Public Health And State Vet Service Flashcards

Question

Dracunculiasis (Guinea worm)

Answer 1

Thread-like nematode. Female can be up to 80 cm in length Transmitted in water containing parasite-infected water fleas Believed to be anthroponotic Huge efforts to control the disease: Absence of vaccine or drugs Rapid identification of cases Bandaging to stop spread of parasite Use of larvicide in water (Abate) Water filtering Health education Previously thought to have no reservoir hosts Recent reports of infected dogs in Chad (1,000 cases in 2016) Dog parasite is genetically the same as human parasite Can these animals act as a reservoir host? Hypothesis: alternative life cycle in fish Dogs eat infected fish Will this prevent Guinea worm from being eradicated? Awareness of animal reservoirs is critical

Answer 2

Caused by Trypanosoma brucei Fatal disease in humans if untreated Only found in sub-Saharan Africa (tsetse belt) Live freely in bloodstream and then invade central nervous system Cattle farming is challenging in the ‘Tsetse belt’ due to risk of trypanosomes Early stage disease Fever, extreme fatigue, severe headaches, swollen lymph glands Late stage disease Progressive confusion, personality changes and sleep disturbance Coma and death if untreated fly takes blood meal, parasite develops in fly fly takes second blood meal from human and transmits the parasite to the blood stream and the skin parasite rapidly develops and disease progresses Parasite remains extracellular Exposed to continuous attack by host antibodies and complement Uses multiple mechanisms to survive fever comes in waves and these Waves of fever correlate with number of parasites in the blood Due to antigenic variation of the surface coat- parasites rpoliferate, are killed then proliferate again ect Parasite is always extracellular and vulnerable to attack VSG helps evade immune system in the following ways: Protective barrier Antigenic variation Rapidly recycled to remove bound complexes Three subspecies of T. brucei which are very closely related: T. brucei brucei Only infects livestock such as cattle Killed by human serum T. brucei rhodesiense Infects humans (acute disease) and livestock T. brucei gambiense Infects humans (chronic disease) and livestock

Answer 3

contains mitochondrial dna t brucei posses this

Answer 4

Bloodstream form T. brucei have a very dense coat made of variant surface glycoprotein (VSG) Attached to surface membrane through a GPI (glycosylphosphatidylinositol) anchor VSG coat covers entire cell including flagellum Immune evasion functions of VSG: Protective barrier Antigenic variation Recycled to remove bound complexes Antigenic variation of VSG and host response: The parasite has over 1500 VSG genes but only one is expressed at a time Host produces antibodies and kills nearly all parasites Surviving parasites are those which express a different VSG Nearly all VSG genes are found in silent arrays Only one gene is expressed at a time from 1 of 15 possible telomeric expression sites (ES) The other 14 ES are transcriptionally silenced Parasite can switch off one ES and switch on a different one Only 15 possibilities: not enough to sustain a long term infection DNA rearrangement: Change VSG gene in the ES Make mosaic VSG genes Massively increases number of possible VSG genes expressed Host antibodies are produced to each VSG when they are expressed Constant battle between host and parasite variation of the surface coat involves the flagellum: Motile flagellum is attached to the outside of the body Motility causes hydrodynamic forces VSG-antibody complex driven towards flagellar pocket- recycling of surface coat Motility is needed for internalization of VSG

Answer 5

Only infects livestock such as cattle Killed by human serum T. brucei brucei is rapidly killed by human serum Undergoes swelling (lysosome bursts) What is causing this? Trypanolytic factors TLF-1 and TLF-2 found in human serum: High density lipoprotein (HDL) - TLF-1 particles contain haptoglobin-related protein HPR, apolipoprotein L-1 (apoL-1) and apolipoprotein A-1 Haptoglobin (Hp) is a glycoprotein found in blood Binds to free haemoglobin (Hb) and protects against toxicity Captured Hb is directed to macrophages expressing CD163 Humans and primates have novel variants of Hp and also a haptoglobin-related protein (Hpr) T. brucei has a haptoglobin-haemoglobin receptor Takes up haptoglobin and haemoglobin as a source of haem Trypanolytic Factor 1 (TLF-1) complex binds to the T. brucei receptor via Hpr Any T. brucei brucei cells in human serum become bound to TLF-1 TLF-1 enters the cell by endocytosis at the flagellar pocket TLF-1 is taken into the parasite by endocytosis Apo-L1 is transported to lysosome Causes the formation of pores in the lysosome membrane Lysosomal swelling and cell death

Answer 6

Infects humans (acute disease) and livestock can survive in human serum because: TLF-1 is taken into the parasite by endocytosis Apo-L1 is blocked by a protein called SRA There is no lysosomal swelling or cell death Humans with ApoL1 variants G1 and G2 Have resistance to T. brucei rhodesiense The ApoL1 is resistant to SRA Lysosomal swelling and cell death Risk of severe kidney disease but short term survival advantage SRA has an ApoL1 interacting domain. Otherwise is similar to VSGs ApoL1 has a ColA-like domain involved in pore formation, a domain for binding to membranes and an SRA interacting domain Implications for control of veterinary disease Can we produce GM livestock with ability to kill T. brucei brucei? What if we selected for ApoL1-resistant parasites?

Answer 7

Infects humans (chronic disease) and livestock

Answer 8

Non-tsetse transmitted animal trypanosomiasis Mechanical transmission by biting insects (esp. Tabanus) Not usually infective to humans biting insect can only transmit withing half an hour of biting an infected animal Wide geographical distribution North Africa, Middle East, Latin/South America, Asia Host range of T. evansi North Africa and Middle East: dromedary camels and equines Asia: water buffalo, cattle, pigs, goats Latin/South America: equines, capybara, vampire bat (vector) Many other domestic and wild host species including: Rodents, sheep, dogs, cats, deer, gazelles, deer, elephant, rhinoceros, orang utan, wolves, jackals, hyenas, black bears, red howler monkeys, wallabies, guinea pigs, armadillos. Surra from Indi meaning “rotten” Fever, anaemia, anorexia, loss of weight Abortions Cachexia and death Highly variable in different hosts and geographical regions A neglected veterinary tropical disease? Reports of high prevalence in wide range of species Notifiable to the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) Few drugs are available for treatment Quinapyramine sulphate, diminazene Counterfeit drugs Emergence of drug resistance? Reinfection rates are high

Answer 9

Closely related to T. evansi Sexually transmitted Narrow host range: equines May cause acute infection and death within days Mechanical transmission (often Tabanus flies) Parasites only survive for a short time on insect mouthparts T. evansi and T. equiperdum are practically monomorphic No differentiation into insect-infective stage Have a much wider geographical range than tsetse-transmitted trypanosomes

Answer 10

Infection with Leishmania Spread by sand flies Leishmania reside inside macrophages- intracellular Estimated 2 million new cases per year No vaccine and difficult to treat Forms of leishmaniasis: Cutaneous (CL)- parasites in skin, can progress to- Mucocutaneous- goes to mucus membranes, can cause loss of appendages Visceral- can go to spkeen and liver 1/3 of dogs in span could be infected important resoviour lifecycle- sandfly takes blood meal parasites become promastigotes and proliferate and differentiate in salaviary glands of sandfly sandly takes another bloodmeal and transmits promastigotes promastigotes attach to host macrophage and are phagocytosed they become amastigotes and multiply till cell bursts and goes on to infect other cells

Answer 11

Often fatal if not treated Fever, weight loss, pancytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly enlarged liver and spleen

Answer 12

Pentavalent Antimonials (Pentostam, Glucantim) Very toxic, severe adverse effects including pancreatitis Amphotericin B Very toxic, risk of anophylaxis in first few hours Liposomal Amphotericin B (AmBisome) Less toxic but very expensive (originally $2800 per treatment) Recent donations – enough for 5% of cases Miltefosine Less toxic. Is the only orally administered drug for leishmaniasis Teratogenic so is not suitable for women of child-bearing age- can be given to dogs

Answer 13

Over 75% of leishmaniasis cases (1 million+ cases per year) Not fatal but may be disfiguring and stigmatising Number of cases and distribution has increased in recent years

Answer 14

Flattened, tape-like segmented body. indirect lifcycle- required intermediarte host in which larve develope- usually encyst in host, definitive host is usually carnivore- Each segment is self-contained, containing one or two sets of male and female reproductive organs. The end segment is released from the tip of the tail and can pass out in the faeces. Tapeworms have an indirect lifecycle requiring an intermediate host where the larval stages develop. Larval forms usually encyst within the tissues of the intermediate hosts.

Answer 15

Indirect life-cycle Humans are the definitive host Tapeworm in intestine Cattle are the intermediate host Cysticercus bovis cysts in muscle

Answer 16

Canids = definitive host, Intermediate host = large domestic species, such as cattle, sheep and horses Canids pass the proglottids in areas where these animals graze, and upon ingestion the embryos develop into hydatid cysts. The cysts are most commonly found in the liver and lungs, although other organs can be infected; they may never result in clinical disease, but can result in carcass condemnation at time of slaughter. Canids = definitive host, Intermediate host = large domestic species, such as cattle, sheep and horses Canids pass the proglottids in areas where these animals graze, and upon ingestion the embryos develop into hydatid cysts. The cysts are most commonly found in the liver and lungs, although other organs can be infected; they may never result in clinical disease, but can result in carcass condemnation at time of slaughter.

Answer 17

Not in the UK, currently Echinococcus multilocularis is the cause of alveolar hydatid disease (aka: Alveolar echinococcosis) Very similar life cycle to E. granulosus Humans infected by exposure primarily to eggs Liver cysts in humans more fulminant than E.granulosus dogs must have tapeworm treatment before bringing them back to great britiain if they have been abroud

Answer 18

Roundworms have no segments and tend to be of a white or pink-brown colour. Prolific egg-layers and just a few worms can produce large numbers of eggs. Toxocara spp. eggs can survive in the environment for months or even years. Toxocara canis in zoonotic roundworm in dogs Toxocara cati in zoonotic roundworm in cats Toxocara leonina in dogs, cats, foxes direct or indirect lifecycle pregnant bitched can spread them through fetuses and milk bitches should be wormed during pregnancy with non tetarogenic wormer- pregnancy can trigger a low grade infection in a bitch to become much much more infectious Ancylostoma spp = hookworms Neglected tropical disease

Answer 19

he OIE’s international standards improve the health and welfare of animals throughout the world, they improve the prevention and control of animal diseases, including those transmissible to humans (zoonoses) and contribute to ensuring secure and safe food systems worldwide with lower costs and greater economic opportunities. They play a key role in fostering global safe trade

Answer 20

The OIE’s capacity building flagship programme - Performance of Veterinary Services (PVS) Path- way – offers countries with a series of proven tools and methods to evaluate, plan and provide estimated costs for improving their national Vet- erinary Services. PVS Pathway empowers na- tional Veterinary Services by providing them with a comprehensive understanding of their strengths and weaknesses using a globally consistent meth- odology based on international standards - a use- ful external perspective that can reveal gaps, in- efficiencies and opportunities for innovation. This enables countries to take ownership and prioritize improvements to their animal health system

Answer 21

WTO is the only international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland; created in 1995 (predecessor was GATT) 164 member countries – covers 98% of world trade WTO agreements are therefore negotiated and signed by most of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments It also settle trade disputes between nations, and reduces arbitrary trade barriers Seeks to ensure trading is fair and non-discriminatory WTO supports developing countries seeking to trade, especially through transition arrangements Overall goal - ensure that trade flows smoothly, predictably and as freely as possible

Answer 22

Extract of the opening paragraphs: ‘Reaffirming that no Member should be prevented from adopting or enforcing measures necessary to protect human, animal or plant life or health, subject to the requirement that these measures are not applied in a manner which would constitute a means of arbitrary or unjustifiable discrimination between Members where the same conditions prevail or a disguised restriction on international trade; Desiring to improve the human health, animal health and phytosanitary situation in all Members; Noting that sanitary and phytosanitary measures are often applied on the basis of bilateral agreements or protocols …’

Answer 23

1963: The Codex Alimentarius Commission (the Commission) was established by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO) Now has 188 Member Countries 229 intergovernmental and international non-governmental organizations are accredited as observers Main work - the development of international food standards, guidelines, and codes of practice to protect the health of consumers and ensure fair practices in the food trade International food safety standards established by the Commission are explicitly recognized in the WTO SPS Agreement.

Answer 24

Now that the UK has left the European Union, we are no longer part of the EU Pet Travel Scheme (EU Pet Travel Regulation 576/2013) Must meet EU requirements for entry (dogs, cats, ferrets) The pet needs: A microchip for identification A valid rabies vaccination (with record) An animal health certificate (or valid pet passport not issued in GB, if accepted in that country) Tapeworm treatment (for dogs travelling directly to NI, Ireland, Finland, Norway or Malta)

Answer 25

Now that the UK has left the European Union, we are no longer part of the EU Pet Travel Scheme (EU Pet Travel Regulation 576/2013) Must meet GB requirements for entry (dogs, cats, ferrets) Coming in from the EU, or returning to GB from the EU, the pet needs: A microchip for identification A valid rabies vaccination (with record) Valid pet passport or health certificate Tapeworm treatment (usually for dogs) Quarantine for up to 4 months if do not follow the rules; or return to where came from; or euthanasia

Answer 26

Current requirements are that you need to: Book an appointment with an Official Veterinarian (OV) to get blood tests taken on time Book an agent/transporter and tell them when plan to travel – may need more time to plan travel through an EU border control post (BCP) Apply for an export health certificate (EHC) Get equines tested for certain diseases Meet isolation and residency requirements Check you have the right equine identification (ID) Be aware of EU border rules Check that the person transporting the animals has the correct documentation Check if you need an export welfare declaration Get a county parish holding (CPH) number

Answer 27

1. A veterinarian should certify only those matters which: a) are within his or her own knowledge; b) can be ascertained by him or her personally; c) are the subject of supporting evidence from an authorised veterinarian who has personal knowledge of the matters in question; or d) are the subject of checks carried out by an Officially Authorised Person (OAP) (see Annex 21.A). 2. Veterinarians should not issue a certificate that might raise questions of a possible conflict of interest. 3. A veterinarian should only sign certificates that are written in a language they understand. 4. A veterinarian should not certify that there has been compliance with the law of another country or jurisdiction unless the provisions of that law are set out clearly on the certificate or have been provided to them by the Competent Authority in writing. 5. A veterinarian should only sign original certificates. Where there is a legal or official requirement for a certified copy or duplicate (marked as such) these can be provided. 6. When signing a certificate, a veterinarian should ensure that: a) the certificate contains no deletions or alterations, other than those which are indicated on the certificate to be permissible, and subject to such changes being initialled and stamped by the certifying veterinarian; b) no section of the certificate is left incomplete; c) the certificate includes not only their signature but also, in clear lettering, their name, qualifications and address and (where appropriate) their official or practice stamps; d) the certificate includes the date on which the certificate was signed and issued and (where appropriate) the time for which the certificate will remain valid. 7. Certificates should be written in simple terms which are easy to understand. 8. Certificates should be: a) clear and concise; b) integrated, whole and indivisible; c) given a unique identifier; and d) copied and retained with all relevant records. 9. Certificates should not use words or phrases which are capable of more than one interpretation. 10. Certificates should clearly identify the subject being certified.

Answer 28

CAUTION - Exercise caution before putting your signature on a document! CLARITY - Be absolutely clear about what you are being asked to sign CERTAINTY – Are you certain on what you are attesting? Is it correct? CHALLENGE – If you are challenged, what is your defence?

Answer 29

presence on farms and collaboration with farmers, Veterinary Services play a key role in ensuring that animals are healthy and kept under good sanitary and hygienic conditions. Veterinary Services also play a key role in biosecurity and early detection, surveillance and treatment of animal diseases, including conditions of public health significance. Veterinary Services provide direction to farmers on practices that prevent or minimise physical and chemical hazards (for example, mycotoxins, environmental contaminants and pesticide residues) in primary production, including feed. Veterinary Services play a central role in ensuring the responsible and prudent use of veterinary medicinal products, including antimicrobial agents

Answer 30

ensuring that these activities, including meat inspection, minimise foodborne risks to public health. This may be provided by supervision and verification of process control and direct involvement in operational activities such as ante-and post-mortem inspection. Slaughterhouse/abattoir inspection of live animals and their carcasses plays a key role both in the surveillance network for animal diseases and zoonoses, and in ensuring the safety and suitability of meat and animal by-products for their intended uses. Control or reduction of biological hazards of public health and animal health importance by ante- and post-mortem meat inspection is a core responsibility of Veterinary Services. Veterinary Services may be responsible for overseeing the control measures during processing and distribution of food of animal origin. They also play an important role in raising the awareness of food producers, processors and distributors regarding measures required to assure food safety.

Answer 31

mportant role in overseeing assurance schemes and an essential role in certifying that food of animal origin complies with animal health and food safety standards. Other responsible agencies may also be involved in providing assurances and certification of food of animal origin (for example, pasteurisation of milk products) for international trade.

Answer 32

investigation of, and response to, foodborne disease outbreaks which may be attributable to or involve animal products, including the implementation of control measures. This work should be carried out in close collaboration with public health professionals, analysts, epidemiologists, food producers, processors and traders and any others involved. Because of the global nature of the food trade, Veterinary Services should work with other national agencies in reporting to international emergency foodborne disease networks, such as the International Network of Food Safety Authorities (INFOSAN), and in utilising such information for preparedness.

Answer 33

risk assessment and risk management; establishment of policies and standards; design and management of inspection programmes; assurance and certification of appropriate delivery of inspection and compliance activities; dissemination of information throughout the meat production chain.

Answer 34

Minimise hide/fleece contamination – weather, husbandry system, diet, parasite control Only use non-contaminated feed e.g. avoid Salmonella contamination, chemicals Medicine stewardship and precisely observe the withdrawal periods Minimise stress – compromised welfare affects meat quality Food Chain Information (FCI) - available to FBO and OV in the abattoir in advance

Answer 35

First inspection of the livestock on arrival Identify diseased, visibly contaminated etc. Decisions re isolation, slaughter, cleaning- production may need to be slowed for particularly dirty batches Dirty pens identified – action by Food Business Operator (FBO) Critical control point (CCP)

Answer 36

FCI required for all animals to be presented for slaughter Used by the abattoir (FBO) to assess (in advance) potential hazards posed by the animals coming in for slaughter – make decision on acceptance or adjustments required Food business operator (FBO) must evaluate the FCI and make available to the OV without delay OV must review the FCI before ante-mortem inspection – take note of any issues apropriate disease managment? treated with anything that could cause residue? primary producer sends fci- its checked by food buisness operator - its assed by ov the am and pm findings are recorded and made available to primary producer- infor informs primary production

Answer 37

Prof Hugh Pennington (Uni. of Aberdeen) investigated an E. coli O157 outbreak in central Scotland Outbreak source: butcher’s shop in Lanarkshire Nov 96 until Jan 97 – 490 cases; 18 deaths linked to the outbreak Cross-contamination between cooked and uncooked meats in the shop Emphasised importance of clean cattle presented for slaughter and hygiene practices within the abattoir Contamination – what are we concerned about? Campylobacter spp. Salmonella spp. Vero-cytotoxin producing Escherichia coli O157 (VTEC) Yersinia enterocolitica Clostridium perfringens Listeria monocytogenes CATEGORY 1 - CLEAN AND DRY CATEGORY 2 - SLIGHTLY DIRTY- some treatment needed CATEGORY 3 – DIRTY Cattle in this condition will be rejected from slaughter unless additional control measures are put in place to avoid contamination of the meat during the slaughter process such as clipping the hide in the lairage – cost/welfare implications CATEGORY 4 - VERY DIRTY Cattle in this category will be rejected for slaughter except in exceptional circumstances e.g. animal welfare grounds, disease control reasons CATEGORY 5 - FILTHY AND WETCattle in this category should be rejected for slaughter

Answer 38

Hide must be rolled outwards when coming off, and the exterior must not fold back onto carcass – clips sometimes used to prevent rollback Slaughter line operatives removing hide must keep hands clean and wash between handling each carcass Must maintain clean knives by regularly rotating and sterilizing them in boiling water scald tanks at workstations

Answer 39

Official Veterinarians (OVs) conduct checks to ensure that there are no issues concerning the welfare of animals presented for slaughter These can take place: When animals are still on the farm – in advance of transport to the abattoir During transport to the abattoir – random or targeted checks When the animals arrive at the slaughterhouse – unloading, vehicle check In the abattoir lairage - handling and provisions Up to the point of slaughter – stunning effectiveness and the act of slaughter (bleeding out) CCTV mandatory in English abattoirs since 2018

Answer 40

specified risk materials e.g spinal cord for bse

Answer 41

Dirty equipment to be avoided - clean and sterilized – not less than 82 celsius Technique - 2 knife technique – cattle – skin and then blood vessels Pigs – generally use a 1 knife sticking technique Effective training and licensing Effective supervision

Answer 42

To control escape of GIT contents from oesophagus Free the oesophagus, then rubber ring or tie applied using a stainless steel rodder up the length of the oesophagus Sheep – oesophageal clips used more often; pigs – no sealing Must be in the correct position – oesophagus-rumen junction Failure = leakage = contamination of carcass – food safety Training and supervision

Answer 43

Anal resection and tying Completed after hide removal if upward hide puller used (and before if downward puller) Freed and tied or bagged with elastic band Protected rectum pushed down into the abdominal cavity Controls faecal leakage from anus onto the carcass

Answer 44

Physical process = sheep, cattle Hand washing and equipment sterilisation between carcasses vital Mechanized system = better hygiene Use of plastic sheeting/clips to prevent hide touching exposed meat Roll out of hide/fleece – avoid contact with meat

Answer 45

One-piece removal of abdominal organs (stomach, liver, bladder etc) Bursting of the viscera = major contamination due to potentially substantial leakage ‘Pluck’ removal – lungs, trachea, heart - hang together for inspection Skilled removal required – operative training and attention to detail

Answer 46

migration of Ascaris suum

Answer 47

Aesthetic only - blood, bone dust NOT to be used for contamination - must be trimmed, removed with a knife Not a substitute for good practice i.e. don’t make a mess and then aim to wash it all off! Minimal water, at low pressure – this is not pressure washing! Wash from top to bottom of the carcass in a downward direction

Answer 48

Major CCP (Critical Control Point) Increases shelf life, slows spoilage Slows/prevents bacterial multiplication Surface drying of carcass and low temperatures inhibit bacteria Must have adequate facilities/capacity for throughput Ideally no contact between carcasses – spacing to allow air flow

Answer 49

stop- No blood supply - oxygen and glucose supply to muscles stops Oxidative pathways stop start-Anaerobic glycolysis starts – glycogen stores metabolised to try to keep synthesizing ATP Pyruvate produced as a by-product of glycogen metabolism drop- Pyruvate metabolised to produce lactic acid in muscles pH falls from 7.2 to 5.6 (acidification) as lactic acid accumulates

Answer 50

energy- Anaerobic glycolysis – produces much less energy Energy stored as ATP (adenosine triphosphate) relaxed-ATP levels therefore decrease after slaughter Energy needed to keep muscles relaxed contract- Actin and myosin combine irreversibly = actomyosin Muscles contract – ‘rigor mortis’ sets in

Answer 51

Most active/well-nourished muscles first i.e. heart (within 1 hour), head, neck Rigor reached in most skeletal muscles in 9-12 hours Reaches maximum in roughly 20-24 hours (shorter for pigs) Influenced by: - Atmospheric temperature - Health status of animal prior to slaughter - Muscle acidity prior to death

Answer 52

ATP is the “energy currency” of the cell ATP + H2O ADP + Pi + H+ + Energy Hydrolysis of a phosphate bond yields the energy for cellular processes ATP hydrolysis breaks the bond between actin and myosin during muscle contraction It’s needed to keep muscle in a relaxed state

Answer 53

ATP + H2O ADP + Pi + H+ + Energy H+ ions are produced – acid – muscles become acidified, as no blood supply to remove Muscle pH drops from 7.2 to 5.6 peri-mortem This drop in pH creates the taste and texture of fresh meat Meat quality very important – rate and extent of acidification greatly influences it

Answer 54

Muscle tissue does not immediately die Catabolic reactions continue to attempt to keep up energy levels ATP therefore continues to be utilized, but becomes depleted with time Instead of actin and myosin linkages being continually broken, they become permanent - muscle extensibility decreases Onset of rigor mortis – “stiffness of death” (Latin term)

Answer 55

Excessive exercise before slaughter Stress/fatigue and amount of rest pre-slaughter – travel distances Diet - high sugar levels fed to pigs Health status – a different type of stress

Answer 56

e.g. Hunted deer, stressed cattle in an abattoir lairage - STRESSORS Little or no glycogen (and ATP) left Less lactic acid produced – pH does not drop so much Rigor onset faster due to low ATP levels Tough meat as a result – eating quality reduced

Answer 57

Also sometimes known as ‘Dark Cutting Beef’ (DCB) Part or whole carcass Chronic pre-slaughter stress, exhaustion (24-48 hours) Mixing batches/market/loading/transport etc. More common with excitable temperaments Stress = low glycogen = high pH = 6.8 High pH = oxygen debt = dark meat High pH = poor keeping quality Same nutritive value, BUT tough to eat, less flavour Spoilage of DFD meat occurs faster, shelf life reduced Used for manufacturing/ further processing purposes Marked loss of value of the meat – economic consequences

Answer 58

All species, but more common in pigs (and poultry) Has been linked to a single autosomal recessive gene in pigs – breeding and selection to avoid this gene Acute stress = rapid glycolysis Stress -susceptible pigs + rough handling prior to slaughter etc. Rapid fall in pH (5.5 reached in 1 hour) Carcass temperature higher than normal Changes in muscle proteins - denaturation - loss of water binding capacity – meat oozes water Protein changes = excessive drip = increased weight loss Refractive index changes = pale colour Tougher texture on cooking Downgrading or possible condemnation Loss of meat value – economic consequences

Answer 59

Gentle handling (farm to abattoir) Loading ramps essential Avoid mixing batches Good lairage design Food/water available Sticks/goads not used Isolate aggressive animals Use of fine sprays - reduces fighting in pigs Stock selection - genetics Diet (e.g. sugar levels) Timing of journey Rest time in lairage

Answer 60

Due to myoglobin - bright red colour in presence of oxygen (blooming) is synonymous with ‘freshness’ at retail More myoglobin in slow muscles than fast DFD meat with high water holding capacity makes meat turgid and reduces oxygen penetration, hence no blooming and bright red colour Paleness in PSE pork is caused by (a) increased of light scattering due to released water (b) enhanced protein denaturation (c) increased conversion to pale brown metmyoglobin Results = consumer rejection of the product

Answer 61

The pH of meat influences the extent muscle proteins are electrically charged - necessary to attract and hold the dissociated form of water Most proteins in meat lose their charge between pH 5.1 and 5.5, which is close to ultimate pH of meat. In this range muscle releases water Therefore, DFD meat has higher water holding capacity as has higher pH DFD advantage in meat processing - cheaper and less weight loss In PSE pork, drip (water) loss is severe and unsightly – consumer rejection

Answer 62

Succulence (‘juiciness’) is an eating quality, often related to the level of fat and moisture in cooked meat Excessively lean carcass confers less juicy meat – less fat to provide taste Perceived tenderness and succulence can be improved by simply increasing the amount of fat – ‘marbling’ in beef

Answer 63

Rapid chilling reduces microbial growth, evaporation and drip loss, but risks cold shortening (CS) CS occurs when muscle cools below 10C before rigor mortis Muscle fibres shorten by as much as third of original length To prevent CS: Beef and lamb: not below 10C in the first 10h – pace the chilling speed Pork: not below 10C in the first 3h

Answer 64

Within first few hours of slaughter, before rigor mortis, muscle is tender Toughness sets in at rigor mortis After several days of cold storage original tender state is restored. This is known as ‘conditioning’ Conditioning is closely related to structural breakdown of muscle proteins, through released endogenous proteases activated by calcium

Answer 65

Electrical current pulsed through the carcass Electrode in neck - earthed on overhead rail Meat ages faster – i.e. becomes tender faster Stimulates muscle to contract = glycogen/ATP used up = pH falls Accelerates tenderness/reduces ageing times Reduces storage times and weight loss Avoids cold shortening with more rapid chilling Promotes better flavour and colour Allows hot boning = rapid chilling of cuts

Answer 66

Making beef more tender, faster Stretching = tenderising [Shortening = toughening] Carcass suspended from hook in the obturator foramen Limb relaxed, muscles do not shorten Suspended within 90 mins of slaughter For a minimum of 24 hours Accelerates tenderness by about 3 weeks at 2 Celsius

Answer 67

Setting = rigor mortis + fat hardening Chilling aids fat hardening Tests - lift foreleg, feel firmness of carcase (hit flanks, flick diaphragm) Sheep carcasses set more firmly – with very hard fat as well Poor setting = problems = TOTAL CONDEMNATION e.g. fevered animal Significance of poor carcass setting- Poor keeping quality Deep spoilage Poor setting often indicates undetected illness in the animal at slaughter Carcass loses shape = more difficult to butcher NB - Usually a severe PM judgment – condemnation if does not set

Answer 68

Broilers – typically highly integrated production – broiler breeders, hatchery, rearers, feed mills, slaughter plant – often all the same company Elite breeding stock, Great-grandparent (GGP), grandparent (GP) – broiler breeders (P) Broilers – placed at day-old on farm - typically slaughtered at between approx. 35 and 42 days

Answer 69

free range, barn, caged (enriched cages) – organic/non-organic Layer birds and broiler breeders will end up in the meat sector as well – older birds - processing

Answer 70

Eggs in the hatchery incubators – 21 day incubation for chickens, 28 days for turkeys

Answer 71

Reception and unloading Ante-mortem inspection Shackling Stunning Neck cutting Scalding De-feathering (plucking) Inspection Evisceration Washing Inspection (no health marking) Chilling

Answer 72

Catching and transport are carefully organised for birds to arrive at a specific time Aim - minimum waiting time in lairage as opposed to arge animals as chickens get dirty and cannot be supplied water in the crates Consider ventilation and thermal comfort minimise time in creat as no water, risk of contamination and lower leves of clenliness

Answer 73

Veterinary examination at rearing premises (‘the holding of provenance’) - health certificate following checks by an OV (Article 5, EU Reg 2019/624) Health certificate travels with the birds to slaughter - Meat Hygiene Inspector (MHI) checks identification, health/welfare check OR Food Chain Information (FCI) required – production report from farm of origin Flock must be under veterinary supervision Producer produces report (electronic) – submit to FBO and then OV - available 24 hours before slaughter Abattoir OV conducts ante-mortem inspection at abattoir - representative sample Must take place less than 24 hrs before slaughter Check the paperwork – are you looking at the correct consignment? – FCI and FBO code birds will be in creats so- Listen to the birds Look at their posture, wattle colour, discharges, cleanliness, dead on arrival? anything that makes them not safe fof human consumption Notifiable disease? – AI, ND

Answer 74

Farm of origin Intended date of slaughter Number of birds for slaughter Flock mortality % – should be very low Diseases diagnosed on farm Results of any laboratory tests – Campylobacter? Any medication given – withdrawal period observed? Residues suspicion? Previous post-mortem results – history

Answer 75

WATOK (England) Regs 2005, Schedule 1, Part 5 28. No person may use a waterbath stunner to stun poultry unless— (a) the level of the water in the waterbath has been adjusted in order to ensure that there is good contact with each bird’s head; (b) the strength and duration of the current used is such that the poultry are immediately rendered unconscious and remain so until dead; (c) where poultry are stunned in groups in a waterbath, a voltage sufficient to produce a current strong enough to ensure that every bird is stunned is maintained; (d) appropriate measures are taken to ensure that the current passes efficiently, in particular that there are good electrical contacts; (e) the waterbath stunner is adequate in size and depth for the type of poultry being stunned; and (f) a person is available to ascertain whether the waterbath stunner has been effective in stunning the poultry and, if it has not been effective, will either stun or kill the poultry without delay. quality of stun can be assed by corneal reflex

Answer 76

ABP comprises entire bodies or any part or product of an animal which is not intended for human consumption – public health protection essential Three categories – Category 1, 2 and 3 Defined in EU legislation – Regulation (EC) 1069/2009, implemented by Regulation (EC) 142/2011 categorised accorded to risk- 1 most risk, 3 least Category 1 – mainly applicable to ruminants (Specified Risk Material) Category 2 – e.g poultry DOAs, rejects at post-mortem inspection Category 3 – poultry heads, feathers

Answer 77

The slaughter plant can be used to monitor bird welfare – farm and transport Dead on arrival (DOAs) Handling – fractured wings, fractured legs, carcass bruising Skin lesions – scratches, breast blisters, breast burn, hock burn, FPD (contact dermatitis) Council Directive 2007/43/EC of 28 June 2007 laying down minimum rules for the protection of chickens kept for meat production Annex III ‘2. Post-mortem inspection In the context of the controls performed under the Regulation (EC) No 854/2004, the Official Veterinarian shall evaluate the results of the post-mortem inspection to identify other possible indications of poor welfare conditions such as abnormal levels of contact dermatitis, parasitism and systemic illness in the holding or the unit of the house of the holding of origin.’

Answer 78

First reported 1980s in broilers and turkeys Welfare issue – painful necrotic lesions on hock and foot – use as a welfare indicator Economic – downgrading of a saleable product – damaged feet – prolonged contact with litter high in moisture and ammonia Causes? Complicated epidemiology, some conflicting research findings Wet litter (drinkers, disease), genetic predisposition, litter depth, nutritional deficiencies, production system (organic v conventional)?

Answer 79

Campylobacter spp. Salmonella spp. Verocytotoxin-producing Escherichia coli O157 (VTEC) Yersinia enterocolitica Clostridium perfringens Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 80

can be spread to outdoor pigs by birds Pigs carry Salmonella bacteria on tonsils and in caecum Faecal contamination after slaughter is possible Salmonella in pork a common cause of human foodborne infections ELISA tests on meat juice allows herd detection How to control? Primary production or after slaughter? Danes have had some success with improved slaughter hygiene: See Alban (2013), Veterinary J. 197, 529-530 History of little success in control - a very challenging organism to deal with!

Answer 81

Investigated worldwide distribution and occurrence of Salmonella serovars in 4 animal-based foods: pork, poultry, beef, seafood S. Typhimurium 2nd most common EU isolate in humans and 3rd in USA – generalist serovar with global distribution S. Typhimurium most often associated with pork S. Enteritidis most common human isolate in EU – mostly chicken meat, then eggs S. Anatum most common serovar in beef worlwide, esp. Latin America s.dublin- cause of abortion in cattle

Answer 82

Western USA – large outbreak in 1992-93 More than 700 people infected, 4 deaths Assoc. with eating beef burgers (minced beef ‘patties’) in fast-food chain Infectious dose calculated to be < 700 organisms in raw burger before cooking i.e. low dose (prob. 10-100) Trace-back: Burgers linked to a processing plant in California - made on 19 Nov 1992 Detected poor hygiene practices in the supplying abattoirs and boning plant

Answer 83

Hepatitis A virus (HAV)- Shellfish (water contamination) [Food handlers] Very common viral cause of foodborne illness Hepatitis E virus (HEV)- Pork Gaining prominence and attention Norovirus (NoV)- Shellfish [Food handlers, fresh produce] Deemed the commonest cause of foodborne disease outbreaks in USA in 2017 Noroviruses are a very common cause of gastroenteritis in humans Noroviruses have also been found in animals, and transfer between humans an animals likely to be occurring in both directions

Answer 84

Reg (EC) No 852/2004 – The hygiene of foodstuffs Article 1 summarised: Primary responsibility food safety rests with food business operator (FBO) Food safety starts with primary production, and must be maintained throughout the food chain Particularly important to maintain the cold chain for certain foods Hygiene procedures must be based on HACCP principles Need microbiological criteria and temp controls based on science Imported foods must be at least as hygienic as EU-produced foods Main provisions found in Annex 1 of the Regulation – general hygiene requirements for primary production: https://www.legislation.gov.uk/eur/2004/852/annex/I Need to control hazards – esp. zoonoses and contamination Integrated food safety – main responsibility with the FBO, not the government! Reg (EC) No 853/2004 – Specific hygiene rules for food of animal origin Reg (EU) 2017/625 – Official controls and other official activities performed to ensure the application of feed and food law, rules on animal health and welfare … (Replaces 854/2004)

Answer 85

Reg 853/2004, Annex III, Chapter IV 4. Animals must be clean. 7. (b)(i) During the removal of hides and fleeces, contact between the outside of the skin and the carcase must be prevented. 7. (b) (ii) Operators and equipment coming into contact with the outer surface of the hides and fleece must not touch the meat. 10. The carcases must not contain visible faecal contamination. Any visible contamination must be removed without delay by trimming or alternative mans having an equivalent effect. 11. Carcases and offal must not come into contact with floors, walls or work stands. 16. (b) Parts unfit for human consumption must be removed as soon as possible from the clean sector of the establishment.

Answer 86

EC Regulation 853/2004 (Annex 3, Chapter 7): ‘Post-mortem inspection must be followed immediately by chilling in the slaughterhouse to ensure a temperature throughout the meat of not more than 3 °C for offal and 7 °C for other meat along a chilling curve that ensures a continuous decrease of the temperature.’ Meat and offal must then remain at these temperatures during storage

Answer 87

Testing: Microbiological criteria Article 4: ‘Food business operators shall perform testing as appropriate against the microbiological criteria set out in Annex I, when they are validating or verifying the correct functioning of their procedures based on HACCP principles and good hygiene practice.’ Annex 1 specifies the microbiological criteria for foodstuffs Sampling and analysis must be conducted by the FBO Chapter 1 is about Food Safety Criteria – testing food products Chapter 2 is about Process Hygiene Criteria – testing processing procedures Minced meat and milk powder- Salmonella- Not detected in 25g- Product placed on the market within their shelf-life Ready-to-eat infant food- Listeria monocytogenes - Not detected in 25g- Product placed on the market within their shelf-life Carcases of broiler chickens- Campylobacter spp., limit of 1000 cfu/g in Carcases after chilling – Take action if unsatisfactory – slaughter hygiene, biosecurity on farm Meat preparations- E. coli- limit of 500 -5000 cfu/g or cm2 inEnd of the manufacturing process – Take action if unsatisfactory - sourcing material and/or improve production hygiene Carcases of cattle, sheep- Aerobic colony count- limit of 3.5-5.0 log cfu/cm2 Enterobacteriaceae- limit of 1.5-2.5 log cfu/cm2 in Carcases after dressing but before chilling – If unsatisfactory, need improvements in slaughter hygiene and review of process controls ‘The competent authority shall verify compliance with the rules and criteria laid down in this Regulation in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 882/2004, without prejudice to its right to undertake further sampling and analyses for the purpose of detecting and measuring other micro-organisms, their toxins or metabolites, either as a verification of processes, for food suspected of being unsafe, or in the context of a risk analysis.’

Answer 88

Continual movement in and out of the granuloma by host cells [Microscopic granulomas detectable from 7-15 days after experimental infection] NB – It’s NOT an abscess – it’s a granuloma (and granulomas are not just found in bTB) ‘The caseonecrotic granuloma is one of the hallmarks of tuberculosis’ (Waters et al. 2015) Internal spread of M. bovis bacteria thought to be mainly through the lymphatic system M. bovis has also been detected in bovine blood in scientific studies Bacilli multiply and a tubercle forms around them – connective tissue enveloping bacilli and macrophages – central area of necrosis Primary lesions often in lymph nodes - Also check for lung lesions – Rare to see generalised bTB now in UK Decision – partial or total: reject affected parts, condemn whole carcase if both sides of the diaphragm Mean number of bTB-like lesions in bTB reactors was 1.7 and 1.3 for in-contacts bTB lesions most commonly found in lymph nodes (LNs) of thorax, then head, followed by abdomen Most common LNs affected – mediastinal, retropharyngeal, tracheobronchial 25 reactors had lesions in palatine tonsils In bTB-confirmed cattle – 27% of reactors and 9% of in-contacts had gross lesions in lungs, esp. caudal lobes

Answer 89

something with the potential to cause harm

Answer 90

The likelihood that a hazard may occur, usually expressed as the likelihood of the consequences occurring

Answer 91

Any action or activity that can be used to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level

Answer 92

Conducting a planned sequence of observations or measurements of control parameters, to assess whether a critical control point (CCP) is under control

Answer 93

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point a system that identifies, evaluates, and controls hazards that are significant for food safety History NASA – Food in space HACCP is a preventative system US food borne outbreaks Large manufacturing business worldwide International requirement for trade EU (2006) all food business

Answer 94

Bones Gristle,Tendons, Sinew Hide, fleece Ingested physical objects Glass Metal Hard plastics Wood Pests Packaging Needles Knives and tips Personal items Hair Rail dust common Equipment Deliberate items

Answer 95

* inspection of raw materials on receipt * cleaning, washing and inspecting raw materials before use * filtering liquids and sieving powders * protecting filling hoppers, elevators and belts conveying open food from overhead contamination * selecting machinery with guards that are easy to remove and clean * avoiding temporary repairs * employing spotters at inspection belts * in-line magnets to collect metal fragments in pipe-work * metal detectors for ferrous (i.e. iron) and non-ferrous metals, stainless steel * X-ray machines * bottle scanners * visual checking of food before it leaves the production area

Answer 96

* pesticides, preservatives, mould inhibitors, agri chemicals * veterinary medicines * cleaning chemicals * food additives * perfume, scented soap * chemical reaction between metal and acidic food * inks, adhesives, plasticizers used in packaging * non-food-grade machinery lubricants

Answer 97

* regulation, certificates of analysis and audit, withdrawal periods and verification / testing of * correctly labelled containers in a controlled storage area separated from food * use of un-perfumed products * use of suitable utensils and containers * maintenance, use of food-grade lubricants

Answer 98

Bacteria - Pathogenic Viruses Yeasts Moulds Biological toxins Poisonous foods Aflatoxins Mycotoxins Ergot Zoonoses? TSEs? can be from- * Animal itself, gut, hide, fleece, skin, clinical pathology * people * equipment * air and dust * soil * pests * water * food waste

Answer 99

* protecting food from contamination * preventing bacterial multiplication * destroying bacteria * removing contaminated food from the human food chain

Answer 100

* auditing raw material suppliers * only using reputable suppliers * maintaining up-to-date allergen information on all raw materials on site * clearly labelling packaging * separate storage of raw materials that may contain allergens * using separate processing equipment, utensils and production areas * segregating staff in sensitive areas * batch traceability for all raw materials and finished product * separation and disposal procedures for contaminated raw materials and finished product * specific allergy awareness training for staff * product recall procedures * visitor information

Answer 101

Regulation (EC) No. 852/2004 on the hygiene of foodstuffs * Everybody must do HACCP based on Codex HACCP principles Farming has a derogation although some still do it under things like GlobalGAP * consistent across EU * additional requirements: – procedures for verification – establishment of documentation and record keeping

Answer 102

* international body created by FAO and WHO of United Nations * aims: – to protect the health of consumers – to ensure fair practices in international trade – to issue guidance and codes of practice * recommends a HACCP-based system Basis of world trade sanitary and phytosanitary measures agreed.

Answer 103

Assemble the HACCP team Describe the product Identify intended use Construct flow diagram On-site confirmation of flow diagram Conduct a hazard analysis and consider control measures Determine the Critical Control Points (CCPs) Establish critical limits for each CCP Establish a monitoring procedure for each CCP Establish corrective actions Establish verification procedures Establish documentation and record keeping determine critical control points conduct hazard analysis estblish critical limits establish monitorung system establish documentation establish verificatin process

Answer 104

* supplier specifications * design and structure of premises and equipment * personal hygiene * cleaning, disinfection and the control of waste * pest control * storage and stock control * traceability and product recall * staff training * customer complaints * visitors Think about pre-requisites as all the things you need for your factory to work. HACCP is specific to single products through single processes.

Answer 105

* a step in the process where it is essential to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level Early attempts at HACCP had meat businesses having everything as a CCP Hide removal, clean livestock, gut removal, TSE aspects and waste control etc. later iterations and learning made them realise that these were prerequisite to the processes and now there are few ccps if any * steps where there are significant hazards that are CRITICAL * if not controlled they could make the final product unsafe and cause harm to the consumer * steps that are not critical (i.e. control points) are still important and require control * critical steps need extra control through the HACCP system * no further step in the process that will control the hazard

Answer 106

every 6 months/12 months if no changes * immediately if outbreak of food-borne illness or similar complaints * if there have been any changes in the following: – raw materials – recipe or formulation – processing methods – equipment – packaging – method of distribution – organisational structure – legal requirements

Answer 107

maize silage is prone to fungal growth when not properly made or stored which can lead to injestions of mycotoxins aspergullus fusarium- damp conditions produces mycotoxin which stays in silage

Answer 108

Regulation (EC) 183/2005 in the EU and adopted into UK legislation Laying down requirements for feed hygiene Article 4: ‘Feed business operators shall ensure that all stages of production, processing and distribution under their control are carried out in accordance with Community legislation, national law compatible therewith, and good practice. They shall ensure, in particular, that they satisfy the relevant hygiene requirements laid down in this Regulation’ [‘Feed hygiene’ is defined as ‘the measures and conditions necessary to control hazards and to ensure fitness for animal consumption of a feed, taking into account its intended use.’]

Answer 109

Regulation (EC) 183/2005 in the EU and adopted into UK legislation Laying down requirements for feed hygiene Article 4: ‘When feeding food-producing animals, farmers shall take measures and adopt procedures to keep the risk of biological, chemical and physical contamination of feed, animals and animal products as low as reasonably achievable.’

Answer 110

Animal-derived food products for sale to consumers at retail could contain chemical contaminants – a non-infectious hazard Strict controls required throughout the food chain to prevent/detect Contaminated feed may be the primary problem Residues monitoring is required to provide consumer assurance and detect illegal or accidental contamination Organochlorine compounds including PCBs Organophosphorus compounds Chemical elements (Cu, Cd, Pb, Hg) Mycotoxins Dyes (aquaculture – e.g. crystal violet, malachite green) Others (e.g. fipronil)- vet medicine residues Notable chemical animal feed contaminations 1. PBB (Polybrominated Biphenyl) in Michigan, USA in 1973 2. PCB (Polychlorinated Biphenyls) in USA in 1979 3. PCB/Dioxin in Belgium in 1999 4. PCB/Dioxin in Ireland in 2008

Answer 111

Toxic chemicals which persist in the environment for years, and accumulate in animal fats – food chain contamination PCBs - chlorinated hydrocarbons which were manufactured and used in coolants and insulators in transformers and capacitors until banned in most countries in 1980s Dioxins – dangerous unwanted products of some industrial processes – persistent organic pollutants (POPs) PCBs often considered alongside dioxins due to their similar health effects - carcinogenic

Answer 112

in an assesment of Contamination of raw feed ingredients by pathogens Assessing survival times for significant viral pathogens spiked into commonly imported feed constituents or products often imported into USA concluded that The right virus paired with the right ingredient, may be a mechanism for the transboundary transport of pathogens Contamination of feed during manufacture - Salmonella a major problem in animal feed Aim to prevent entry into the factory – biosecurity - rodents, birds, people, equipment Can reduce multiplication within the plant – factory hygiene processes Can kill the pathogen within the manufactured feed – thermal inactivation (pasteurisation) or chemical additions Contamination of feed during on-farm storage - Particular risks from mice, rats, pigeons, sparrows in winter period Nov - Feb Gain access to open feed stores, consume feed and contaminate with faeces e.g., Salmonella, Cryptosporidium, MAP Estimated that individual cattle and sheep could encounter an average of 1626 (cattle) and 814 (sheep) wildlife faeces in supplementary feed concentrates in a winter Contamination of feed on farm - Toxoplasma - Cats are the definitive host for the zoonotic parasite Toxoplasma gondii and shed oocysts in their faeces This study observed cat latrines across 3 dairy farms using cameras Repeated use of latrines by cats, particularly those closest to their feeding sites Potential for heavy contamination of soil, straw and animal feed – T. gondii hotspots May 2003- Salmonella Cubana detected in faecal samples from routine sampling in a fattening pig herd – Swedish Salmonella control programme Trace-back from the pig herd – S. Cubana discovered in pig feed production line of a Swedish manufacturing plant 77 pig farms had received the contaminated feed – 49 were positive for S. Cubana

Answer 113

Perhaps the most common pig respiratory disease worldwide Bacterium - Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae Clinical signs mainly seen at 8-20 weeks, although infection contracted much younger Normally low grade chronic soft cough (unless get secondary infection) Very high morbidity, low mortality Commonly seen in the abattoir. Lung scoring is possible – a measure of the scale of the problem, and to assess vaccine efficacy Clinical signs- Typically 3-10 weeks of age Incubation period of 2 weeks Barking cough Gradual spread Lasts +/-50 days Uneven size in the batch Depression of growth rate and feed conversion Pathology- Lesions restricted to the lungs Classic pneumonia of cranial middle and cranial portion of caudal lobe of lung and accessory lobe Enlarged bronchial lymph nodes Plum colour in early lesions Well demarcated Paler as resolve Secondary infection common M. hyopneumoniae present on cilia of bronchi Literature suggests association between damaging behaviours and poor health Enzootic pneumonia may lead to more tail/ear biting – cytokines? Tail-bitten pigs more likely to have spinal abscesses, lung lesions – abattoir condemnation Need to improve environmental conditions on farm

Answer 114

Most common gastrointestinal worm parasite in pigs globally – up to 40cm long. Oocysts can survive 5 yrs on ground. More common in growing pigs than mature Heavier infections may cause clinical signs – coughing (lung migration) and poorer growth rates than expected Economic impact - Lowered feed conversion and liver rejections at slaughter Milk spot liver’ in pig – Ascaris suum ‘Milk spots’ – pale-coloured lesions caused by larvae migrating through the liver and causing haemorraghic foci which heal with connective tissue, eosinophils and dilated lymphatics - whitish spots can be detected eith faecal tests and treated with anti-helminths

Answer 115

Daily weight gain reduced by 9% Live weight reduced by 6% Younger animals found more severe effects of fluke on weight gain Effects on liveweight increased with time since infection intermediate host- galba (Lymnaea) truncatula

Answer 116

EC) Reg 852/2004 [H1] – hygiene of foodstuffs Primary production (Annex I) Maintain hygiene and minimise contamination Covers animal health, hygiene, record keeping, storage etc. Legal requirements for milk production – primary production – Reg (EC) 852/2004 (EC) Reg 853/2004 – specific rules for food of animal origin: Annex III Section IX: raw milk and dairy products Detailed legislation regarding all stages of milk production Applies to milk harvesting, storage, transport and processing and packaging Legal requirements for milk production – animal health and hygiene- (EC) 853/2004 [H2] Annex III, section IX

Answer 117

dictats that Healthy animals- No diseases communicable to humans No udder wounds likely to contaminate milk No obvious udder inflammation No enteritis or fever No diseases resulting in genital discharge Brucellosis and bTB negative- From cows which are brucellosis-free and bTB-negative Milk must be heat treated if not negative herd No unauthorised veterinary medicines- Uphold withdrawal periods for authorised veterinary medicines Milking procedure, storage and transport and storage- Cleanliness, avoidance of chemical residues, healthy staff Temperature control and maintenance of cold chain Minimum standards and milk assessment- Plate counts and Somatic Cell Counts (SCC) specified Processing- Maximum temperatures and maintenance of cold chain Guidelines for heat treatment – pasteurisation, UHT packaging, labling and id must be tracable and raw milk must be labled

Answer 118

Microorganisms- Bacteria Yeasts Algae Foreign bodies Faeces Hair Perished equipment (e.g. rubber, glass) Chemical residues Medicine residues

Answer 119

Mycotoxins (e.g. aflatoxins) Dioxins Heavy metals – lead, mercury Pesticides Miscellaneous – e.g. melamine in China

Answer 120

Heavy financial penalties for farmers who send in contaminated milk to processor Public health issue – AMR, toxicity Processing issue - esp. cheese Farmer training programmes available Waste’ milk - residues Milk containing antimicrobial residues – what to do with it? Feeding it to calves is likely to be contributing to the AMR problem Brunton et al. (2012) A survey of antimicrobial usage on dairy farms and waste milk feeding practices in England and Wales. Veterinary Record 171, 296. 2012 - 90% farms surveyed feeding it to calves

Answer 121

“Pasteurisation of milk represents one of the singularly most successful contributions to the safety of foods of animal origin.” (Holsinger et al., 1997) First commercial set-up was in Germany in 1895 Became widespread in UK from 1950s 72-82 C for 15-30 sec (HTST) or 63 C for 30 mins Destroys non-spore-forming pathogens and psychotrophic spoilage bacteria UHT (ULTRA HIGH TEMPERATURE) PROCESSING- 138-145 C for 1-10 secs- Destroys all non-spore-forming bacteria and all spores except highly heat-resistant spores

Answer 122

Cleanliness- fACILITES, ANIMALS, EQUIPMET staff- Good health – avoid contamination, adiquate training ptable water- Water supply must be approved by local authority before use Pest control- Avoid contamination Hazardous waste management-Avoid contamination Foodborne/zoonotic disease- Prevent introduction and spread (biosecurity) Appropriate use of veterinary medicines- As per legislation e.g. withdrawal periods Record keeping- The nature and origin of feed fed to the animals Veterinary medicines (including WD periods) Any disease occurrence that might affect food safety Result from any diagnostic samples relevant to human health any relevent reports or checks carried out

Answer 123

72-82 C for 15-30 sec (HTST) or 63 C for 30 mins Destroys non-spore-forming pathogens and psychotrophic spoilage bacteria

Answer 124

138-145 C for 1-10 secs Destroys all non-spore-forming bacteria and all spores except highly heat-resistant spores

Answer 125

APHA (378 vets) DEFRA (157 vets) Food Standards Agency (46 vets) Ministry of Defence (30 vets) Home Office (17 vets) Veterinary Medicines Directorate (20 vets) CEFAS (3 vets) UK Health Security Agency (1 vet) Department for International Development (1 vet) Defence Science Technology Laboratory (2 vets) Defra (6) , Scottish Gov’t (9) and Wales Gov’t (5) (Total:20) and Official Veterinarians across GB

Answer 126

Royal Army Veterinary Corps- Responsible for health and welfare of military working dogs and horses, plus military mascots APHA- Manage and influence welfare cases (livestock only) Private Vet- Report of poor welfare on-farm FSA/FSS- OV notification of poor welfare at slaughter/in transport/on farm Central Government- Defra/W/S/NI Gov’t Construction and revision of welfare policy Home Office- Inspection of research establishments Cefas- Welfare in Fish Marine Science and Technology

Answer 127

UKHSA/HPS/PHW- Provide advice to the public and industry Home Office- use of certain medicines for research Central Government Defra/W/S/NI Gov’t- Construction and revision of policy Cefas- Residues in Fish VMD- Residues Licensing Pharmacovigilance FSA/FSS- Sampling Private Vet- Horse passports Food producing animals APHA- Investigate Records checks Risk assessments Laboratory testing – surveillance

Answer 128

UKHSA/HPS/PHW- Provide advice to the public and industry Zoonoses Cefas- Fish Health Inspectorate Investigate and stamp out disease Central Government- Defra/W/S/NI Gov’t Policy development and implementation Interface with Global Partners FSA/FSS- Surveillance at abattoirs Private Vet- May be reporting OVs may be deployed APHA- Surveillance Disease report cases Research and development Home Office- Licence research

Answer 129

Notifiable disease surveillance and control e.g. bovine TB, Foot and Mouth Disease, avian influenza Animal welfare policy, implementation and enforcement Trade standard-setting and certification - animals and animal products Export and import of animals and animal products – border controls Zoonoses – companion, farm, zoo, wildlife – all under the ‘One Health’ umbrella Food safety and security – meat hygiene, animal products, ‘farm to fork’, traceability

Answer 130

TRAde Control and Expert System – European Commission Online platform for sanitary and phytosanitary certification Importation of animals, animal products, food and feed of non-animal origin and plants into the European Union Intra-EU trade and EU exports of animals and certain animal products Traceability - monitoring movements of consignments; within the EU and non-EU countries Information exchange - between trade partners and competent authorities to share information on consignments Risk management - reacting rapidly to health threats by tracing the movements of consignments and enabling the management of rejected consignments

Answer 131

A disease management tool providing immediate alerts to Member States Can make rapid responses in relation to trade implications Legal basis of notification is Regulation (EU) 2020/2002, Article 3: ‘Member States shall notify the Commission and the other Member States within 24 hours of confirmation of any primary outbreak in their territory of a listed disease …’ ‘The notifications referred to … shall be submitted electronically via the ADIS.’

Answer 132

Regulation (EU) No 576/2013 on the non-commercial movement of pet animals and repealing Regulation (EC) No 998/2003 Article 6 Conditions applicable to the non-commercial movement of pet animals of the species listed in Part A of Annex I Pet animals of the species listed in Part A of Annex I shall not be moved into a Member State from another Member State unless they fulfil the following conditions: they are marked in accordance with Article 17(1); ( Implanted transponder (id chip) or readable tatoo) they have received an anti-rabies vaccination that complies with the validity requirements set out in Annex III; they comply with any preventive health measures for diseases or infections other than rabies adopted pursuant to Article 19(1); (Other disease prevention e.g. Echinococcus multilocularis – tapeworm) they are accompanied by an identification document duly completed and issued in accordance with Article 22. (Pet passport)

Answer 133

Any substance which kills or inhibits the growth of microbes Includes antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, antiparasitics (in widest sense) Resistance can already be intrinsically present, or can develop over time

Answer 134

Beta-lactam antibiotics, bacitracin, glycopeptides

Answer 135

Aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, lincosamides, macrolides, tetracyclines

Answer 136

Polymixins

Answer 137

Fluoroquinolones, nitroimidazoles, rifampin, nitrofurans

Answer 138

Sulphonamides, Trimethoprim

Answer 139

‘The ability of a microorganism to withstand the effect of a normally active concentration of an antimicrobial agent.’

Answer 140

do not possess the target or are impenetrable – structural or biochemical characteristics e.g. most gram-negative bacteria are resistant to Penicillin G

Answer 141

Inactivation (most important in context of AMR) - Alter the target site - Prevent entry into cell - Efflux – pump it out of the cell - Altered metabolic processes

Answer 142

Swann Report recommended that important antibiotics for humans should not be used as growth promoters in animal feed, but should continue as prophylactic and therapeutic agents under veterinary control – provoked resistance from farmers and pharmaceutical companies Sweden became the first country to ban their use through the 1986 Feedingstuffs Act after public concern about AMR – farmers supported the change in legislation In 1980, Sweden had sales of 8.4 tonnes of active antibiotic substances sold as feed additives; in 1988 this dropped to zero Denmark was also a pioneer country acting on this issue; Danish farmers voluntarily stopped using avoparcin for GP in 1995 (avoparcin had been 20% of the total volume of antibiotics used in livestock, mostly in pigs) The EU banned the use of all antibiotics as feed additives from 2006

Answer 143

– Critically Important Antimicrobials for human health – decisions based on two criteria: Criterion 1) Sole therapy or one of few alternatives to treat serious human disease Criterion 2) Antibacterial used to treat diseases caused by organisms that may be transmitted via non-human sources or diseases causes by organisms that may acquire resistance genes from non-human sources Critically important antimicrobials are those which meet criteria 1 AND 2. Highly important antimicrobials are those which meet criteria 1 OR 2. Important antimicrobials are those which meet neither criteria 1 nor 2

Answer 144

July 2014 – Prime Minister David Cameron commissioned a review on AMR Economist Jim O’Neill (Lord O’Neill) was asked to lead the review – reported in Dec 2015 Jointly supported by the UK Government and Wellcome Trust A global public awareness campaign Improve sanitation and prevent the spread of infection Reduce unnecessary use of antimicrobials in agriculture and the environment Improve global surveillance of drug resistance and antimicrobial consumption in humans and animals Promote new, rapid diagnostics to reduce unnecessary use of antimicrobials Promote development and use of vaccines and alternatives Improve the number, pay and recognition of people working in infectious disease A global innovation fund for early stage and non-commercial R&D Better incentives to promote investments for new drugs and improving existing ones Lot of pressure was placed on the livestock sectors to demonstrate clear plans to reduce antibiotic use On a tonnage basis, livestock antibiotic consumption looked high 2015 – approx. 56% of total antibiotic use in the UK was in humans and 44% in animals (with 7% of that animal use in companion animals) Not all livestock sectors were in the same position to put in place hard targets due to the lack of nationalised recording systems Livestock industry group RUMA set up their ‘Targets Taskforce’ in 2016 to set measurable targets for the UK livestock sector

Answer 145

Responsible Use of Medicines in Agriculture Alliance 1. Improve infection prevention and control practices 2. Optimise prescribing practice 3. Improve professional education, training and public engagement 4. Develop new drugs, treatments and diagnostics 5. Better access to, and use of, surveillance data 6. Better identification and prioritisation of AMR research needs 7. Strengthen international collaboration

Answer 146

Definition of “veterinary medicinal product”, interpretation and scope 2.—(1) In these Regulations “veterinary medicinal product” means— (a) any substance or combination of substances presented as having properties for treating or preventing disease in animals; or (b) any substance or combination of substances that may be used in, or administered to, animals with a view either to restoring, correcting or modifying physiological functions by exerting a pharmacological, immunological or metabolic action, or to making a medical diagnosis. Food-producing animals: records of acquisition and administration 19.—(1) When a veterinary medicinal product is bought or otherwise acquired for a food-producing animal the keeper must, at the time, record— (a)the name of the product and the batch number; (b)the date of acquisition; (c)the quantity acquired; and (d)the name and address of the supplier. (2) At the time of administration (unless the administration is by a veterinary surgeon in which case the record must be in accordance with regulation 18) the keeper must record— (a)the name of the product; (b)the date of administration; (c)the quantity administered; (d)the withdrawal period; and (e)the identification of the animals treated. (3) A keeper who disposes of any or all of the veterinary medicinal product other than by treating an animal must record— (a)the date of disposal; (b)the quantity of product involved; and (c)how and where it was disposed of.

Answer 147

use of a water bath is most common method reduces carcass quiality- patechial haemorage, flapping may cause fractures and haemorage shackling can cause handling issues due to hig speed and may be painful dim lights and uk lights and brest plates attempt to sooth poultry if wing touches water before head it can cause pain differemt sized birds may cause inadiquate stunning

Answer 148

co2- not instantanious expensive irritant to resp system recent shortage innert gases- anasthetic properties

Answer 149

Elite breeding stock Great grandparents (GGPs) Grandparents (GPs) Parents BROILERS – The meat chicken

Answer 150

Scald water temp – between 50C and 63C higher temp for turkeys temp and time important- overscalding cooks meat loosenes feather for defethering Lower end for chickens and higher end for turkeys Scalding actually decreases bacterial contamination on the bird

Answer 151

campylobacter no.1 cause of food poisoning Mean numbers reduced on neck skin after scalding, but immediately rose again after plucking 75% of consumer chickens contaminated

Answer 152

after defethering birds removed from the line De-feathering gone wrong? Unbled bird?

Answer 153

Waterbath stunning – small birds may not be stunned Evisceration – machinery set up for the majority larger birds in the batch – gut spill or not eviscerated at all

Answer 154

anitimicrobial use-> Humans: Environment, Human sewage Food animals Animal-derived food Animal waste Companion animals

Answer 155

Polybrominated Biphenyl – flame retardant chemical May 1973 – a chemical factory accidentally mixed up PBB (‘FireMaster’) and magnesium oxide (MgO), intended as a feed additive for livestock The toxic PBB was sold to a livestock feed manufacturer instead of MgO By end of 1975 – 29,000 cattle, 6000 pigs, 1.5M chickens had been euthanised in Michigan to try to control the subsequent toxicity and health issues (Reich, 1983) Toxicity first detected in a 400-cow dairy herd in Sept 1973 (4 months after the mix-up) Farmer was noting significant and unusual health and productivity problems in the herd: decreased appetite and milk yield, increased urination, reproductive issues, abscess formation, hair loss, abnormal hoof growth and gait Feed suspected as the root cause Protracted struggle between farmers, vets, feed company, state authorities to figure out what was going on, and the scale of the problem End result – millions of consumers affected through contaminated food consumption over a year – meat and other livestock-derived food products Cohort study initiated in 1976 to track health impacts through PBB exposure Direct exposure on affected farms and through ingestion of contaminated food products Wolff et al. (1982) reported cross-sectional study on human adipose tissue samples in Michigan – 97% with detectable PBB Hoque et al. (1998) found a dose-response relationship between serum PBB levels and digestive system cancers and lymphoma in affected humans

Answer 156

July 1979 – PCB detected in routine residue testing of fat sample from a chicken slaughtered in Utah (Drotman et al., 1983) Chicken traced back to a layer farm in Idaho The farm had been feeding chicken rations containing processed pig animal by-products Subsequently found that approx. 760 litres of PCB-containing transformer oil had leaked into an ABP collections tank in a pig slaughter plant in Montana The pig ABP had then been rendered and processed into meat and bone meal (MBM) for animal feed Layer farm in Idaho bought this PCB-contaminated chicken feed in June 1979 10 weeks later the source of contamination was discovered – complex investigation PCB had been widely distributed across the animal feed chain from this single source contamination at the pig slaughter plant Approx. 1400 companies in the USA reckoned to have sourced this contaminated MBM Cost of over $3.5M in recall of products

Answer 157

Transformer oil containing 40-50 kgs PCBs and 1g dioxin mixed with used mineral oil and fat from waste recycling Then combined with 60-80 tonnes of fat collected from slaughterhouses Sold to 10 different animal feed manufacturers for incorporation in to animal feed This produced about 500 tonnes of animal feed - distributed to many Belgian, Dutch, French and German farms Belgium worst affected – 445 poultry farms, 393 cattle farms, 746 pig farms (Larebeke et al., 2001) Impacts first noticed on poultry farms and hatcheries – decreased egg production and hatchability, epidemic of chicken oedema disease (Covaci et al., 2002) 6 weeks later – toxicology analysis of feed samples, chickens, eggs 2 million chickens were euthanised – poultry were most affected Political impact due to inadequate communication management around this incident by the government – poorly handled (Casey et al., 2010) Led to creation of a new Belgian food safety authority

Answer 158

PCB/dioxin detected through routine testing of pig fat samples in Nov 2008 National Residue Monitoring programme Traced back to farm of origin – contaminated pig feed Waste bread/biscuits being heated by hot gases to reduce moisture content – waste oil being burned and releasing PCB/dioxin which contaminated the bread/biscuits Result – multiple pig and cattle farms were feeding this bread/biscuit ration 170,000 pigs and 5,700 cattle euthanised on affected farms Global recall of Irish pork announced 6 Dec. 2008 – 30,000 tonnes recalled and destroyed 120 M euro overall cost Reputational damage, but handled quickly and transparently by Irish government with EFSA support

Answer 159

PCB/dioxin detected through routine testing of pig fat samples in Nov 2008 National Residue Monitoring programme Traced back to farm of origin – contaminated pig feed Waste bread/biscuits being heated by hot gases to reduce moisture content – waste oil being burned and releasing PCB/dioxin which contaminated the bread/biscuits Result – multiple pig and cattle farms were feeding this bread/biscuit ration 170,000 pigs and 5,700 cattle euthanised on affected farms Global recall of Irish pork announced 6 Dec. 2008 – 30,000 tonnes recalled and destroyed 120 M euro overall cost Reputational damage, but handled quickly and transparently by Irish government with EFSA support

Answer 160

Cats are the definitive host for the zoonotic parasite Toxoplasma gondii and shed oocysts in their faeces This study observed cat latrines across 3 dairy farms using cameras Repeated use of latrines by cats, particularly those closest to their feeding sites Potential for heavy contamination of soil, straw and animal feed – T. gondii hotspots

Answer 161

animla welfare act 2006 animal health and welfare act scotlant 2006 secondary legislation- welfare of farmed animals 2007

Answer 162

Includes temporary care e.g. wild animals being rehabilitated When you do something to the animal An owner is ALWAYS responsible Includes temporary responsibility, including YOU Anyone responsible for a person under the age of 16 is responsible for their care of any animal Meeting the animals “needs” (as are reasonable in all the circumstances) and according to good practice suitable environment suitable diet to exhibit normal behaviour patterns to be housed with, or apart from, other animals to be protected from pain, suffering, injury and disease

Answer 163

Animal Welfare Act / AHW(S)A (2006) The Animal Welfare (Licensing of Activities Involving Animals) (England) Regulations 2018 Performing Animals Act (1925) The Welfare of Animals (Transport) (E, W, S) Order 2006 Council Regulation (EC) No 1/2005

Answer 164

The Welfare of Animals (Transport) (England) Order 2006 “offence to transport any animal in a way which causes, or is likely to cause, injury or unnecessary suffering to that animal.” “offence to transport any animal except in such receptacles or means of transport, under conditions (in particular with regard to space, ventilation, temperature and security) and with such supply of liquid and oxygen, as are appropriate for the species concerned.”

Answer 165

EC 1/2005- “assembly centres’ means places such as holdings, collection centres and markets, at which domestic Equidae or domestic animals of bovine, ovine, caprine or porcine species originating from different holdings are grouped together to form consignments” Council Regulation (EC) No 1255/97(transferred) applies to control posts Apply principles of duty of care basic needs and relevant WOFAR (welfare of farmed animals regulations) schedules

Answer 166

Markets & roads Principally enforced by local authorities Police and APHA may support Unloading at slaughterhouse – FSA/LA Inside the slaughterhouse lairage – FSA +/- LA APHA however leads on Supervised loadings Ports, airports, control posts Expert reports for slaughterhouses & undercover footage Welfare in Transport Team WIT@apha.gov.uk Journey logs, transporter revocations, letters

Answer 167

5 things have to be fit for purpose The Means of Transport – the trailer / vehicle The competence of the Transporter The competence of Drover / Farmer doing the loading / unloading The competence of the owner/employee making decisions on whether to transport an animal- Prior knowledge of conditions the transporter may be unaware of The animal being transported on the intended journey If any of these things are not fit for purpose this can lead to unnecessary injury and suffering during the transport process including loading and unloading

Answer 168

Remember you may not be dealing with just welfare issues ABP, including dodgy collection bins and dodgy incinerators Vet Medicine Regulations Animal ID transgressions Social / mental health issues that may need referring / reporting

Answer 169

On Farm & Transport- Animal & Plant Health Agency (APHA) Local authorities take most enforcement for farmed animals, usually working with APHA, sometimes SSPCA Private and retailer assurance schemes (e.g. Red Tractor) carry out their own inspections At Slaughter- Food Standards Agency (FSA) and Food Standards Scotland (FSS) Companion Animals- RSPCA, World Horse Welfare, SSPCA Local authorities for any licensed animal activities

Answer 170

Resource measure is feed present? Tells you it is available BUT Is it available at a frequency appropriate to physiological needs? Is it appropriate to their age and species? Outcome measure - Are they eating it?  Outcome – Body Condition Score This is a good outcome measure for whether adult cattle are getting sufficient and appropriate food BUT must consider the breed type in developing BCS measure and in considering risks to welfare

Answer 171

Resource measure is feed present? Tells you it is available BUT Is it available at a frequency appropriate to physiological needs? Is it appropriate to their age and species? Outcome measure - Are they eating it?  Outcome – Body Condition Score This is a good outcome measure for whether adult cattle are getting sufficient and appropriate food BUT must consider the breed type in developing BCS measure and in considering risks to welfare

Answer 172

possession of nociceptors possession of integrative brain regions connections between nociceptors and integrative brain regions responses affected by potential local anaesthetics or analgesics motivational trade-offs that show a balancing of threat against opportunity for reward flexible self-protective behaviours in response to injury and threat associative learning that goes beyond habituation and sensitisation behaviour that shows the animal values local anaesthetics or analgesics when injured. If 2 of the criteria are met then there is some evidence of sentience 3 of the 8 criteria are met then there is substantial evidence of sentience If 5 or more of the criteria are met then there is strong evidence of sentience If 7 or more of the 8 criteria are met then there is very strong evidence of sentience

Answer 173

veterinary medicines directorate (VMD) british small animal veterinary assosiation (BSAVA) Europen medicines agency (EMA) worlds organisation for animal health (woah) food and agreculture organisation (foa)

Answer 174

Sulphonamides used from late 1930s for respiratory diseases Penicillin available to vets from late 1940s In the 1950s antibiotics started to be allowed as growth promoters after American scientists discovered the effects of low-dose aureomycin on pig growth From 1953 the Government allowed aureomycin to be added to pig and poultry feeds By 1958 nearly half of all British pigs had access to antibiotics as growth promoters No license was required for in-feed use, but vets could only administer them as treatment

Answer 175

‘A rise in Salmonella typhimurium infection was observed in calves in Britain during 1964-6, following the adoption of the intensive farming method.’ ‘At least one dealer was distributing furazolidone with his calves, with instructions to his clients to administer it to the animals for a few weeks … we first found furazolidone resistance in cultures of type 29 isolated in November 1964, and within a short time it was prevalent in the type. Calves distributed by this dealer played a major role in carrying type 29 infection to many parts of the country.’

Answer 176

2017 1. Work with clients to avoid need for antimicrobials 2. Avoid inappropriate use 3. Choose the right drug for the right bug 4. Monitor antimicrobial sensitivity 5. Minimise use 6. Record and justify deviations from protocols 7. Report suspected treatment failure to the VMD (Vet. Medicines Directorate)

Answer 177

After initial flurries of success in the decades after the launch of penicillin, the production line of new products started slowing Antibiotic development became less lucrative – high R&D costs New product patents would expire, allowing competitors to replicate and sell at less cost Global pharmaceutical companies started focusing on medicines with longer treatment courses = more attractive returns on investment Pharmacovigilance became more regulated - stricter requirements on the industry, increasing costs

Answer 178

Bovine mastitis involvement - important Humans – skin infections, osteomyelitis, septicaemia – can be fatal. Also foodborne illness due to toxins. One of the first bacteria in which development of resistance was noticed MRSA – Methicillin-resistant Staph. aureus – nasal and groin carriage Often >90% S. aureus isolates penicillin-resistant

Answer 179

part of the vet. medicines directorate (vmd) handles- amr policy stewardship and usage survalence and evidence r and d program residues

Answer 180

Although DEFRA is the lead state veterinary organisation at a UK level, and APHA is essentially its operational arm, animal health legislation is devolved to the Parliaments/Assembly in Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland The Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DAERA) runs the Veterinary Service in N. Ireland Since Brexit, the NI Protocol sets out the legal framework covering NI and its relationship to the European Union (EU) – NI continues to align with EU Regulations on goods and customs This regulatory alignment means that NI must apply Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures as if it was still within the EU i.e. animal/animal product and plant checks at ports for import trade from GB, but free trade with Rep. of Ireland (intra-EU trade)

Answer 181

Launched in 2014 – merger of Animal Health and Veterinary Laboratories Agency (AHVLA) with parts of the Food and Environment Research Agency (FERA) Covers animal, plant and bee health Headquarters in Weybridge, Surrey. Approx. 2,200 staff in total. Andrew Soldan MRCVS is the APHA Veterinary Director

Answer 182

Non-legislative approaches – OIE (World Organisation for Animal Health), Farm Quality Assurance schemes, welfare-friendly labelling, retailer schemes, codes of best practice, public campaigns/pressure groups

Answer 183

Creation, implementation and enforcement of UK legislation – role for the state veterinarian

Answer 184

novel clinical synfrome dectected in q987 37,280 cases in UK in peak year of 1992 Behavioural abnormalities and over-reactivity to various external stimuli, often in combination with abnormalities of gait, were highly suggestive of BSE.’ isteriosis most common differential

Answer 185

Netherlands 2017 UK Food Standards Agency (FSA) estimated 700,000 eggs imported into the UK were contaminated

Answer 186

Outbreaks occurring every day in Great Britain. As of the start of this week: 118 confirmed cases of highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) H5N1 in England since 1 October 2022 252 cases of (HPAI) H5N1 in England since the H5N1 outbreak started in October 2021 The 3km and 10km zones (an example): Highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI) H5N1 was confirmed in poultry and other captive birds on 21 November 2022 at a premises near Barnard Castle, County Durham, Durham (AIV 2022/213). A 3km protection zone and 10km surveillance zone are in place around the premises. All birds on the premises will be humanely culled.

Answer 187

Outbreaks occurring every day in Great Britain Culls of birds on infected holdings Culls of birds deemed at risk from infected flocks Loss of trade in hatching eggs, table eggs, poultry meat, day old chicks, (captive birds) National (UK-wide), regional (Regions of UK, counties), zonal restrictions (3 and 10km) Massive financial impacts - lost trade, lost markets, lost genetics, lost production poultry redifined to protect trade- Means all birds reared or kept in captivity for the production of any commercial animal products or for breeding for this purpose, fighting cocks used for any purpose, and all birds used for restocking supplies of game or for breeding for this purpose, until they are released from captivity. Birds that are kept in a single household, the products of which are used within the same household exclusively, are not considered poultry, provided that they have no direct or indirect contact with poultry or poultry facilities. Birds that are kept in captivity for other reasons, including those that are kept for shows, racing, exhibitions, zoological collections and competitions, and for breeding or selling for these purposes, as well as pet birds, are not considered poultry, provided that they have no direct or indirect contact with poultry or poultry facilities.

Answer 188

ASF in China was expected to result in a 27% reduction in Chinese pork production This opened trading opportunities for other nations to supply into that production deficit

Answer 189

Estimated impact on Canadian economy = $1 billion due to loss of export markets

Answer 190

threat from imported dogs ‘The UK’s lack of experience with rabies is a blessing and a curse. As Chris Laurence, former chair of the Canine and Feline Sector Group, points out: ‘We’ve basically never had rabies in this country, so you wonder how quickly it would be picked up. How many vets in the UK have seen a case of rabies and would recognise it?’

Answer 191

RSPCA campaign on banning puppy imports ‘In October 2020 alone, 5,287 Intra Trade Animal Health Certificates (ITAHC) were issued - the highest ever for commercial dog and puppy imports.’ In a RSPCA-commissioned survey in Nov 2020, 38% of respondents said they would be willing to buy a smuggled puppy

Answer 192

IPAFFS 'Import of Products, Animals, Food and Feed System' replaces the EU's TRACES system in GB.

Answer 193

The legal basis of the EU Pet Travel Scheme (dogs, cats , ferrets): Article 6 Conditions applicable to the non-commercial movement of pet animals of the species listed in Part A of Annex I Pet animals of the species listed in Part A of Annex I shall not be moved into a Member State from another Member State unless they fulfil the following conditions: they are marked in accordance with Article 17(1); they have received an anti-rabies vaccination that complies with the validity requirements set out in Annex III; they comply with any preventive health measures for diseases or infections other than rabies adopted pursuant to Article 19(1); they are accompanied by an identification document duly completed and issued in accordance with Article 22.

Answer 194

1. A veterinarian should certify only those matters which: a) are within his or her own knowledge; b) can be ascertained by him or her personally; c) are the subject of supporting evidence from an authorised veterinarian who has personal knowledge of the matters in question; or d) are the subject of checks carried out by an Officially Authorised Person (OAP) (see Annex 21.A).

Answer 195

2. Veterinarians should not issue a certificate that might raise questions of a possible conflict of interest.

Answer 196

3. A veterinarian should only sign certificates that are written in a language they understand.

Answer 197

. A veterinarian should not certify that there has been compliance with the law of another country or jurisdiction unless the provisions of that law are set out clearly on the certificate or have been provided to them by the Competent Authority in writing.

Answer 198

A veterinarian should only sign original certificates. Where there is a legal or official requirement for a certified copy or duplicate (marked as such) these can be provided.

Answer 199

6. When signing a certificate, a veterinarian should ensure that: a) the certificate contains no deletions or alterations, other than those which are indicated on the certificate to be permissible, and subject to such changes being initialled and stamped by the certifying veterinarian; b) no section of the certificate is left incomplete; c) the certificate includes not only their signature but also, in clear lettering, their name, qualifications and address and (where appropriate) their official or practice stamps; d) the certificate includes the date on which the certificate was signed and issued and (where appropriate) the time for which the certificate will remain valid.

Answer 200

7. Certificates should be written in simple terms which are easy to understand.

Answer 201

8. Certificates should be: a) clear and concise; b) integrated, whole and indivisible; c) given a unique identifier; and d) copied and retained with all relevant records.

Answer 202

9. Certificates should not use words or phrases which are capable of more than one interpretation.

Answer 203

10. Certificates should clearly identify the subject being certified.

Answer 204

An import risk analysis starts with a consideration of the commodity being imported Anticipated volume of trade annually? Difficult to estimate if new trade Next step – Hazard identification – the potential pathogens, THEN: Release assessment Exposure assessment Consequence assessment Risk estimation

Answer 205

Risk management comes after risk assesmet – the process of deciding upon, and implementing, measures to achieve the appropriate level of national protection, while still facilitating trade Fulfil obligations under international trade agreements, while minimising likelihood of disease incursions and their consequences Risk evaluation Option evaluation Implementation Monitoring and review

Answer 206

Traceability – the ability to document movements, processes, controls to cover the animal and animal product’s life history The need for traceability therefore allows us to make demands on all elements of the food chain: Animal feed manufacturers Primary producers Transporters (trade certification, movement docs) Food business operators – abattoirs, processors Retailers – the final link to the consumer The risks need to be managed effectively throughout the food supply chain

Answer 207

farm- Primary production – sheep, cattle, pig Marketing from the farm – direct to slaughter or through livestock market Abattoir Cutting plant- Primary processing – from live animal to carcass Secondary processing – from carcass to meat portions – cutting plants distribution- Local/national trade – butchers, retailers, catering, manufacturing Export trade End point – consumption – pork, beef, lamb/mutton

Answer 208

Article 11.3 states that: ‘Ante-mortem inspections shall determine whether, as regards the particular animal inspected, there is any sign: (a) that the health and welfare of the animal has been compromised; (b) of any condition, abnormalities or disease that make the fresh meat unfit for human consumption or that might adversely affect animal health, paying particular attention to the detection of zoonotic diseases and animal diseases for which animal health rules are laid down in Regulation (EU) 2016/429- The ‘Animal Health Law’ – essentially notifiable diseases (c) of the use of prohibited or unauthorised substances, misuse of veterinary medicinal products or the presence of chemical residues or contaminants.’

Answer 209

PRINCIPLES OF MEAT HYGIENE APPLYING TO ANIMALS PRESENTED FOR SLAUGHTER i. Animals presented for slaughter should be sufficiently clean so that they do not compromise hygienic slaughter and dressing. ii. The conditions of holding of animals presented for slaughter should minimise cross-contamination with foodborne pathogens and facilitate efficient slaughter and dressing. iii. Slaughter animals should be subjected to ante-mortem inspection, with the competent authority determining the procedures and tests to be used, how inspection is to be implemented, and the necessary training, knowledge, skills and ability of personnel involved. iv. Ante-mortem inspection should be science- and risk-based as appropriate to the circumstances and should take into account all relevant information from the level of primary production. v. Relevant information from primary production where available and results of ante-mortem inspection should be utilised in process control. vi. Relevant information from ante-mortem inspection should be analysed and returned to the primary producer as appropriate.’ Extract from Codex Alimentarius – Code of Hygienic Practice for Meat

Answer 210

Clean livestock Article 11.4 states that: ‘Ante-mortem inspection shall include verification of food business operators' compliance with their obligation to ensure that animals have a clean hide, skin or fleece, so as to avoid any unacceptable risk of contamination of the fresh meat during slaughter.’ The need for ‘clean’ animals to be presented for slaughter is laid down here in European law

Answer 211

Less-than-ideal transport conditions can result in clean animals becoming contaminated en route to the abattoir Make sure the transport vehicle is clean, dry and disinfected between loads Avoid loading up cattle in wet conditions – try to have them dry and clean before the journey Coming off grass compared to housing can affect faecal consistency Transport vehicles must have protection from the weather – roof and ventilation to avoid cattle sweating Multi-deck vehicles – should be designed so that faeces and urine do not flow down onto animals on the lower decks woadt!

Answer 212

Purchase and transport Unloading and lairage Ante-mortem inspection Stunning Shackling Opening hide of neck Sticking and bleeding Hoof removal Head removal Opening of hide on body and hide removal Brisket sawing Eviscerating Carcass splitting Removal of spinal cord- specified risk material Trimming Carcass weighing, grading and health marking Washing Chilling

Answer 213

Purchase and transport Unloading and lairage Ante-mortem inspection Stunning Shackling Opening fleece of neck Sticking and bleeding opening of fleece om body and removal Head removal feet removal Brisket sawing Eviscerating Carcass splitting Removal of spinal cord- specified risk material Trimming Carcass weighing, grading and health marking Washing Chilling

Answer 214

Purchase and transport Unloading and lairage Ante-mortem inspection Stunning Shackling Opening fleece of neck Sticking and bleeding scalding deharing singing poloshng washing Eviscerating Carcass splitting washing brisket sawing carcass weighing , grading and health marking chilling

Answer 215

Muscle tissue at death contains about 1% glycogen pH = around 7.2 Meat would be slightly tough and tasteless Anaerobic glycolysis starts – muscle tissue changes to become meat Carcass temperature rises by 1.5 C Muscles start to stiffen must be aged to be tender

Answer 216

Codex Alimentarius recommends the use of risk assessment Many different methods High medium low Likelihood x severity = risk (3x3 & 5x5 popular) RAG Simply stated Recommend you show your justification

Answer 217

a criterion that can be monitored that separates acceptability from unacceptability HACCP

Answer 218

conducting a planned sequence of observations or measurements of control parameters to assess whether a critical control point (CCP) is under control should specify: – who is responsible for undertaking the check – when it should be carried out – what equipment, if any, is required – how it should be carried out

Answer 219

any actions to be taken when the results of monitoring at a critical control point (CCP) indicate a loss of control * two main aims: – to make the product safe – to prevent a recurrence of the problem

Answer 220

verification involves confirming that the HACCP system is working correctly by applying additional methods, procedures, tests or other evaluations that are in addition to the monitoring procedures already in place Includes management activities such as auditing and review of historical issues, complaints etc.

Answer 221

a review of the HACCP system and plan * a review of documentation and records * a review of any deviations: – actions taken if products rejected or recalled – records of food-borne illness – customer complaints * confirmation that CCPs are under control

Answer 222

lack of management commitment * insufficient resources are provided * lack of awareness and/or training * hygiene standards are poor * system developed is too complicated * system has not been developed in-house * agreed procedures are not being carried out * not all hazards have been identified

Answer 223

African horse sickness African swine fever Anthrax Aujeszky’s disease Avian influenza (bird flu) Batrachochytrium salamandrivorans Bluetongue BSE Bovine TB Brucellosis Chronic wasting disease Classical swine fever Contagious agalactia Contagious bovine pleuro-pneumonia Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia Contagious epididymitis Contagious equine metritis Dourine Echinococcus multilocularis Enzootic bovine leukosis Epizootic haemorrhagic disease Epizootic lymphangitis Equine infectious anaemia (swamp fever) Equine viral arteritis Equine viral encephalomyelitis Foot and mouth disease Glanders and farcy Goat plague Lumpy skin disease Newcastle disease Paramyxovirus infection Porcine epidemic diarrhoea Rabies Rabies in bats Rift Valley fever Rinderpest Scrapie Sheep and goat pox Sheep scab Surra Swine vesicular disease Teschen disease Vesicular stomatitis Warble fly West Nile fever:

Answer 224

International trade Public health Animal welfare

Answer 225

Stop imports from infected areas or countries Pre-export tests and isolation Post import checks Trading partners Horizon scanning Active and passive surveillance programmes

Answer 226

Serve restrictions +/-temporary control zones APHA investigate +/- take samples CVO confirmation Trace + spread Action to control disease spread: Cleanse and disinfect Zones Culling/compensation/sparing

Public Health And State Vet Service Flashcards

(251 cards)