your emergency kit for one person?
1 gallon per day
343
Besides your own emergency plan, which other should you know?
Employer
344
What is one essential item needed in an emergency kit?
Batteries.
345
What training would the pharmacy's emergency program committee set up?
Basic life support
346
During an emergency, a pharmacy staffing plan ensures employees:
Don't work too many hours in a day
347
How can your pharmacy prepare for an emergency?
Maintain medication inventory
348
What element is part of an emergency plan?
Have an evacuation plan
349
How many parts of sodium chloride 0.45% are in 100 parts of solution?
0.45
350
Express rubbing alcohol 70% as a decimal.
0.7
351
How is hydrocortisone 2.5% written as a fraction?
2.5/100
352
You have 40 parts bleach in 100 parts water. How is this expressed as a percent?
40%
353
Convert 0.0045 to a percent.
0.45%
354
Why were USP <795> guidelines created?
To ensure patients benefit without significant risk of med errors
355
Which statement best describes the process of combining, admixing, diluting, pooling, reconstituting, or altering a drug or bulk drug product is known as what?
Nonsterile compounding
356
You compounded a nonsterile cream for Mr. Kim. Which documentation would you find the ingredients' lot numbers on?
Compounding Record
357
Which beyond-use date is assigned for nonpreserved, aqueous nonsterile compounds?
14 days
358
Which USP chapter regulates nonsterile compounding?
795
359
What must be included on the label of a nonsterile compound?
Beyond-use date
360
Where can you find all the information necessary to compound an oral suspension for Ms. Ahmed?
Master Formulation Record
361
Which type of product can be made by nonsterile compounding?
Topical creams
362
Which duty may pharmacy technicians, who are trained in nonsterile compounding, perform according to most state laws?
Combine and mix ingredients.
363
If you prepare a nonsterile, nonaqueous oral liquid for Mr. Kelly, what is the maximum beyond-use date you could put on the Rx label?
3 months
364
Which resource does Dawn need to perform nonhazardous, nonsterile compounding?
A designated area
365
You are compounding a suspension for Ms. Kobayashi that requires the crushing of tablets. Which piece of equipment would you use?
Mortar and pestle
366
Which piece of equipment is suitable for measuring exact volumes of liquids?
Graduated cylinder
367
Which step should be performed to maintain proper hygiene before performing nonsterile compounding?
Remove jewelry and sweaters
368
You are asked to mix a powder and an ointment together for your patient, Ms. Nguyen. Which piece of equipment will help you transfer the dry powder?
Hard rubber spatula
369
Mr. Huang's nonsterile compound requires you to grind a crystalline powder into a fine powder with a mortar and pestle. Which compounding technique is this?
Trituration
370
Which compounding technique uses an agent to help combine an insoluble solid with a cream or ointment?
Levigation
371
After preparing a compounded nonsterile product, what item must be discarded before leaving the compounding area?
Gloves
372
What is the general compounding term used for reducing a substance to fine particles?
Comminution
373
Mr. Harris' nonsterile compound is finished. Which personal protective equipment can be reused if it's in good condition?
Gown
374
What is the general compounding term used for mixing two substances together?
Blending
375
Ms. Adino's nonsterile compound requires you to start with the smallest quantity ingredient and add an equal amount of the second ingredient in a series of steps. Which compounding technique is this called?
Geometric dilution
376
Which beyond-use date is given to nonsterile compounded suppositories?
180 days
377
Which information must be included on the label of a nonsterile product?
Storage conditions, if kept at anything besides room temperature
378
Which type of product falls under nonsterile compounding regulations?
Compounding kits
379
An admitting order is a medication order that is filled when the patient is:
First accepted into the hospital
380
Many inpatient medications are dosed on the patient's:
Weight
381
A computerized method of sending medication orders to the pharmacy is called:
CPOE (Computerized Prescriber
Order Entry)
382
What is an example of a medication order that is filled when the patient is leaving the hospital?
Discharge
383
What is an example of a medication order that must be filled quickly?
STAT
384
All inpatient medication orders should contain the patient's:
Date of birth
385
The information on a (inpatient) hospital medication label usually requires the patient's:
Room number
386
Pregnant women should always use gloves when handling which medication?
Dutasteride
387
Which medication dosage form needs a "shake well" auxiliary sticker?
Suspension
388
What are unit-dose medications?
A packaged single dose of a medication
389
A chemotherapy auxiliary sticker is usually which color?
Yellow
390
Which medication needs a "do not shake" auxiliary sticker?
Epoetin solution
391
Which product is required to be sterile?
Epidural injection
392
Which is an example of what USP <797> covers?
Aseptic compounding by pharmacy
393
Which is an example of a compounded sterile preparation?
A live tissue soak
394
If a product is sterile, it is free from:
Microorganisms
395
Which description applies to an ampule?
Sterile, sealed container made of thin glass
396
The buffer room must be at least which ISO class?
7
397
The pharmacy's buffer room is used for:
Compounding sterile products
398
Which action is performed in the anteroom?
Storing supplies for sterile compounds
399
Which room in the pharmacy is used for storing compounding supplies?
Ante
400
The area inside the PEC must be at least which ISO class?
5
401
Rosemarie, a pharmacy technician, is about to aseptically wash her hands. She first wets her hands. What is she supposed to do next?
Take out the nail pick and clean underneath her fingernails
402
What is an advantage of hand hygiene?
It helps prevent contamination of the sterile product
403
Where is aseptic handwashing usually performed?
Anteroom
404
Which items are usually garbed before hand hygiene?
Beard cover, hair cover, and face mask
405
Why is PPE important?
Prevents contamination of compounds
406
What can you tell a colleague about PPE?
Sterile gowns can be reused if they aren't contaminated
407
A PEC should be cleaned:
At the beginning of every shift
408
The air flows top-to-bottom in which type of PEC?
Vertical
409
The HEPA filter in the PEC needs to be changed at least every:
Six months
410
You are about to use a sterilizing agent to clean your PEC before sterile compounding. Which product must you use to sterilize your PEC?
70% sterile isopropyl alcohol
411
What is the PEC workbench primarily used for?
To place sterile compounding items
412
Which type of PEC must be used to compound hazardous meds?
CACI
413
What is the first area that should be cleaned in the LAFW?
Ceiling
414
Which part of the needle is safe to touch?
Cap
415
A luer-to-luer connector is used to:
Split the contents of one syringe into two syringes
416
The slanted end of the needle is called the:
Bevel
417
Which part of the syringe has volume demarcations?
Barrel
418
Which supply item can be used to help prevent foaming when adding diluent to powdered medications?
Vented needle
419
The device that's used to prevent contamination of the syringe during transport is a syringe:
Cap
420
Which needle gauge is generally used in most sterile compounding?
18G - 22 G
421
When sterile compounding, which length needle will you normally use?
1" - 1.5"
422
A filter needle is used to withdraw contents from an ampule to:
Prevent glass from drawing up into the syringe
423
Jenny needs to puncture the same vial multiple times, but she's worried about coring.
What supply item should she use to prevent coring?
Dispensing pin
424
Which supply item should be used to protect an IV prep from light?
Amber bag
425
An order calls for furosemide in dextrose 5% in water. Which base solution bag should you pull?
D5W
426
What is a yellow sharps container primarily used for?
Trace hazardous medications
427
It's January 1, and Maria just compounded an order for calcium chloride. She notices the drug is in a multi-dose vial, but the label has no stated beyond-use date.
Which beyond-use date should she write on the vial?
January 29 (28 days)
428
Which supply item should be used to protect the top of a used vial?
IVA seal
429
What is normal saline?
0.9% sodium chloride
430
The difference between single-dose vials and multi-dose vials is that multi-dose vials:
Usually contain preservatives
431
How many times should you swipe a rubber stopper to sterilize it?
One time
432
What is an advantage of dispensing a medication in an Add-a-Vial system?
A flow hood isn't needed before dispensing
433
Piercing the rubber stopper of the vial with a needle must be done at which angle?
45- to 90-degrees
434
Where are used needles disposed of?
Sharps container
435
George needs to withdraw 10 mL of fluid from a vial. How much air should be in his syringe before he inserts the needle into the vial?
10 mL
436
Milking is the technique used to:
Inject small amounts of air into the vial at a time to prevent leaking
437
The part of the needle that connects to the syringe is called the:
Hub
438
Which part of the syringe is safe to touch?
Knob
439
Which action is typically performed in the buffer room?
Cleaning of the PEC
440
Which item is light-sensitive and may need an amber bag?
Aminophylline
441
What is a common side effect of chemotherapy?
Diarrhea
442
A chemotherapy order comes to your pharmacy for a patient. On the order, you see "dexamethasone 4 mg IV prn fever." Which part of the sig should give the pharmacy concern?
Indication
443
What are cancer drugs also known as?
Chemotherapies
444
Why is an antiemetic given to patients receiving chemotherapy?
Minimize nausea and vomiting
445
Which lab would a pharmacist be most concerned about with chemotherapy?
CBC (blood count) & Kidney (BUN) & Liver (Scr)
446
Which chemotherapy medication pair is a look-alike/sound-alike example?
TaxOTERE and taxOL
447
What is the generic name of Trexall?
Methotrexate
448
You are compounding a chemotherapy medication, and you drop a vial on the ground. The powder spills everywhere. What should you do next?
Isolate the area
449
Which USP chapter requires the use of CSTDs when compounding chemotherapy?
USP 800
450
Which PPE is required to be worn during chemotherapy compounding?
Safety goggles
451
Jenni just finished compounding chemotherapy. Where should she throw her empty medication vial?
Yellow sharps container
452
When compounding chemotherapy, when should the tubing spike be inserted into the IV port?
Before adding chemotherapy to IV bag
453
Which type of flow hood has an acrylic barrier, but the compounder is potentially still exposed to chemotherapy?
BSC
454
Which governmental agency publishes the immunization requirements for children and adults each year?
CDC
455
Which federal agency is responsible for the regulation of labeling on prescription and over-the-counter medications?
FDA
456
Which law requires pharmaceutical manufacturers to prove a drug's purity, strength, and safety before it can be sold?
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
457
A dietary supplement is recalled because it was found to contain ingredients that weren't listed on the label. It's considered:
Adulterated
458
The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951:
Created two classes of medications, prescription and nonprescription
459
According to the Poison Prevention Act of 1970, which medication class can be dispensed in a non-child-resistant package in an outpatient setting?
Oral contraceptives
460
Which regulatory agency is responsible for creating standards for packaging to protect children from accidental poisonings with medications?
Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)
461
According to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970, a Symbicort inhaler:
Can be dispensed in a non-child-resistant container
462
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 is responsible for requiring:
Child-resistant caps on prescriptions
463
Which medication must be accompanied by a patient package insert?
Cenestin
464
Patient package inserts contain information about the:
Benefits and risks of using a medication
465
The Hatch-Waxman Act:
Allowed manufacturers to submit ANDAs for generic medications
466
The Hatch-Waxman Act is also known as the:
Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984
467
Which law requires the pharmacist to consult about new prescriptions with patients?
OBRA '90
468
Which section of the NDC identifies the name, strength, and dosage form of the medication?
Second
469
Each new drug is required to have an NDC number according to the:
Drug Listing Act of 1972
470
The NDC number for Benicar 40 mg is 65597-104-30. The "30" identifies:
Package size
471
A 10- or 11-digit number divided into three segments located on a medication container is known as the:
National Drug Code
472
Which law requires manufacturer claims about vitamins and minerals to be true?
DSHEA
473
Which section of the NDC identifies the manufacturer?
First
474
Which medication must have an imprint code?
Fluconazole 150 mg tablet
475
While filling Ms. Mason's prescription, you accidentally printed two labels. According to HIPAA, how should you handle the extra label?
Put it in the bin to be shredded
476
Federal law says that your pharmacy must complete a controlled substance inventory once every two years. Your state law says that your pharmacy must complete a controlled substance inventory every year. How often should your pharmacy complete a controlled substance inventory?
Once a year
477
According to HIPAA, which is considered protected health information?
Patient's prescription record
478
Which regulatory body requires certain medications to be dispensed with Medication Guides?
FDA
478
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996:
Governs patient privacy and the sharing of patient information
479
Which is a principle of HIPAA?
To use and disclose the minimum necessary amount of protected information
480
When must you provide a Medication Guide for medications that require one?
When an inpatient asks for a Medication Guide
481
Which organization must the Investigational New Drug application be filed with?
FDA
482
What is an investigational drug?
A drug compound undergoing clinical testing in humans
483
Which involves introducing a drug for the first time in humans?
Phase 1 Testing
484
Which responsibility may be performed by an IDS technician?
Drug preparation
485
FDA may approve a Biologics License Application if the biologic proves to be:
Safe and effective
486
Which committee approves patient consent forms and protects the welfare of drug research volunteers?
IRB
487
Which type of drug is involved in a Class III recall?
Drugs unlikely to cause adverse events
488
A drug is usually permanently withdrawn from the market because it is considered:
Harmful
489
Which is an example of a medication that is part of a Class II recall?
A contaminated medication that could cause temporary, but reversible adverse effects
490
An injectable medication is recalled because it contains pieces of steel. Since this is likely to cause life-threatening adverse effects, it's an example of a:
Class I recall
491
Who usually makes the decision to recall a drug product?
Drug company
492
When a generic medication is identical in active ingredients, strength, dosage form, and route of administration as the brand-name product, it is considered a(n):
Pharmaceutical equivalent
493
A brand-name drug that is relabeled and marketed under a generic product name is a(n):
Authorized generic
494
FDA approved an ANDA. This means a manufacturer:
Can bring a generic medication to market
495
Which resource contains TE codes to help guide generic substitution?
Orange Book
496
If a product has a therapeutic equivalency code that begins with a "B" in the Orange Book, this means the product:
Does not meet necessary requirements to be equivalent
497
When you receive a new drug in the pharmacy, what's the medication under?
Protected brand name
498
A therapeutic alternative is a drug that:
Contains a different active ingredient, but is in the same drug class and works similarly
499
A drug that contains the same active ingredient, but is a different strength is considered a:
Pharmacologic alternative
500
Topamax is an immediate-release topiramate tablet. Trokendi XR is an extended-release topiramate tablet. Both medications are used to treat the same condition. Topamax and Trokendi XR are:
Pharmacologic alternatives
501
Quetiapine and aripiprazole are both atypical antipsychotics used to treat psychiatric disorders. Quetiapine and aripiprazole are therapeutic alternatives because they:
Contain different active ingredients, but in the same drug class
502
A system that allows pharmacists to automatically substitute with certain pharmacologic or therapeutic alternatives without calling the prescriber each time is known as a:
Collaborative Agreement
503
Which DAW code is rarely used and currently not in use?
9
504
What does DAW 3 mean?
Substitution is allowed by the prescriber, but the pharmacist determines brand should be dispensed
505
Which DAW code means that substitution is not allowed since the dispensing of the brand-name drug is mandated by law?
7
506
Which DAW code means the brand-name product is dispensed as generic?
5
507
Which DAW code means that substitution is not allowed by the prescriber?
1
508
Which DAW code means that substitution is allowed by the prescriber, but the patient is requesting the brand-name product to be dispensed?
1
509
Which DAW code means that substitution is allowed by the prescriber, but the patient is requesting the brand-name product to be dispensed?
2
510
Which DAW code means that no product selection is indicated and substitution is allowed?
0
511
