Public Health

Question 1

Describe the process of disposal of the dead
when there is no next of kin available to
arrange a funeral.

Answer 1

Local Authorities can arrange cremations or
burials, recover costs from the deceased’s
estate, and follow specific procedures to
search the residence, find necessary
documents, and register the death.

Question 2

How does the repatriation process for
deceased individuals work, especially when
the body is being taken out of the UK?

Answer 2

The funeral director must obtain permission
from the local coroner, provide various
documents, ensure embalming, and meet
specific requirements before transporting the
body to the destination country.

Question 3

Define embalming and explain its purpose in
the context of preserving a body

Answer 3

Embalming involves injecting embalming fluid
to preserve a body, improve its appearance,
and prevent decay. It requires specific
protective gear, family permission, and may
involve wax for damaged areas.

Question 4

What are the considerations and procedures
involved in private burials, especially in terms
of public health, planning, and groundwater
impact?

Answer 4

Private burials should consider public health
laws, planning permissions, and groundwater
protection regulations. SEPA
recommendations include using
biodegradable coffins, keeping records, and
avoiding specific distances from water
sources.

Question 5

Describe the process and challenges
associated with exhumations in Scotland,
including the legal steps and authorities
involved.

Answer 5

Exhumations in Scotland require legal
authorization, involvement of next of kin,
solicitors, cemetery administrators, and the
Sheriff. The process is complex, costly, and
time-consuming for all parties.

Question 6

Explain the concept of communicable
diseases and how they are managed under
the Public Health (Scotland) Act 2008.

Answer 6

Communicable diseases are illnesses that can
spread between individuals. Outbreaks are
identified through linked cases, and
responsible authorities like LAs and HPA/HPS
manage notifiable diseases as per the Act’s
Schedule 1.

Question 7

Describe the purpose of a quarantine order
under the Public Health (Scotland) Act.

Answer 7

A quarantine order allows a health board to
detain a person in their house of residence or
another place to prevent the spread of
infectious diseases.

Question 7

Define a public health incident as per the Act.

Answer 7

A public health incident occurs when a person
has an infectious disease, has been exposed
to an organism causing infectious disease, is
contaminated, exposed to a contaminant, or
when premises are infected, infested, or
contaminated.

Question 8

How is an outbreak control plan structured
between Health Boards and Local Authorities?

Answer 8

An outbreak control plan details
arrangements and actions for setting up an
Outbreak Control Team (OCT), describes roles
of key members, provides aim statements,
and sets out arrangements for patient care
and public information.

Question 9

Describe the role of a Problem Assessment
Group (PAG) in outbreak control.

Answer 9

A PAG is an informal meeting between public
health officials, microbiologists, and EHOs to
decide if an Outbreak Control Team (OCT) is
needed based on the severity, spread, and
immediate health hazard of a disease
outbreak.

Question 9

What is the purpose of a Section 73 Notice
under the Public Health (Scotland) Act 2008?

Answer 9

A Section 73 Notice places a duty on the
owner or occupier of infected premises to
disinfect, disinfest, or decontaminate within a
specified time period.

Question 9

How does integrated pest management work
in pest control?

Answer 9

Integrated pest management is a planned
program that includes continuous monitoring,
education, record-keeping, and
communication to prevent pests and disease
vectors from causing damage by using the ER-D principle: Exclusion, Restriction, and
Destruction.

Question 10

Describe the process of assessing and solving
pest problems in an area like Govanhill.

Answer 10

Identify reasons for pest attraction, evaluate
if good housekeeping can solve the issue,
consider non-chemical methods, choose
appropriate chemical pesticides, and assess
post-treatment actions.

Question 10

Define the identification characteristics of a
Brown Rat.

Answer 10

Coarse brown fur, hairless ears, tail shorter
than body, terrestrial, and occupies areas
with humans.

Question 11

How can rodent activity be detected in a
building?

Answer 11

Look for droppings, grease smears, UV-visible
urine, odors, runways, tracks, gnawing
damage, and nests.

Question 12

Describe the health risks associated with
cockroaches.

Answer 12

They can cause allergies, contaminate food
with pathogens like salmonella, and transport
disease-causing organisms.

Question 13

What are the signs of a bed bug infestation?

Answer 13

Presence in mattresses, behind furniture,
blood spotting, sweet smell, live or dead
bugs, eggs, and customer complaints

Question 13

Explain the impacts of stored product insects
on goods.

Answer 13

They cause weight loss in products, economic
losses, damage to goodwill, loss of
production, and require strict monitoring and
cleaning measures.

Question 14

How can bed bug infestations be treated?

Answer 14

Through physical removal of infected items,
vacuuming, heat treatment, steam treatment,
cold treatment, mattress encasements, and
approved chemical methods.

Question 14

Describe the factors that authorities should
consider when determining if a nuisance
exists based on the impact on individuals.

Answer 14

Authorities should consider the degree of
health risk interference, the number of people
affected, the distance from the source, and
the sensitivity of the receptor

Question 15

Define the term ‘statutory nuisances’ as per
the Environmental Protection Act 1990.

Answer 15

Statutory nuisances include various
conditions such as smoke, fumes, noise, dust,
and accumulations that are prejudicial to
health or a nuisance.

Question 15

How does the time of occurrence impact the
perception of nuisances like odours?

Answer 15

Odours are typically more bothersome when
the public is outdoors, affecting the degree of
annoyance and impact.

Question 16

Describe the significance of frequency in
determining a nuisance.

Answer 16

Frequent or continuous nuisances are more
likely to be considered a nuisance compared
to those that occur infrequently

Question 17

Define the concept of ‘avoidability’ in the
context of nuisance abatement.

Answer 17

Avoidability refers to whether reasonable
steps have been taken to minimize the
impact of an activity, even if it holds social
importance

Question 18

How does convention play a role in determining what constitutes a nuisance?

Answer 18

Convention considers what a reasonable person would find objectionable, taking into account common practices and accepted behaviors in a given area

Question 19

Describe the concept of statutory nuisance as outlined in the content.

Answer 19

Statutory nuisance refers to any accumulation, deposit, animal, noise, or other matter declared prejudicial to health or a nuisance by law, which can lead to legal action.

Question 20

Define the 'best practicable means' defense mentioned in the content.

Answer 20

The 'best practicable means' defense refers to the statutory provision that exempts industrial or trade premises from liability for nuisances if they can prove they have taken all reasonable steps to prevent or minimize the nuisance.

Question 20

How does the Sewerage (Scotland) Act 1968 address defective drainage issues?

Answer 20

The Act allows for serving notices to owners/occupiers of properties with defective drainage, giving them 7 days to rectify the issue. If not fixed, the council can carry out default work and recover expenses.

Question 21

Describe the purpose of Section 95 of the Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982.

Answer 21

Section 95 aims to keep open and private spaces free from dangers and nuisances, allowing local authorities to issue notices for the removal of waste or vegetation causing hazards.

Question 22

What does the Prevention of Damage by Pests Act 1949 entail?

Answer 22

The Act empowers councils to issue notices to landowners for rat and mice control, requiring specific treatments or repairs. Failure to comply may lead to the council conducting the works and recovering expenses.

Question 22

What is the purpose of a fixed penalty notice in accordance with section 80?

Answer 22

To offer the opportunity of discharging any liability to conviction by payment of a fixed penalty

Question 22

Describe the consequences of failing to comply with a notice served by the Local Authority

Answer 22

It is considered an offence, and the person may face legal consequences.

Question 23

Define 'best practicable means' in the context of non-compliance with an abatement notice.

Answer 23

It refers to using the most effective methods available to address the issue, subject to the discretion of the Local Authority

Question 24

How are default works carried out by the Local Authority prioritized?

Answer 24

Considerations include the number of people affected, health impact, cost-effectiveness, permanence of the repair, duration of the nuisance, property damage, living space impact, owner availability, funding sources, and likelihood of recurrence.

Question 24

Describe the process when a matter regarding non-compliance is referred to the Procurator Fiscal.

Answer 24

Factors considered include the recipient's efforts to comply, level of cooperation, previous default works, involvement of other agencies, complainant satisfaction, and feedback from the Procurator Fiscal office.

Question 25

What are the main duties outlined for addressing health issues such as dirty houses, common stairs, defective drains, and infestations?

Answer 25

Legislation specifies requirements for cleansing, maintenance, repair, and prevention of health hazards, with potential penalties for non-compliance.

Question 26

Describe the process of breakpoint chlorination in pool water treatment.

Answer 26

Breakpoint chlorination involves adding chlorine to a pool to form monochloramine and then dichloramine. As more chlorine is added, chloramines break up until a point where free chlorine rises without an increase in combined chlorine, indicating successful oxidation of pollutants.

Question 27

Define Cryptosporidium and its transmission.

Answer 27

Cryptosporidium is a single-celled parasitic protozoan that causes symptoms like watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. It is transmitted via the fecal-oral route.

Question 27

How can the risk of infections in swimming pools be minimized?

Answer 27

Risk of infections in swimming pools can be minimized by encouraging pre-swim showers, ensuring swimmers use toilets before swimming, not allowing swimmers with recent contagious infections, discouraging children under 6 years old, and providing adequate nappy changing facilities

Question 28

Describe the process for handling diarrheal fouling in a pool suspected of Cryptosporidium contamination.

Answer 28

In case of diarrheal fouling, the pool should be closed, disinfectants maintained at a high level, pool vacuumed and swept, filters backwashed, and final disinfectant residual levels and pH values checked. This process is specifically used for suspected Cryptosporidium contamination.

Question 29

What are the swimming pool standards for free chlorine, combined chlorine, pH, alkalinity, hardness, and TDS?

Answer 29

Free chlorine should be 1.5-2.0mg/L, combined chlorine should be less than free chlorine, pH should be 7.2-7.8, alkalinity should be 75-220mg/L, hardness should be 75mg/L, and TDS should be below 1000mg/L, with a maximum of 3000mg/L.

Question 30

Define the term 'coagulation' in the context of water treatment.

Answer 30

Coagulant added to water and mixed, then water passes to flocculation tank for gentle stirring to increase flocculation.

Question 30

What is the purpose of fine screening in water treatment?

Answer 30

Fine screening follows coarse screens and traps fine suspended solids.

Question 31

Describe the process of disinfection in water treatment.

Answer 31

Disinfection reduces microbial numbers to an acceptable level, with methods like ozone, UV, and chlorination used for this purpose.

Question 31

Describe the parameters mentioned in the content related to water quality.

Answer 31

The parameters include coli, copper, lead, THM, hydrogen ion pH, iron, manganese, coliform bacteria, colony count, and Clostridium perfringens.

Question 31

What steps must be taken if samples fail to meet micro and chemical parameters in a Type A PWS?

Answer 31

Relevant persons must be notified immediately, steps for maintenance of the system or distribution system must be identified, and consumers must be informed.

Question 32

Describe the process of issuing a 'boil water' notice as per the content.

Answer 32

If E.coli is present in the water, an unsatisfactory micro test triggers the issuance of a 'boil water' notice to consumers, with further sampling and notifications to relevant authorities.

Question 33

Describe the life cycle of flies such as Lucilia spp

Answer 33

Flies undergo complete metamorphosis with 4 stages: eggs, larva, pupa, and adult. The duration of each stage depends on temperature and food/moisture availability.

Question 34

Define Stored Product Insects (SPI) and provide examples.

Answer 34

SPI are significant pests that spend most of their life in chosen products. Examples include Bruchid Beetle, Dried Fruit Beetle, Flour Mite, Tobacco Beetle, Rice Weevil, and Grain Weevil.

Question 35

How can infestations of Stored Product Insects (SPI) be identified?

Answer 35

Signs of infestation include dead or alive insects, moth webbing, damaged goods, and unusual smells.

Question 36

What are some methods for population reduction of pests like birds

Answer 36

Methods include culling, trapping, stupefying baits, shooting (licensed), egg pricking, egg oiling, and nest destruction.

Question 37

Describe the statutory nuisances related to general health duties.

Answer 37

Statutory nuisances include factors like impact, locality, time, frequency, duration, convention, importance, and avoidability.

Question 38

What are the key aspects of the Prevention of Damage by Pests Act 1949?

Answer 38

The Act requires complete destruction of rats and mice on land, served on the owner, to prevent damage and contamination by pests.

Question 39

Define the responsibilities regarding swimming pools according to relevant legislation.

Answer 39

While there is no specific legislation, responsibilities for swimming pools fall under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, Water Supply Regulations 2001, and Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations 2002.

Question 39

How are licensed activities regulated under the CGA 1982?

Answer 39

Local Authorities attach conditions to licensed activities like street trading, public entertainment, late-night catering, window cleaning, and tattooing before granting a license.

Question 40

Describe the process for dealing with defective drains according to relevant legislation.

Answer 40

Legislation like the Sewerage (Scotland) Act 1968 and the Civic Government Act 1982 outline procedures for identifying and rectifying defective drains, including serving notices to owners for repairs.

Question 41

How are dirty houses and common stairs regulated under the Civic Government Act 1982?

Answer 41

The Act places duties on occupants to keep common property clean, with provisions for LA notices to ensure cleanliness. Failure to comply can result in penalties.

Question 42

What are the criteria for a statutory nuisance under the EPA 1990, Section 79?

Answer 42

Statutory nuisances include various factors like smoke, fumes, dust, water, animals, insects, noise, and other matters that are prejudicial to health or a nuisance, as outlined in the legislation.

Question 43

How are abatement notices served under the EPA 1990, Section 80 enforced?

Answer 43

Local Authorities can serve abatement notices for statutory nuisances, specifying actions required, timeframes, and consequences for non-compliance. Offences can lead to fines or works by default.

Question 44

Describe the process of appealing an abatement notice under the EPA 1990, Section 80.

Answer 44

Individuals have the right to appeal abatement notices within 21 days to a sheriff, presenting defences like reasonable excuse or best practicable means used to address the nuisance.

Question 45

Describe the process outlined in the Sewerage (Scotland) Act 1968 for dealing with defective drainage.

Answer 45

If a drainage defect persists after 7 days, a notice is served on the owner, and the Local Authority can carry out works by default and recover expenses.

Question 46

How can cockroach infestations be controlled through sanitation measures?

Answer 46

By practicing good housekeeping, proper food storage, waste disposal, screening vents and windows, reducing access to water sources, and ensuring regular cleaning of kitchen areas.

Question 47

Define the role of Port Health in relation to international travel and public health.

Answer 47

Port Health conducts inspections on ships arriving from international travel to assess public health risks on board, covering areas like food safety, water quality, medical facilities, waste management, and pest control.

Question 48

What are some signs of a cockroach infestation?

Answer 48

Signs include ootheca cases, dead cockroaches, faeces, and an ammonia smell indicating a heavy infestation.

Question 49

How does the Public Health Act 2008 empower Local Authorities in controlling infections

Answer 49

The Act allows for serving notices on occupiers or owners of infected premises, specifying steps to disinfect or decontaminate, with the authority to take action if steps are not followed

Question 50

Describe the process of notification and investigation of notifiable diseases as per the PHA 2008.

Answer 50

Health boards receive notifications, investigate cases within 1 working day, complete forms to find the source, and may set up Outbreak Control Teams if necessary.

Question 51

Define SSI certificate and its two types

Answer 51

SSI certificate includes Ship Sanitation Control Certificate (SSCC) and Ship Sanitation Control Exemption Certificate (SSCEC). SSCC is issued when a public health risk is detected on board, while SSCEC is given when there is no evidence of such risks.

Question 52

Describe the process of outbreak control in public health incidents.

Answer 52

Outbreak control involves identifying 2 or more linked cases of the same illness or an unusually high number of cases. It can be minor with little intervention or major with heightened media and public interest.

Question 53

How can rodent control be achieved using non-chemical methods?

Answer 53

Non-chemical rodent control methods include trapping using spring traps, back break traps, and glue boards (with caution).

Question 54

What is the first priority of an Integrated Pest Management (IPM) program for insects?

Answer 54

The first priority of an IPM program for insects is to identify and address issues such as droppings, harbourages, sanitation deficiencies, maintenance deficiencies, and educate employees.

Question 55

Describe the life cycle of cockroaches

Answer 55

Cockroaches undergo incomplete metamorphosis, where most species lay eggs in an egg case (ootheca). The egg stage lasts from a few days to a few months, and it takes 1-12 months for them to reach sexual maturity.

Question 56

What are the signs of rodent activity that can be observed?

Answer 56

Signs of rodent activity include droppings, urine (visible under UV light), distinctive odors, runways (indoors and outdoors), grease marks, tracks, gnawing damage, and nests.

Question 57

Describe the process of breakpoint chlorination in water treatment.

Answer 57

Breakpoint chlorination is a process where the addition of chlorine allows the formation of monochloramine and dichloramine. As more chlorine is added, chloramines break up, causing levels to fall to the breakpoint. Free chlorine rises without an increase in combined chlorine.

Question 58

What are the key parameters monitored in Type A public water supply sampling?

Answer 58

Parameters monitored include Enterococci, E.coli, Copper, Lead, THM, pH, Iron, Manganese, Coliform bacteria, Colony count, and C.perfringens.

Question 59

How is a failure investigation conducted in public water supplies

Answer 59

A failure investigation identifies the cause and extent of failure, notifies relevant persons, and takes steps to address issues related to system maintenance or distribution. It involves notifying consumers, potential consumers, and relevant authorities, along with issuing notices and taking remedial actions.

Question 60

Describe the requirements for a Private Water Supply in Scotland.

Answer 60

Private Water Supplies are not provided by a statutory water undertaker, and their maintenance lies with the owner. All PWS must be registered with the local authority, which classifies and maintains a register of these supplies.

Question 61

What are the key parameters in the Drinking Water Quality Standards in Scotland?

Answer 61

Parameters include Total coliforms, Faecal coliforms, Colour, Turbidity, pH, Aluminium, Iron, Manganese, Lead, and THM's, each with specific standards to meet.

Question 62

How is smoking regulated under the Smoking, Health & Social Care (Scotland) Act 2005?

Answer 62

The Act prohibits smoking in no-smoking premises, requires warning notices to be displayed, and outlines specific exemptions such as residential areas, adult hospices, private vehicles (subject to change), designated hotel bedrooms, and certain detention or interview rooms.

Question 63

Describe the documents required for the removal of a body from Scotland.

Answer 63

2 copies of death certificate, FD details at collection point, arrangements for reception and disposal of body, certificates of registration of death, embalming certificate, free from infectious disease certificate, customs clearance, flight details, confirmation from country of destination, and deceased passport.

Question 64

Define the procedure for disposal of the dead under the National Assistance Act 1948.

Answer 64

Local authorities can arrange cremations or burials if there is no next of kin to carry out a funeral. Costs incurred are recovered from the deceased's estate

Question 65

How is embalming defined and what are the requirements for embalmers?

Answer 65

Embalming is the preservation of a body through arterial injection of embalming fluid. Embalmers must wear nitrile gloves, arm protectors, aprons, eye protection, and wellies. Permission from family members is required.

Question 66

Describe the process of private burials and the considerations involved.

Answer 66

There is no law against private burials. Environmental, planning, and public health factors are considered. Bodies are often embalmed and placed in biodegradable coffins away from water sources

Question 67

What are the regulations regarding tobacco control under the Tobacco Primary Medical (Scotland) Act 2010?

Answer 67

Regulations include fixed penalties for traders, restrictions on underage selling, display bans, licensing requirements, and plain packaging rules.

Question 68

Explain the process and requirements for exhumations.

Answer 68

Legal authorization is needed. Next of kin must inquire with the cemetery administrator, contact a solicitor, and obtain a license from the sheriff. The process involves confirming burial details, obtaining feasibility certificates, and ensuring re-interment plans.

Question 69

Define disinfection methods like ozone, UV, and chlorination in water treatment.

Answer 69

Ozone has powerful oxidizing properties, UV is used in small plants, and chlorination is costeffective with residual effects. Chlorination can lead to disinfection byproducts like trihalomethanes, regulated by water quality regulations.

Question 70

Describe the process of clarification in water treatment.

Answer 70

Clarification in water treatment involves removing flocs by allowing them to settle out through sedimentation or using air to float them to the surface through floatation.

Question 70

Describe the concept of wholesomeness in water supply for human consumption.

Answer 70

Water is considered wholesome if it does not contain microbes, parasites, or harmful substances when supplied from a public water source for human consumption

Question 71

Define rapid sand filtration in water treatment

Answer 71

Rapid sand filtration is a physical-chemical process where water is strained through a bed of coarse grain sand, allowing rapid passage due to large gaps, often covered with activated carbon to absorb impurities.

Question 72

Describe the requirements for obtaining a license for riding establishments as per the Riding Establishments Act 1964 & 1970.

Answer 72

Licenses for riding establishments are distributed by the Local Authority for a fee, based on a report from a listed veterinary practitioner, ensuring suitable care, good condition of horses, proper accommodation, hygiene controls, and fire safety procedures.

Question 72

How does slow sand filtration differ from rapid sand filtration in water treatment?

Answer 72

Slow sand filtration is a physical-biological process where water passes through a deep bed of fine sand at a slower flow rate, developing a biologically active layer to breakdown organic matter

Question 73

What are some key aspects covered in the Animal Health & Welfare Act 2006 in Scotland?

Answer 73

The Act details protected animals, offenses related to causing harm, cruel operations, poisoning animals, animal fighting, animals in distress, care notices, licensing of activities involving animals, and prohibitions on keeping certain animals

Question 74

Define coagulation and flocculation in the context of water treatment.

Answer 74

Coagulation and flocculation are processes in water treatment where chemical coagulants with opposite charges are added to water to neutralize particles, allowing them to clump together (flocculate) and form larger flocs that can be easily removed.

Question 74

How can the risk of infections be minimized in swimming pools?

Answer 74

Risk of infections in swimming pools can be minimized by encouraging pre-swim showers, using the toilet before swimming, avoiding swimming with contagious infections, providing nappy changing facilities, and maintaining proper disinfection and filtration processes.

Question 75

Describe the purpose of aeration in treatment processes.

Answer 75

Aeration in water treatment processes helps to improve water quality by increasing dissolved oxygen levels removing soluble gases and volatile organics, reducing acidity and corrosiveness, removing iron and manganese, and enhancing taste.

Question 76

How does micro-straining work in water treatment processes?

Answer 76

Micro-straining involves using a rotating drum with a steel micromesh fabric to trap fine suspended solids (SS) larger than 20 micrometers, such as algae and plankton, thereby improving the operational time of sand filters and reducing clogging rates.

Question 77

Describe the purpose of screening in water treatment.

Answer 77

Screening in water treatment involves the use of bars or drums to remove coarse and fine materials like weeds, branches, and gross debris to prevent damage to subsequent processes, reduce maintenance costs, and ensure the efficient operation of downstream treatment stages.

Question 78

What are some common problems associated with water storage in reservoirs?

Answer 78

Common problems with water storage in reservoirs include atmospheric fallout, bird pollution, algal development affecting taste and odor, the need for large land requirements, and the potential for stratification in deep reservoirs.

Question 79

Explain the key components of a conventional water treatment process

Answer 79

A conventional water treatment process typically includes storage prior to treatment, screening to remove coarse and fine materials, aeration to improve water quality, coagulation and flocculation to neutralize particles, clarification, filtration, disinfection, and final storage before distribution.