Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

How to Doctor: Public health > Public Health Basics > Flashcards

Public Health Basics Flashcards

1
Q

Public Health

What is the #1 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Public Health

What is the #2 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Public Health

What is the #3 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Unintentional injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Public Health

What is the #4 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Chronic lower respiratory diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Public Health

What is the #5 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Public Health

What is the #6 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Public Health

What is the #7 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Public Health

What is the #8 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Pneumonia and influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Public Health

What is the #9 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Nephritis, nephrosis, and nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Public Health

What is the #10 cause of death in the U.S.?

A

Suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Public Health

What is the CEA Winslow definition of public health?

A

The science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting physical health and efficiency…

(PrevProlProm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Public Health

Name a few of the greatest public health achievements of the 20th and 21st centuries.

A

Immunizations
Motor-vehicle safety
Workplace safety
Family planning
Fluoridation of drinking water
Infectious disease control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Public Health

Describe Leavell and Clark’s Levels of Prevention (Primordial, primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary).

A

Primordial - Population measures (E.g. legislation)

Primary - Addressing individual risk factors (E.g. proper nutrition)

Secondary - Screenings (E.g. pap smears)

Tertiary - Disease treatment (E.g. a type 1 diabetic receiving insulin administration)

Quaternary - Reducing over-medicalization (E.g. strict opioid administration to prevent unnecessary use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Public Health

Define incidence rate.

A

The number of new cases of a disease over a certain period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Public Health

Define prevalence rate.

A

The number of existing cases within a certain window of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Public Health

Define social determinants of health.

A

The social determinants of health are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work and age. These circumstances are shaped by the distribution of money, power, and resources at global, national and local levels. The social determinants of health are mostly responsible for health inequities - the unfair and avoidable differences in health status seen within and between countries (WHO definition).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between absolute and relative poverty?

A

Absolute poverty is defined as living on less than $2 a day and refers to all individuals under this amount globally.

Relative poverty refers to the difference in wealth between an individual and those in their community (E.g. an individual that makes $40,000 per year living near an individual making $200,000 per year is relatively impoverished in comparison).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Public Health

What is the federal poverty level?

A

The recognized U.S. poverty line.

Examples:
< $12,000 per year for individuals
< $16,500 per year for a family of two
(The amount steadily increases with the size of the family)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Public Health

What is the absolute poverty level?

A

Living on less than $2 per day (1 billion individuals are in this bracket worldwide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

A

While both are forms of acquired immunity, active immunity refers to immunity in which the individual synthesizes their own antibodies. Passive immunity refers to immunity in which the individual receives pre-synthesized antibodies from an external source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Public Health

Give an example of active natural immunity.

A

An individual gets exposed to a pathogenic antigen and begins synthesizing their own antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Public Health

Give an example of active artificial immunity.

A

Vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Public Health

Give an example of passive natural immunity.

A

A mother passing her antibodies (IgA) to her baby through her breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Public Health

Give an example of passive artificial immunity.

A

Lab-synthesized gammaglobulins being administered (E.g. following a hepatitis needle stick or bite by a rabid dog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Public Health

What are live-attenuated vaccinations?

A

Vaccinations in which the pathogen in question has been weakened but not fully killed before being introduced to the patient (E.g. the Sabin polio or MMR vaccine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Public Health

What are inactivated (killed) vaccinations?

A

Vaccinations in which the pathogen in question has been killed before being introduced to the patient (E.g. the Salk polio vaccine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Public Health

What are component vaccinations?

A

Vaccinations in which the only a component of the pathogen in question is introduced to the patient (E.g. the pertussis portion of the DTaP vaccine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Public Health

Define herd immunity.

A

The resistance of a group to a disease due to the overall immunity of the group (A certain percentage of the population must be vaccinated to prevent infectious disease spread. This percentage depends on the disease in question)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
# Define R0 
(Pronounced R-naught)
A

The number of people one sick individual will infect (On average)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Public Health

Describe innate immunity.

A

Nonspecific mechanisms that protect the body against disease.

Examples: Skin, hair, mucus, macrophages, neutrophils, lysozyme secretions, stomach acidity, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Public Health

Describe acquired immunity.

A

Mechanisms that protect the body against specific, previously encountered antigens.

Examples: B-lymphocytes, T-lymphocytes, immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Public Health

T/F The MMR vaccine causes autism?

A

False

Many large, well-designed studies have found no link between MMR and autism.

Autism usually becomes apparent around the same time MMR is given—no evidence of causality.

Autism probably has multiple components, including genetics (e.g., one study found that if one identical twin had autism, the chance that the second twin had autism was greater than 90%, but with fraternal twins the chance was less than 10%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Public Health

T/F Multiple vaccinations can overwhelm an infant’s immune system, so vaccines should be spread out on a long-term schedule.

A

False

Vaccines use only a tiny proportion of a baby’s immune system’s ability to respond; though children receive more vaccines than in the past, today’s vaccines contain fewer antigens (e.g., sugars and proteins) than previous vaccines. Smallpox vaccine alone contained 200 proteins; the 11 currently recommended
routine vaccines contain fewer than 130 immunologic components.

Delaying vaccines increases the time children will be susceptible to diseases. There is no evidence that spreading out the schedule
decreases the risk of adverse reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Public Health

What is an odds ratio?

A

An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Public Health

What type of study uses an odds ratio to report its conclusions?

A

A case-control study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Public Health

Define epidemic.

A

An epidemic is a period of time with a higher than expected incidence rate but over a broader geographic region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Public Health

Define endemic.

A

The term endemic refers to a region where there is a persistent baseline incidence and prevalence rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Public Health

Define pandemic.

A

A pandemic is an epidemic where the disease is being actively transmitted on multiple continents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Public Health

Define outbreak.

A

An outbreak is defined as a higher than expected incidence rate tied to a geographic focal point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Public Health

What are some modes of infectious disease transmission?

A

Airborne
water-borne
fecal-oral
vector-borne
fomite
perinatal
food-borne
animal bites
sexual transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Public Health

Define incubation period.

A

The time between being infected with a pathogen and showing symptoms (Actively dividing pathogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Public Health

Define latency period.

A

The time between being infected with a pathogen and showing symptoms (Non-actively dividing pathogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between the latency period and the incubation period?

A

In an incubation period, the pathogen is actively dividing. In a latency period, it is not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Public Health

Define infectious dose.

A

The number of a certain type of pathogenic microb needed in order to cause disease in an infected individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between eradication and elimination?

A

Eradication refers to the complete removal of a disease from the world (E.g. smallpox).

Elimination refers to the complete removal of a disease from a specific geographic region (E.g. polio).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Public Health

Define pathogen.

A

A microorganism that can cause disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Public Health

Are all infectious diseases widely contagious?

A

No (Think botulism or tetanus). They are infectious but not widely transmissible from person to person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Public Health

Describe fomite transmission.

A

Touching surface, object or person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Public Health

Describe airborne transmission.

A

Respiratory drops in the air (Due to sneezing, coughing, breathing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Public Health

Describe vector-borne transmission.

A

Carried by non-host species to host (Typically insects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Public Health

Describe fecal-oral transmission.

A

Ingesting microscopic amounts of contaminated fecal matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Public Health

What are some other types of modes of transmission?

A

Water-borne
Perinatal (mother to child)
Food-borne
Animal bites (Zoonotic)
Sexual transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Public Health

What are anti-helminthic drugs?

A

Anti-parasitic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Public Health

What are antibiotic drugs?

A

Drugs that kill bacteria or interfere with bacterial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Public Health

What is a non-pharmacological intervention?

A

Non-drug related treatments.

E.g. hand washing, exercise, isolation of infected individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Public Health

What are the characteristics of a bacteria?

A

Prokaryotic cells that can both be helpful and harmful to humans. They reproduce on their own (Unlike viruses).

Helpful bacteria work as our microbiome and protect us and help us with digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Public Health

What are the characteristics of a virus?

A

They are not alive. They are protein shells (Capsids made of protomers) that contain genetic material (Single- or double-stranded DNA or RNA) and require a host cell in order to replicate themselves. They hijack the host cell’s enzymes and other machinery.

Viral glycoproteins allow the cell to interact with host cells in order to inject their genetic material or to be completely endocytosed.

More complex viruses sometimes have a lipid coat around their capsid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Public Health

What are the characteristics of a parasite?

A

Multicellular (Usually) eukaryotic organisms (Like us). Things like malaria, leishmaniasis, hookworm, guinea worm, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Public Health

Define dynamics.

A

How we describe infectious disease movements, patterns, and behaviors over time and geography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Public Health

Define system.

A

Any group of interacting parts that form a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Public Health

Define a complicated system.

A

Has many interacting parts that need to work correctly in a sequence to reach the desired result. However, each step of the process is completely predictable based on the step before it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Public Health

Define the results of a complex system. Can we easily predict them?

A

No, the results brought about by the interacting parts of a complex system are not directly predictable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Public Health

Define emergent properties.

A

Behaviors or outputs of a system that arise from two or more interacting components that cannot be explained by either of them on their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Public Health

What is an epidemic curve?

A

A graph of the number of cases or incidence rate of cases versus time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Public Health

Define propagate.

A

To travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Public Health

What is human ecology?

A

How humans interact with and are impacted by their surrounding environment and each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Public Health

What is a node?

A

An individual entity in the network, like a person or a hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Public Health

What is an edge (In relation to a node)?

A

What connects two nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Public Health

What is a random network?

A

A lot of people/things randomly connected to each other with no rhyme or reason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Public Health

What is a scale-free network?

A

A network where some nodes are more highly connected than others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Public Health

What are network hubs?

A

Nodes that are more connected than others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Public Health

What is synchronous spread?

A

The timing of an epidemic overlapping in multiple locations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Public Health

What is (sexual) concurrency?

A

Individuals having multiple partners at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Public Health

What is compartmental flow?

A

We are essentially coming up with a fake scenario in which people flow from one “compartment” or stage to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Public Health

Describe a deterministic model.

A

The model does not worry about random effects, like individual differences in susceptibility. Everyone follows the same rules of probability about what compartment they are in at any given time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Public Health

Describe the SIR model.

A

“Susceptible, Infectious, and Recovered.” Each person is either in the S, I or R compartment at any given time. The simplest version of the SIR model doesn’t take into account birth and death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Public Health

What is the S in the SIR model?

A

Susceptible individuals (May become sick)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Public Health

What is the I in the SIR model?

A

Infectious individuals (Are sick and may infect others)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Public Health

What is the R in the SIR model?

A

Recovered individuals (Are no longer in danger of becoming sick again)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Public Health

Describe a stochastic model.

A

A model that takes individuality into account. They are very commonly used and based off of the same mathematical principles as deterministic models. They just use more complicated probability formulas describing whether someone will move into the next compartment, and are not deterministic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Public Health

What is an agent-based model?

A

Helpful to study diseases that are very difficult to trace through a network to a particular infecting person (like respiratory diseases). They use computer simulations to estimate the behaviors of a real-world city, region or country. The simulations can help predict what emergent properties might occur as an infectious disease travels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Public Health

What is R0?

A

The number of infected individuals one person is expected to infect while they are infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Public Health

What is the herd-immunity threshold?

A

The proportion of people that need to be immunized in order to eradicate a disease, or prevent an outbreak (Varies from disease to disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Public Health

What is hysteresis?

A

A change in status. ex. a new emerging disease can cause an epidemic, and if not eliminated, reach a new stable equilibrium where it is now endemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Public Health

How do we calculate the number of people that will move from the S compartment to the I compartment?

A

cBSI/n

c = contacts 
Beta = P(Infected/contacted) 
S = susceptible 
I = infected 
n = population
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Public Health

How do we calculate the number of people moving from the I compartment to the R compartment?

A

1/DI

D = duration 
I = Infectious
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Public Health

What is Rt?

A

Real-time or effective reproduction. Our goal when trying to prevent infectious diseases is to push Rt below 1, so that the epidemic will die out. In essence, you want to “remove” susceptible or infectious individuals from the population faster than the disease spreads. Vaccines do this very effectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Public Health

What is the formula for R0?

A

cB/y

c = contact 
B = P(Infected/contacted) 
y = rate of recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Public Health

What is our R0 goal?

A

R0 < 1 (The disease is not actively propagating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Public Health

What is the E in the S(E)IR system?

A

Exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Public Health

What are agent-based models used for?

A

Predictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Public Health

Selective mixing is a trend of what kind of network?

A

Sexual networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Public Health

Define ecology.

A

The study of factors influencing the abundance and distribution of organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Public Health

Define competition and cooperation.

A

Competition - Driving force of natural selection (Remember viruses damaging each other and competing for resources)

Cooperation - Differing species working together to benefit all species involved (Remember biofilms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Public Health

What is a biofilm?

What is quorum sensing?

A

A biofilm is a collection of bacteria cooperating and working together. Biofilms often form on hospital catheters / instruments and are responsible for many nosocomial infections

Quorum sensing is the cell-to-cell communication that regulates the density of bacteria growth so they can share resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Public Health

What is a habitat?

A

The physical area a species inhabits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Public Health

What is an ecological niche?

A

The habitat + behaviors of a particular species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Public Health

How many species can occupy the same ecological niche?

A

Only 1.

Either one species will evolve to separate the niches, or one will out-compete the other, resulting in its extinction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Public Health

How does climate change affect ecology (Particularly disease dynamics)?

A

1) Warming can cause a shift in timing, where epidemic peak may occur at a different time of year than it did in the past
2) Warming can cause more epidemic “cycles”, meaning that there may be two epidemic peaks in the same year
3) Warming can cause overall epidemic intensity to either increase or decrease, depending on whether the pathogen can well-tolerate the new climate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Public Health

What is it mean for a disease to be zoonotic?

A

A zoonotic disease is a disease that has its origins in a species other than humans
(This includes vector-borne diseases as well as direct zoonotic diseases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Public Health

What does it mean for a disease to be frequency-dependent?

A

Transmission rates increase with the number of infectious people, but it doesn’t matter how geographically dense they are.

(I.e. STDs and some vector-borne diseases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Public Health

What does it mean for a disease to be density-dependent?

A

Transmission rates increase with population density of the host.

(E.g. influenza)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Public Health

What is it called when an area has everything necessary for disease to spread (Pathogen, climate, resources, etc.), but humans don’t inhabit the area?

A

A silent zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Public Health

What happens when a large population enters a silent zone?

A

There will be an epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Public Health

What are the principal modes of transmission? (8)
PAAWSFFF

A

Perinatal
Airborne
Animal bites
Water-borne
Sexual
Fecal-oral
Fomite
Food-borne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Public Health

What is the name of this type of zoonotic transmission cycle?

Human –> Human –> Human

A

Direct human-to-human

(E.g. influenza)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Public Health

What is the zoonotic transmission cycle in which a disease principally found in animals is passed to a human (Who does not pass it to other humans)?

A

Direct zoonosis

(E.g. rabies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Public Health

What is the zoonotic transmission cycle if the disease can only be passed from human to human via an insect or animal?

A

Vector-borne

(E.g. malaria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Public Health

If a disease can only be passed to humans from animals via a vector, what is the zoonotic transmission cycle?

A

Vectored zoonosis

(E.g. encephalitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Public Health

(Here’s the trickiest one)

If a disease can only be passed to humans from animals via a vector, and then it is transmitted from human to human via a vector, what is the zoonotic transmission cycle?

A

Anthropo-zoonosis

(E.g. yellow fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Public Health

What is a reservoir?

A

A host species for a viral disease that does not usually become seriously ill from the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Public Health

What are some examples of common reservoirs?

A

Bats, mice, and birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Public Health

What is the term that describes the transference of a disease from one species to another?

A

A spillover event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Public Health

How does biodiversity protect us from disease?

A

The greater the number of species in a given area, the fewer interactions humans are likely to have with a particular disease-carrying species (Remember the Lyme disease example). This is called the dilution effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Public Health

What is disease emergence?

A

The process by which a disease gains strength in the general population following a spillover event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Public Health

Are deer ticks born with Lyme disease?

Where do they typically get it?

A

No.

Usually, they get Lyme disease from their first blood meal (If the meal is infected, as white-footed mice often are).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Public Health

Describe the life cycle of a tick.

A

Uninfected larva hatch in late Summer –>

The feed on a (possibly) infected small animal –>

They molt and become nymphs till the end of Winter –>

In Spring/Summer/Fall they feed on vertebrates –>

Ticks that feed on deer mate and lay eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Public Health

Who is the main international player conducting global surveillance?

A

The WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Public Health

What laws must the WHO operate under in order to conduct global surveillance?

A

The International Health Regulations (IHR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Public Health

What is the order of players involved in reporting global surveillance (From local data collection all the way to the WHO)?

A

Field surveillance –>
National focal point (E.g. CDC) –>
Regional contact point (E.g. The Pan-American Health Organization) –>
WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Public Health

What weekly report does the CDC release on surveillance and research activities?

A

Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Public Health

What are syphilis, smallpox, and AIDS examples of (Regarding data collection in the U.S. around infectious disease control)?

A

These are examples of reportable diseases .

(AIDS, chickenpox, gonorrhea, hepatitis A and B, measles, mumps, rubella, salmonella, shigella, syphilis, and TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Public Health

What are some of the fundamental components of surveillance programs?

A

Catchment areas
Case-report forms (CRFs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Public Health

What is a catchment area? When should one be designated in forming a surveillance plan?

A

A catchment area is the defined geographic region in which the surveillance will be operated.
The catchment area designation is the first step in the surveillance program design.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Public Health

What is a case-report form?

A

Data collection tool (Basically a survey) where information on sick -or suspected to be sick- individuals can be recorded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Public Health

What are the first three essential steps in planning and running a successful surveillance program? What are some important components of each?

A
  1. System design (Catchment area designation, disease identification protocols, reporting process set up, etc.)
  2. Data collection (CRFs, contact tracing, etc.)
  3. Collation (Data aggregation, standardization, and organization)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Public Health

What are essential steps four and five in planning and running a successful surveillance program? What are some important components of each?

A
  1. Analysis (Statistical / epidemiological measures)
  2. Interpretation (Rates, vulnerable / geographic areas, morbidity / mortality, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Public Health

What are the final two essential steps in planning and running a successful surveillance program? What are some important components of each?

A
  1. Dissemination / Communication (Radio, social media, television, health departments, scientific journals, etc.)
  2. Program change (Target vulnerable populations, modify program procedures)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Public Health

Define syndromic surveillance.

A

Uses non-diagnostic health data (E.g. Google searches or ambulance records) to determine how many people are symptomatic of a disease.

Remember GPHIN from the TED video shown in class. They prevented a SARS epidemic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Public Health

What can syndromic surveillance help us catch?

A

Very useful in the detection of emerging diseases, disease outbreaks, or bioterrorist threats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Public Health

What is the Emerging Infections Program?

A

CDC catchment zones scattered across the U.S. monitoring antibiotic-resistant bacteria, foodborne outbreaks, influenza, and nosocomial infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Public Health

What is the Active Bacterial Core?

A

An EIP program responsible for collecting data surrounding bacterial disease trends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Public Health

How do we prevent epidemics and pandemics?

A

Early detection, early response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Public Health

Superbug

A

When there are high morbidity and mortality due to a bacteria that has become resistant, it is often referred to as a superbug.

Extra info: Resistance to pharmacotherapy is not only an issue for bacteria, but it can arise in cancer cells, parasites, fungi, and other infections. Bacteria with acquired resistance include TB, S. aureus, Acinetobacter, E. coli, and V. cholera.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Public Health

Why mechanisms for resistance exist in nature

A

Microscopic organisms have been battling one another for millions of years by producing chemicals that can limit the growth of other organisms. Resistance to these chemicals has evolved in synchronization with them.

Mechanisms for resistance are therefore not new to human populations. They have been in development long before we ever started using antibiotics therapeutically. In fact, a large portion of your microbiome is already resistant to antibiotics you have never been exposed to.

(Example: Penicillinase was discovered in the natural bacterial population in samples that pre-date the use of therapeutic penicillin.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Public Health

Horizontal gene transfer

A

When a bacteria takes up DNA from another source, it is called horizontal (or lateral) gene transfer (HGT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Public Health

Genetic island/cassette

A

The part of a bacteria’s genome resulting from HGT is called a genomic island, or a genetic cassette.

Genomic islands can confer resistance in the new bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Public Health

Vertical gene transfer

A

If a gene is inherited directly from a “parent” bacteria during reproduction, it is called vertical gene transfer (VGT).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Public Health

Intrinsic resistance

A

In the case of intrinsic resistance, no mutation is necessary to confer resistance.

The bacteria simply overcomes the antibiotic by making more copies of the protein that the antibiotic targets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Public Health

Ways in which resistance can develop (change drug target, modify cell walls, metabolize antibiotic, etc.)

A

It is important to note that resistance genes exist in bacteria with or without selection (does not “cost” them anything).

There are many different biological mechanisms by which they work. These include:

  1. changing the shape of the antibiotics target protein,
  2. developing the ability to metabolize the antibiotic,
  3. developing the ability to recognize and actively pump out the antibiotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Public Health

Conjugation

A

Transfer of genetic material from bacteria to bacteria through a sex pilus connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Public Health

Transduction

A

Transfer of genetic material from bacteria to bacteria via a bacteriophage (Virus that infects bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Public Health

Transformation

A

Direct uptake of ‘spilled’ DNA from outside the bacterial cell into the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Public Health

The roles of humans in creating resistance

A
  1. Less than ½ of the therapeutic antibiotics in existence are for human use.
  2. There is a dramatic overprescription of antibiotics in the U.S. and internationally (Often for viral infections).
  3. In agriculture, antibiotics are often used prophylactically because it was thought that they improve weight gain of animals (not to treat or prevent infection).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Public Health

What can be done to mitigate the problem of antibiotic resistance?

A

Identifying resistant bacteria earlier, and developing new methods for identifying antibiotics or other antimicrobial therapies.

For example, genotyping of strains in clinics to test for resistance is on its way to becoming common practice. Another common strategy is to use combinations of antibiotics, so that the bacteria is not able to acquire resistance. This is a method used often in the treatment of drug-resistant TB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Public Health

What is a vector-borne disease?

A

Diseases that are transmitted between hosts by another species

(The vector is typically not infected, but that is not true in cases such as malaria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Public Health

What specific ecological challenges do vector-borne diseases produce?

A

How do we eliminate/control the vector without wide-ranging ecological effects?

How will climate change affect vector and host distributions?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Public Health

What are some methods to prevent vector-borne disease?

A

Indoor residual spraying

Bednets / window screens

Genetic modifications

Larvae extermination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Public Health

Name four vector-borne diseases.

A

Malaria

Dengue fever

Zika

Chikungunya virus

Etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Public Health

How is the chikungunya virus transmitted?

Where is it found?

What is its incubation period?

What are some associated signs/symptoms?

How is it treated?

A

Mosquito-borne

Central / Southeast Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa

1 - 12 days

Rash, fever, polyarthralgia, vomiting, headache

Anti-inflammatories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Public Health

How is the Dengue fever virus transmitted?

Where is it found?

What are some associated signs/symptoms?

How is it treated?

A

The Aedes aegypti mosquito

More than 100 countries in both hemispheres

Crushing bone pain (It is often called ‘bone break fever’), fever, lethargy, can be hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Public Health

How is the Zika virus transmitted?

Where is it found?

What are some associated signs/symptoms?

A

The Aedes Agypti mosquito

Microindonesia, Brazil, several other locations

Usually, mild symptoms lasting a few days to a week

Causes microcephaly and Guillan-Barre Syndrome among infants of affected mothers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Public Health

How long can Zika remain present in semen? How long should a woman wait after her symptoms abate to try to have children?

A

6 months

2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Public Health

Where did HIV come from?

A

It is a zoonotic disease that originated in non-human primates as SIV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Public Health

When was HIV first reported in the U.S.?

A

1981

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Public Health

What populations are especially at risk for HIV transmission?

A

Intravenous drug users

Homosexual men (44x higher risk than heterosexual men)

Impoverished women (Especially those that have little sexual control in their relationships)

Prostitutes

Healthcare workers (Due to needle sticks and accidental fluid exchange)

African-Americans, Asian-Americans, and Pacific Islanders also experience higher rates of HIV in the US than is found in other ethnic groups (Likely from a socioeconomic or stigma-related disparity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Public Health

What does it mean that HIV is a retrovirus?

A

It means that, upon infection, the virus (RNA) is transcribed (By reverse transcriptase) to DNA and inserted into the host genome after infection. This makes it very hard to treat as it becomes part of our own DNA!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Public Health

What does it mean that HIV is a lentivirus?

A

It replicates slowly. There can be long incubation and latency periods between infection and symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Public Health

How does HIV spread?

What is seroconversion?

A

HIV spreads via bodily fluids such as blood, blood products, semen, rectal or vaginal fluids, or breast milk.

Seroconversion is when the immune system first begins producing antibodies against HIV. This usually happens a few weeks after the initial infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Public Health

What type of human cell is preferentially infected by HIV?

What are the initial signs/symptoms of infection?

A

The virus preferentially infects CD4+ Helper T-cells (A type of white blood cell).

Upon initial infection, there are acute symptoms which are typically flu-like.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Public Health

When has an HIV infection officially advanced to AIDS?

A

When CD4+ Helper T-cell count below 200/ml (normal counts are 500-1500 per ml).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Public Health

What are some of the rare infections that typify AIDS (Due to decreased host immune response)?

A
  • Pneumocystic (fungal) pneumonias
  • Pneumonia due to cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, herpes simplex, or gastrointestinal protozoa
  • Some patients develop a rare form of cancer called Kaposi’s sarcoma. The cancer is caused by Kaposi sarcoma herpesvirus (KSHV) that inserts its genes into the host (Kaposi’s sarcoma is 20,000 times more common in AIDS patients than in the general public).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Public Health

What is ART/ARV? Do they fully cure HIV?

A

Antiretroviral Therapy

They do not fully cure the disease; they only keep the viral load down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Public Health

What is an HIV superinfection?

A

When an HIV-infected patient on ARV becomes infected with an additional strain of HIV (Double HIV infection).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Public Health

What is vertical HIV transmission?

A

Transmission from an infected mother to her child.

Transmission can occur in utero, during delivery, or through breastfeeding. Breastfeeding is the most common type of transmission from mother to child.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Public Health

How is HIV different in children than adults?

A

More recurring opportunistic bacterial and viral infections, (but they are less likely to develop Kaposi’s sarcoma) more rapid disease progression as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Public Health

How can vertical HIV transmission be prevented?

A

A special ARV regimen (Highly effective).

The Pediatric AIDS Clinical Trials Group (PACTG) 076 AZT regimen is a series of ARV drugs given in different amounts during pregnancy, delivery and just after birth to prevent transmission of HIV to a child.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Public Health

What are a few general methods by which to prevent HIV spread?

A

Condom distribution

Education

Prophylactic ARV treatment (reduces transmission by 60-80%)

Needle exchange programs

Male circumcision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Public Health

Do all HIV-infected individuals in the U.S. know they are infected?

A

No. About 20% of HIV+ persons in the United States are unaware of their infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Public Health

What is the bacterium responsible for TB infections?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Public Health

What percentage of the world population is infected with latent TB today?

What percentage of those infected with latent TB will become sick with active TB at some point in their lifetimes?

A

33%

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Public Health

How is TB spread?

What body system does it most commonly infect? Can it infect other systems?

A

Respiratory droplets (Airborne transmission)

Respiratory system

Yes, TB can disseminate to organs other than the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Public Health

What is Milliary TB?

A

Many small areas of local TB spread throughout an organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Public Health

What human cell in the respiratory tract is preferentially infected by TB bacterium?

A

Alveolar macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Public Health

After alveolar macrophages are infected by TB bacterium, what happens?

A

Immune cells surround the area, promote inflammation, and accumulate as dead cells

(This forms nodules called granulomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Public Health

Does the immune system usually manage to wipe out all the TB bacterium on its own?

A

No, the immune system usually only manages to keep the bacterium at bay

(This is called latent TB and is true for 90% of infected individuals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Public Health

What is it called when a latent TB becomes active?

A

Reactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Public Health

How is TB diagnosed?

A

The Mantoux Tuberculin test (TB antigen injected under the skin) and chest x-rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Public Health

What is a Gohn focus?

A

A TB granuloma large enough to be seen on x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Public Health

What is it called if a patient presents with a Gohn focus and regional lymph node involvement?

A

This is a Gohn complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between primary vs. secondary TB infection?

A

Primary infection is the initial host encounter with TB bacterium.

A secondary infection refers to EITHER being infected with TB after being cured OR reactivation of latent TB

182
Q

Public Health

What are the signs/symptoms of TB infection?

A

Fever, cough, bloody sputum, weakness, and chest pain.

183
Q

Public Health

What is the most common cause of death among AIDS patients?

A

TB

184
Q

Public Health

How is TB treated?

A
  • 2 initial months of chemotherapy (antibiotics) and varying amounts of continuing treatment (No need to memorize drug names, but know it’s a drug cocktail given for months).
  • Patients may be asked to take a complex regimen of drugs including:

Isoniazid (an anti-metabolite)

Rifampin (inhibits RNA polymerase)

Ethambutol (inhibits cell wall formation)

Pyrazinamide (converts to an acid and accumulates, killing the cell).

185
Q

Public Health

What are our main prevention strategies for TB?

A

Vaccination (18-30% efficacy)

Prophylactic antibiotics

Isolation of infected individuals

DOTS program (Involves much closer patient-physician interaction and follow-up than usual)

186
Q

Public Health

What is MDR-TB?

Where is it present?

A

Multi-drug resistant TB

In all countries

187
Q

Public Health

What is XDR-TB?

What is TDR-TB?

A

Extremely-resistant TB

Totally resistant TB

188
Q

Public Health

What is malaria?

A

A protozoan parasite that exists in many different animals

189
Q

Public Health

What is the basic evolution of malaria?

A
  • Plasmodium* malariae –>
  • Plasmodium vivax* –>
  • Plasmodium falciparum*
190
Q

Public Health

How has Plasmodium vivax impacted human evolution?

A

Plasmodium vivax enters human erythrocytes via the Duffy receptor (An RBC glycoprotein). Being ‘Duffy-less’ is now a dominant human mutation in most Africans, and so P. vivax is more prevalent in Europe and Asia

191
Q

Public Health

How has Plasmodium falciparum affected human evolution?

A

Hemoglobin disorders confer some immunity to P. falciparum, and so now 1/14 of humans carry genetic mutations related to thalassemia, sickle-cell anemia, ovalocytosis, and other hemoglobin disorders.

192
Q

Public Health

What are the 3 stages of the malaria lifecycle?

A

Inside the mosquito –> Inside the human liver –> Inside the human bloodstream –>

193
Q

Public Health

What are the signs/symptoms of malaria?

A

Fever, chills, nausea, and sweating

194
Q

Public Health

What is the average incubation period for malaria?

A

~10 days

195
Q

Public Health

The malaria types, P. vivax and P. ovale can remain dormant for long periods of time. What does this trait make them?

A

Hypnozoites

196
Q

Public Health

What are some of the main prevention methods for malaria?

A

Insecticide-treated bed nets

Indoor residual spraying

Prophylactic medication (E.g. Doxycycline and primaquine)

Possible vaccines in the pipeline

197
Q

Public Health

What are the main anti-malarial drugs?

A

Quinine and artemisinin

(Resistant strains of malaria are developing to both these drugs)

198
Q

Public Health

Antibiotic

A

A naturally occurring compound that can kill a microbial organism (Usually bacteria or parasites)

199
Q

Public Health

Antimicrobial

A

Antibiotics as well as synthetic compounds

Multiple mechanisms of action including interfering with the building of cell wall and stopping nucleic acid synthesis

200
Q

Public Health

Pharmacotherapy

A

Basically drug treatment

Antibiotics are a different form of pharmacotherapy (Treatment) than drugs used to treat chronic diseases, in that they target bacterial receptors/proteins instead of patient’s proteins. This makes each patient’s treatment unique as organisms fight back, hide, etc.

201
Q

Public Health

Empiric therapy

A

Nonspecific treatment

When a bacterial infection is suspected but isn’t identified yet, a doctor can prescribe a general antibiotic until it is identified. This is called empiric therapy

202
Q

Public Health

Definitive therapy

A

Specific treatment

Once the bacteria is identified by laboratory tests, they are supposed to describe an antibiotic that is specifically tailored to that pathogen, which is called definitive therapy.

Doctors don’t always transition from empiric to definitive therapy the way they should, which can be a driver of antibiotic resistance.

203
Q

Public Health

Pharmacodynamics

A

How antibiotics interact with both the bacteria and the patient

Can impact a lot of how effective an antibiotic is going to be. Some antibiotics may inhibit bacterial growth (bacteriostatic), while others kill the organism (bacteriocidal). For example, if the antibiotic interferes with DNA replication it is likely bacteriostatic. If it causes cell lysis, it is bacteriocidal. Usually both are effective, but some infections (like meningitis) require bacteriocidal antibiotics.

204
Q

Public Health

MIC

A

The minimum amount of antibiotic for inhibiting bacterial growth (If it is bacteriostatic)

205
Q

Public Health

MBC

A

The minimum amount of antibiotic needed to kill a bacteria (if it is bacteriocidal)

206
Q

Public Health

Pharmacokinetics

A

Pharmacokinetics is how the patient impacts the concentration of the antibiotic in the body. When an antibiotic is administered, it goes through three stages: absorption, distribution (concentrated differently throughout the body), and metabolism/excretion (most excreted in same form).

How quickly the antibiotic goes through each stage depends on a variety of factors. For example, it matters whether an antibiotic is hydrophobic or hydrophilic, how large the antibiotic is, and how it is administered.

207
Q

Public Health

Who discovered/popularized penicillin

A

Alexander Fleming formally discovered in 1928

Mold Penicillum notatum on petri dish

Purified by Florey and Chain (British researchers) and disseminated during WWII

208
Q

Public Health

The process of absorption, distribution, metabolism/excretion of antibiotics, what impacts it and why it matters in conjunction with pharmacodynamics in determining dosage.

A

How quickly the antibiotic goes through each stage depends on a variety of factors. For example, it matters whether an antibiotic is hydrophobic or hydrophilic, how large the antibiotic is, and how it is administered.

209
Q

Public Health

Side effects of antibiotics

A

Antibiotics can alter microbiome composition and allow for opportunistic pathogen infection.

210
Q

Public Health

How do beta-lactams work?

A

Beta-lactams are a type of antibiotic (E.g. penicillin and cephalosporin) that have a double-ring structure and work by interfering with the enzyme that constructs bacteria cell walls.

They are effective against many types of bacteria, but not against certain atypical organisms such as MRSA.

211
Q

Public Health

How does tetracycline work?

A

Tetracyclines are 4 ring structures that work by physically preventing binding of tRNA to the ribosome, thus inhibiting translation and protein synthesis.

212
Q

Public Health

How do anti-metabolites work?

A

Anti-metabolites function by mimicking something that the bacteria needs to metabolize to survive and starving the bacteria by inhibiting its enzymes.

213
Q

Public Health

How do vaccines work?

A

They mimic natural infection to ‘trick’ the body into building up an immunity to a specific pathogen.

214
Q

Public Health

What are antigens?

A

Anything that produces an immune response in the body (Usually the pathogenic components like glycoproteins that act as antigens to our bodies)

215
Q

Public Health

What are antibodies?
What is another name for antibodies?

A

Proteins produced by our bodies (By B Cells) that will stick to pathogen antigens.
Immunoglobulins.

216
Q

Public Health

Which is faster, your first or second immune response to a specific pathogen?

A

The second.

The first can take anywhere from a few days to two weeks, but the second often takes less than a day.

217
Q

Public Health

What is a live-attenuated vaccine?

A

Vaccines that are made with a pathogen that is alive but weakened. The pathogen can still reproduce a little bit, but not cause disease (e.g. the MMR vaccine or the Sabin polio vaccine)

218
Q

Public Health

What is a killed/inactivated vaccine?

A

An inactivated or killed vaccine is what it sounds like. The pathogen is completely dead, but the antigen still promotes an immune response (E.g. the Salk polio vaccine or the flu vaccine)

219
Q

Public Health

What is a toxoid vaccine?

A

Vaccines made up of an inactivated toxin that the pathogen normally secretes. Mostly used for bacterial infections (E.g. the DTaP vaccine)

220
Q

Public Health

What is a subunit vaccine?

A

If only a part of the pathogen is used to make the vaccine, it is referred to as a subunit vaccine (E.g. the Pertussis portion of the DTaP vaccine).

221
Q

Public Health

What is a gene-based vaccine?

A

Gene-based vaccines use the injection of a small amount of the pathogen’s genetic material rather than an antigen. The person’s cells uptake the genetic material and produce the antigen themselves, promoting an immune response.

222
Q

Public Health

What are virus-like particles used as vaccines?

A

Virus-like particles are a technology where the capsid or envelope of the virus is made in a laboratory but without any genetic material inside. This way, the antigens can be presented to the immune system intact without any risk of the virus causing infection. The HPV vaccine uses this method.

223
Q

Public Health

What are a few of the main leukocytes involved in immune responses?

A

T-Cells, B-Cells, and macrophages

224
Q

Public Health

Describe the two main types of T-Cell.

A

CD4+ - Helper T-Cells that support the other immune cells
CD8+ - Killer T-Cells that kill our own infected cells

225
Q

Public Health

Describe the two main types of B-Cell.

A

Plasma cells - Produce antibodies
Memory B-Cells - Retain immunogenic memory of past antigens the body has seen

226
Q

Public Health

What do macrophages do?

A

Ingest foreign materials and enemy cells to present their antigens to T- and B-Cells (They also clean up any debris in the human body).

227
Q

Public Health

What are vaccine adjuvants?

A

Adjuvants are chemical additives to vaccines that are able to boost immune response through various mechanisms.

These include possibly clumping vaccine particles at the injection site (which recruits more APCs) or directly stimulating immune cells.

228
Q

Public Health

What is Thimerosol? Why is it controversial?

A

Thimerosol is a preservative (not an adjuvant) containing trace amounts of mercury.

It was used in some vaccines to prolong shelf life. It has been taken out of all vaccines given to children under 6, and is only now included in some multi-dose flu vaccine vials.

It is often discussed as one of the possible reasons for the (disproven) hypothesis that vaccines are associated with autism. Some anti-vaccine literature suggests it was used in the MMR shot, however, it never was. Thimerosol was removed as a precaution and other preservatives were used.

229
Q

Public Health

What is the only type of adjuvant permitted in the U.S.?

A

Only aluminum-based compounds

230
Q

Public Health

What is reverse vaccinology?

A

A method of epitope prediction.

In reverse vaccinology, researchers compare the genetic sequences of many different strains of the pathogen, looking for regions of the genome that are always consistent. These are areas that don’t mutate much, likely because the virus needs that very specific protein for survival. When they identify a region, it becomes a good antigen to potentially include in a vaccine.

231
Q

Public Health

What is an epitope?

A

An epitope is the specific chemical site on an antigen to which an antibody binds.

It can be helpful to try to identify good epitopes for antibody binding in advance, instead of having to try many different antigens (This is very difficult for diseases like HIV which mutate very quickly).

232
Q

Public Health

How are adjuvants different from preservatives?

A

Adjuvants boost immune responses.
Preservatives prevent contamination (Typically fungal).

233
Q

Public Health

What is the most common form of vaccine delivery?

What are some other forms?

A

Intramuscular injection (IM)

Oral vaccines (Usually for live vaccines) 
Nasal sprays (Usually for live vaccines) 
Vaccine patches
234
Q

Public Health

Why would vaccine patches be more useful than injections?

A

You have far more immune cells right under the surface of your skin (to respond to scratches and cuts) than you do deep in your muscles. So delivering vaccine directly under the skin can increase the number of immune cells exposed, and thus the immune response.

It also lowers the risk of accidental needle-sticks for healthcare providers.

235
Q

Public Health

How does cocooning work in vaccine delivery?

A

Booster shots are used in some cases to reinforce immunity as immunity can fade over time.

Ex: It is recommended that a DTaP booster be given to all caregivers for newborns and young children.

236
Q

Public Health

What is the Tdap/DTaP vaccine protective against?

A

Covers Bordatella Pertussis infection (Whooping cough), diphtheria and tetanus

(Toxoid vaccine)

237
Q

Public Health

What is the MMRV vaccine protective against?

A

Measles, Mumps, Rubella (German measles), Varicella (chicken pox)

(Live-attenuated)

238
Q

Public Health

What is the pneumococcal vaccine protective against?

A

Pneumococcal disease caused by S. pneumonia

(Live-attenuated vaccine)

239
Q

Public Health

What kind of vaccine is the influenza vaccine?
Where is the influenza vaccine mass-produced?

A

A killed vaccine, unless it’s the nasal spray, which is live-attenuated

The vaccine is incubated in chicken eggs (Although we are shifting over to human cell cultures for incubation)

240
Q

Public Health

What is essentially the most effective vaccine we have?

A

The MMR vaccine

241
Q

Public Health

How many children still die from measles per day (Today, in our vaccinated world)?

A

250 children

242
Q

Public Health

Is there controversy today as to whether or not vaccines work?

A

No, it is a settled issue on both sides of the vaccination argument.

243
Q

Public Health

How many diseases do we try to prevent with vaccines?

A

About 14

244
Q

Public Health

Will multiple vaccines overwhelm a baby’s immune system?

A

No. Even a baby’s body is rapidly acquiring immunity to all sort of bacteria and viruses all the time. Vaccines only use a tiny portion of the baby’s immune system.

245
Q

Public Health

How should we approach individuals with fears and concerns about vaccines?

A

Don’t be dismissive or condescending.
Build common ground.
Validate their real, lived experience.

246
Q

Public Health

We don’t know, but what are likely to be the chief causes behind autism?

A

Genetic and environmental exposures (Maybe environmental effects on the microbiome)

247
Q

Public Health

What two factors are compared in a two-by-two table?

A

Exposure (Yes or No) and Outcome (Yes or No).

‘Total’ columns are often added to this table.

248
Q

Public Health

How is a risk ratio calculated?

A

Divide the risk of the outcome in the exposed (a / (a + b)) by the risk of the outcome in the unexposed (c / (c + d)).

(a / (a + b)) / (c / (c + d)) = RR

249
Q

Public Health

How is a risk difference calculated?

A

Subtracting the risk of the outcome in the unexposed (c / d) from the risk of the outcome in the exposed (a / b).

(a / (a + b)) - (c / (c + d)) = RD

250
Q

Public Health

What three measures of association can be calculated from a two-by-two table?

A

Risk difference
Risk ratio
Odds ratio

251
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between calculating a rate and calculating a risk?

A

A rate is an observed number of cases per unit time.
A risk is just a proportion.

252
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between odds and risk ratios?

A

Odds ratios are more useful for case-control studies and/or rare diseases. This is more useful when we don’t have totals that represent the population (I.e. we’ve matched 500 cases for 500 controls).

Risk ratios are based on the total percentage in the group, and so we need somewhat representative groups to utilize RRs.

Useful link:
https://www.mdedge.com/jfponline/article/65515/relative-risks-and-odds-ratios-whats-difference

253
Q

Public Health

How is an odds ratio calculated?

A

(a / b) / (c / d)
OR (a / c) / (b / d)
OR (ad) / (bc)

Basically, the odds of your having the outcome if exposed over the odds of your having the outcome if not exposed.

254
Q

Public Health

Define food security.

A

Lack of knowledge as to where future meals will come from.

255
Q

Public Health

Define food desert.

A

An area where healthy foods are not available or accessible.

256
Q

Public Health

What are phytonutrients?

A

Plant-based compounds (Usually non-essential to human diet) with some health benefit

257
Q

Public Health

What are the major macronutrients?

A

Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids

258
Q

Public Health

What is lutein?

A

A phytonutrient - Aids in healthy vision

259
Q

Public Health

What are indoles?

A

A phytonutrient - May aid in intestinal immune cells

260
Q

Public Health

What is beta-carotene?

A

A phytonutrient - Aids in vitamin A absorption

261
Q

Public Health

What is lycopene?

A

A phytonutrient - May help to prevent CVD

262
Q

Public Health

What is anthocyanin?

A

A phytonutrient - Possible antioxidant

263
Q

Public Health

What is allicin?

A

A phytonutrient - May aid in intestinal immune cells

264
Q

Public Health

What is the DASH diet?

A

An antihypertensive diet cetnered around salt-reduction and an increase in fruits and vegetables

265
Q

Public Health

What is the MIND diet?

A

A combination of the Mediterranean and DASH diets designed to increase cognitive health and functioning

266
Q

Public Health

What are some examples of Federal programs centered around nutrition?

A

WIC (Women, Infants, and Children)
SNAP (Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program)
School breakfast program
Farm Bill

267
Q

Public Health

What is the adult obesity prevalence rate in the U.S. (As of 2014)?

A

36.5%

268
Q

Public Health

What percentage of the U.S. is overweight or obese (As of 2014)?

A

68.5%

269
Q

Public Health

What percentage of U.S. children are obese?

A

17%

270
Q

Public Health

What is the BMI equation?

A

Kilograms / meters^2 (Or) lbs. / inches^2 x 703

271
Q

Public Health

What is an underweight BMI?

What range is a normal BMI?

What range is an overweight BMI?

A

≤ 18.4

18.5 - 24.9

25 - 29.9

272
Q

Public Health

What range is an obese class I BMI?

What range is an obese class II BMI?

What is an obese class III BMI?

A

30 - 34.9

35 - 39.9

≥ 40

273
Q

Public Health

Do the adult BMI categories work for children?

A

Not quite. We use a percentile chart to standardize the BMIs for all the variation in child growth rates.

274
Q

Public Health

What is an underweight percentile for a child?

What is an overweight percentile?

What is an obese percentile?

A

< 5th percentile

> 85th percentile

> 95th percentile

275
Q

Public Health

Which states have the highest burden of obesity?

A
276
Q

Public Health

How does obesity break down by age?

By gender?

By race?

A

Higher rates among the middle-aged and older.

Slightly more women than men

Blacks > Hispanics > Whites > Asians

277
Q

Public Health

What are some of the complications and common comorbidities of obesity?

A

CVD

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

GERD

GI issues

Cancer

Stroke

Diabetes

Heart failure

Hypertension

Dyslipidemia

Osteoarthritis

Atherosclerosis

Atrial fibrillation

Alzheimer’s Disease

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

Surgical and anesthetic complications

Psychosocial disorders

etc…

278
Q

Public Health

How does obesity relate to CVD?

A
  1. Increased body mass leads to increased systemic blood pressure. →

Increased BP leads to chronic cardiac overload →

Overload leads to cardiac hypertrophy and strain.

  1. Lower HDL and higher LDL levels lead to atherosclerotic blood vessels and increased systemic blood pressure.
279
Q

Public Health

How does obesity relate to diabetes?

A
  1. Excess weight and body mass disrupt normal metabolic processes’ ability to regulate blood sugar levels →

Hyperglycemia and diabetes often result.

  1. Obesity is generally related to excessive and long-term carbohydrate intake, very directly leading to chronic hyperglycemic conditions.
280
Q

Public Health

How does obesity relate to cancer (Obviously it depends on the type of cancer)?

A
  1. Increased levels of insulin and insulin growth factor (IGF-1) lead to excess growth.
  2. Excess adipose tissue increases estrogen levels (Affecting breast and endometrial cancer rates).
  3. Fat cells are suspected to also affect cancer cell growth regulation in a yet unknown way.
281
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between visceral and subcutaneous fat? Which is more harmful in excess?

A

Visceral fat is the fat that sits between and compresses the organs of themselves (Usually gives rise to an apple-shaped torso).

Subcutaneous fat is the less harmful fat that sits just below the skin (Usually gives rise to a pear-shaped torso).

282
Q

Public Health

What are the five factors involved in metabolic syndrome?

How many of the factors must be present to classify an individual as having metabolic syndrome?

A

Blood pressure, triglycerides, HDL cholesterol, plasma glucose, and abdominal obesity.

3/5

283
Q

Public Health

How can obesity be diagnosed?

A

BMI (Principal method)

DEXA scanning

underwater weighing

284
Q

Public Health

What are the lab values involved with the following five factors of metabolic syndrome?

Blood pressure

Plasma triglycerides

Fasting plasma glucose

Abdominal obesity

HDL cholesterol

A

Blood pressure (High) ≥ 130 / 85 mmHg

Plasma triglycerides (High) ≥ 150 mg/dl

Fasting plasma glucose (High) ≥ 100 mg/dl

Abdominal obesity (High) ≥ 35” (women); ≥ 40” (men)

HDL cholesterol (Low) ≤ 40 mg/dl

285
Q

Public Health

What is the only method of obesity treatment and management that has shown to be consistently effective in morbidly obese populations?

A

Gastric bypass surgery

286
Q

Public Health

Which cholesterol is associated with positive health benefits?

Which cholesterol is associated with negative health benefits?

A

HDL

LDL and VLDL

287
Q

Public Health

What are the main types of bariatric surgery used in obesity management?

A

Gastric sleeve bypass

Gastric roux-en-y bypass

Gastric banding

288
Q

Public Health

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

A condition in which blood sugar is highly elevated.

289
Q

Public Health

What are the two main types of diabetes mellitus?

Which is more common in the U.S.?

A

Type 1 and type 2

Type 2 (90-95% of cases)

290
Q

Public Health

Is the pancreas an endocrine or exocrine organ?

A

Both

291
Q

Public Health

What are the primary endocrine secretions of the pancreas?

What are the clusters of endocrine cells called?

A

Insulin and glucagon secretion

Islets of Langerhans

292
Q

Public Health

Which pancreatic cells secrete insulin?

Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon?

A

Beta cells

Alpha cells

293
Q

Public Health

What are the primary functions of insulin?

A

Decrease blood glucose by:

Increasing glucose transport into adipose and skeletal muscle tissues through GLUT-4 transporters

Increasing glycogenesis

Decreasing gluconeogenesis

Decreasing lipolysis

294
Q

Public Health

What are the primary functions of glucagon?

A

Increase blood glucose by:

Increasing glycogenolysis (Glycogen breakdown)

Increasing gluconeogenesis (Protein breakdown)

Increasing lipolysis (Fat breakdown)

295
Q

Public Health

What is the primary dysfunction in T1DM?

A

Insulin deficiency due to autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

296
Q

Public Health

What is the primary dysfunction in T2DM?

A

Insulin insensitivity

297
Q

Public Health

What is a hemoglobin A1c measurement?

What is it used for?

A

A measure of how much glucose has gotten ‘stuck’ on hemoglobin for the past 120 days (The lifespan of an RBC).

Used as a measure of long-term blood glucose control.

298
Q

Public Health

What are the normal, pre-diabetic, and diabetic A1c readings?

A

Normal < 5.7%

Pre-Diabetic 5.7 - 6.4%

Diabetic > 6.4%

299
Q

Public Health

Define hyperglycemia.

A

Elevated blood sugar

300
Q

Public Health

What is a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) reading?

A

A measurement of an individual’s blood glucose levels during a fasting state

301
Q

Public Health

What are the normal, pre-diabetic, and diabetic FPG readings?

A

Normal < 100 mg/dl

Pre-Diabetic 100 - 125 mg/dl

Diabetic > 125 mg/dl

302
Q

Public Health

At what age does T1DM usually manifest?

At what age does T2DM usually manifest?

A

Early. Often between 12 and 18 Later in life

Usually after 35 or 40

303
Q

Public Health

What are the cardinal signs and symptoms of diabetes? (Remember the 3 P’s)

A

Polyphagia (Excessive hunger)

Polydipsia (Excessive thirst)

Polyuria (Excessive urine production)

304
Q

Public Health

Besides the 3 P’s, what are some other signs and symptoms of diabetes?

A

There are many systemic effects, including, but not limited to:

Peripheral neuropathy

Diabetic retinopathy

Infection and gangrene

Acanthosis nigricans

Weight loss (Mainly in T1DM)

Renal damage

305
Q

Public Health

What is the extreme and life-threatening effect of T1DM?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

306
Q

Public Health

What is the extreme and life-threatening effect of T2DM?

A

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Non-Ketotic Coma (HHNC)

307
Q

Public Health

How is T1DM typically treated?

A

Insulin administration and diet adjustment

308
Q

Public Health

How is T2DM typically treated?

A

Diet and weight loss; oral hypoglycemic medications as needed (E.g. metformin)

309
Q

Public Health

What is the leading cause of death among individuals with T1DM?

A

Renal failure

310
Q

Public Health

What is the leading cause of death among individuals with T2DM?

A

Heart failure

311
Q

Public Health

Where does diabetes mellitus fall in as a leading cause of death in the U.S.?

A

7

312
Q

Public Health

What geographic region in the U.S. has the highest prevalence of diabetes mellitus and in what racial group?

A

The Southeastern United States

(The obesity/stroke/diabetes belt)

African-Americans are at increased risk over other racial groups

313
Q

Public Health

Which type of diabetes mellitus holds a stronger genetic disposition, type 1 or 2?

A

Type 2

314
Q

Public Health

What factors can greatly increase one’s chances of developing T2DM?

A

Obesity, metabolic syndrome, high-sugar and high-fat diet, family history

315
Q

Public Health

What effect have gastric bypass surgeries been shown to have on obese patients with T2DM?

A

A complete cure of some patients’ T2DM (As well as an average of 2/3 excess weight lost)

316
Q

Public Health

What is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A

Usually seen only in T1DM, glucose is unable to make it into the cells, the cells begin to starve, and lipids are broken down at a quick rate for energy production. Lipid breakdown leads to the production of ketone bodies that are acidic to normal blood pH.

Blood pH drops and the individual enters a coma.

317
Q

Public Health

What are the ketone bodies produced during DKA?

A

Beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate

318
Q

Public Health

Define hypoglycemia.

What is a danger of extended periods of hypoglycemia?

A

Low blood sugar (< 70 mg/dl)

Brain damage

319
Q

Public Health

What are the ABCs of diabetes control (After an individual has already been diagnosed)?

A

A1c < 7%

Blood pressure < 130 / 85

Cholesterol

LDL < 100 mg/dl

HDL > 50 mg/dl (Women) > 40 mg/dl (Men)

320
Q

Public Health

At what BMI should most Americans start being screened for diabetes?

Who else should be screened?

A

BMI ≥ 25 (Overweight)

≥ 45 years of age

Family history of T2DM

History of gestational DM

321
Q

Public Health

What is the BMI at which members of the Asian population should be screened for diabetes?

A

23

(Screen at 23)

322
Q

Public Health

What is the technical term for glucose production through the breakdown of fat and protein?

A

Gluconeogenesis (glucose-new-production)

(Promoted by glucagon; inhibited by insulin)

323
Q

Public Health

What is the technical term for fat breakdown?

A

Lipolysis

(Promoted by glucagon; inhibited by insulin)

324
Q

Public Health

What is the technical term for glucose breakdown to pyruvate?

A

Glycolysis

(Inhibited by glucagon; promoted by insulin)

325
Q

Public Health

What is the storage form of glucose?

Where is it found?

A

Glycogen

Liver and skeletal muscle tissue

326
Q

Public Health

What is the technical term for glycogen synthesis?

A

Glycogenesis

(Inhibited by glucagon; promoted by insulin)

327
Q

Public Health

What is the technical term for glycogen breakdown (producing glucose)?

A

Glycogenolysis

(Promoted by glucagon; inhibited by insulin)

328
Q

Public Health

What is primary (essential) hypertension?

For what percentage of HTN cases does it account?

A

An idiopathic form of HTN (cause unknown)

90%

329
Q

Public Health

What is secondary HTN (responsible for 10% of cases)?

A

HTN due to some underlying disease

330
Q

Public Health

What is the normal blood pressure classification?

A

< 120 / 80 mmHg

331
Q

Public Health

What is systolic blood pressure? What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

Systolic BP = BP while the ventricles are contracting - Top number (e.g. 120 / 80)

Diastolic BP = BP while the ventricles are relaxing - Bottom number (e.g. 120​ / 80)

332
Q

Public Health

What is the proper classification for an individual with a BP ranging from 120 - 129 / 80 mmHg?

A

Elevated BP

(No longer known as pre-HTN)

333
Q

Public Health

What is the stage 1 HTN pressure reading?

A

130 to 139 / 80 to 89 mmHg

334
Q

Public Health

What is the stage 2 HTN pressure reading?

A

≥ 140 / ≥ 90 mmHg

335
Q

Public Health

At what BP reading is an individual considered to be in a hypertensive crisis (at immediate risk for organ damage)?

A

≥ 180 / ≥ 120 mmHg

336
Q

Public Health

What are some common complications of HTN?

A

Stroke

Atherosclerosis

Thrombosis

Aneurysm formation

Organ damage

(Not a comprehensive list)

337
Q

Public Health

What is the DASH diet?

A

An antihypertensive diet focusing on the reduction of salt and lipid intake

338
Q

Public Health

What lifestyle modifications can be utilized to lower BP?

A

Weight loss

Salt intake reduction

Physical activity increase

Meditation

339
Q

Public Health

What is the REGARDS study?

A

the REasons for Geographic And Racial Differences in Stroke

340
Q

Public Health

Define ischemia

A

Lack of oxygen delivery to tissues

341
Q

Public Health

Define infarct.

A

Cell damage and death due to loss of blood flow

342
Q

Public Health

What is the definition of a transient ischemic attack?

A

A ‘mini-stroke’ that results in signs and symptoms that have completely resolved 24 hours after the insult

343
Q

Public Health

Just as heart attack refers to an acute myocardial infarction, what is the term that can also refer to a cerebral infarction (stroke)?

A

Cerebrovascular attack (CVA)

344
Q

Public Health

What are the two main types of stroke?

Which is more common?

Which is more deadly?

A

Ischemic (thrombotic; loss of blood supply) and hemorrhagic (rupture leads to blood entering cranial space)

Ischemic is more common (85-90% of cases)

Hemorrhagic is more deadly

345
Q

Public Health

What is the core zone of a stroke? What is the ischemic penumbra?

A

The core zone refers to the infarcted tissues following complete loss of blood supply

The penumbra refers to the affected area of tissue that is often still viable tissue but will die if perfusion is not reestablished; there is usually some collateral circulation supplying the tissues with some blood flow

346
Q

Public Health

Define aneurysm.

A

A weakening or outpouching in the blood vessel wall (a ballooning that is more likely to rupture than surrounding tissue)

347
Q

Public Health

What are some of the risk factors for stroke?

A

Hypertension (Most important factor)

Metabolic syndrome

Atherosclerosis

Atrial fibrillation

Aneurysms

Race (African-Americans more at risk)

Medical history of thrombotic events

348
Q

Public Health

What are some of the common signs and symptoms of stroke?

A

Headache, weakness, paralysis, dizziness, vision changes, balance changes, drooping facial features, slurred speech, disorganized speech or thoughts

(Physical signs often unilateral)

349
Q

Public Health

On which side of the body will a right-sided stroke manifest?

What is the term for this manifestation?

A

The left side (and vice-versa for a left-sided stroke)

Contralateral

350
Q

Public Health

How can stroke be diagnosed?

A

Clinical presentation, MRI, CT scans, angiography

351
Q

Public Health

What medication can be given to prevent thrombotic stroke?

What medication can be given to dissolve the clot that is causing thrombotic stroke?

A

Aspirin and/or heparin

TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

352
Q

Public Health

Where does stroke fall in the U.S. leading causes of death?

A

5

353
Q

Public Health

Where in the U.S. leading causes of death does heart disease fall?

A

CVD is #1 (for the U.S. and the world)

354
Q

Public Health

Try drawing out the flow of blood through the pulmonary and systemic circuits.

A
355
Q

Public Health

Define thrombus and embolus

A

Thrombus = stationary blood clot

Embolus = moving blood clot

(or other clumped substance such as bacteria, fat, air, tumors, amniotic fluid, etc.)

356
Q

Public Health

Describe the difference between ischemia and an infarct

A

Ischemia refers to reduced blood flow to tissues

Infarct refers to tissue necrosis secondary to reduced blood flow

357
Q

Public Health

Define the following terms:

Atherosclerosis

Angina

Acute Myocardial Infarction

A

Atherosclerosis - Arterial hardening due to fatty plaque buildup

Angina - Chest pain

Acute Myocardial Infarction - Infarction of heart tissue

358
Q

Public Health

Name the main six coronary arteries discussed in class. What part of the heart does each supply?

A

Right coronary artery

  • Acute marginal artery (Anterior right ventricle)
  • Posterior descending artery (Posterior right ventricle)

Left main coronary artery

  • Left anterior descending (Anterior left ventricle and interventricular septum)
  • Lateral and posterior left ventricle
359
Q

Public Health

Which artery is the most common site of an AMI?

A

The left anterior descending artery

360
Q

Public Health

What is the Million Hearts Initiative? Was it successful?

A

This is awesome:

https://millionhearts.hhs.gov/files/MH-meaningful-progress.pdf

361
Q

Public Health

What are the four behavioral components of Life’s Simple Seven?

A

Physical activity

Weight reduction

Diet

Don’t smoke

362
Q

Public Health

What are the three laboratory tests in Life’s Simple Seven?

A

Blood pressure

Plasma cholesterol

Plasma glucose

363
Q

Public Health

Name all seven of the Life’s Simple Seven factors.

A

Physical activity

Weight reduction

Diet

Stop smoking

Blood pressure

Plasma cholesterol

Plasma glucose

364
Q

Public Health

Name the type of proteins that help transport cholesterol in the bloodstream (remember, fat is hydrophobic and must be carried by hydrophilic proteins).

A

Lipoproteins

365
Q

Public Health

Which type of lipoprotein removes cholesterol from the bloodstream by taking it to the liver? Is this protective or damaging against heart disease?

A

High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

Protective

(Happy cholesterol)

(Healthy cholesterol)

(Helpful cholesterol)

366
Q

Public Health

Which type of lipoprotein is bound to cholesterol and contributes to atherosclerotic plaque buildup by increasing the quantity of cholesterol deposited into atheromas?

A

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

(Lousy cholesterol)

(Lame cholesterol)

(Loser cholesterol)

367
Q

Public Health

What is the underlying problem in angina? Are cells necessarily dying at this point?

A

Chest pain caused by ischemia in the heart tissues.

This is not necessarily an infarction and so cells are not always dying at this point.

368
Q

Public Health

Describe stable (classical) angina.

A

Ischemic chest pain that begins on physical and/or emotional exertion and subsides on rest and/or intake of nitrates

369
Q

Public Health

Describe unstable (crescendo) angina.

A

Ischemic chest pain that begins at rest and/or exertion and does not subside after rest and/or intake of medication.

Often called crescendo angina as it tends to worsen over time.

370
Q

Public Health

Describe Printzmetal (variant) angina.

A

Ischemic chest pain due to atypical contraction and spasm of the coronary arteries.

Occurs most often in young women

Not related to atherosclerosis

371
Q

Public Health

Which type of angina pectoris often shows ST-elevation and is most likely to devolve into an AMI?

A

Unstable (crescendo) angina

372
Q

Public Health

Are there any recreational drugs that can worsen angina or increase the likelihood of acute myocardial infarction?

A

Cocaine (Vasoactive - causes arterial constriction)

(Also nicotine)

373
Q

Public Health

What are the signs and symptoms of AMI? Differentiate between the two sexes.

A

Women: Typically characterized by flu-like symptoms, fatigue, aches, chest tightness or pain, nausea, dyspnea

Men: More classically associated symptoms such as crushing chest tightness, pain that radiates into the neck and left arm, and dyspnea

374
Q

Public Health

How does aspirin prevent AMI?

A

Through decreased production of thromboxane A2 (A clotting activator) from arachidonic acid

375
Q

Public Health

What is the difference between a subendocardial and a transmural AMI?

A

Subendocardial infarction involves only the innermost layer of the heart.

Transmural infarction involves all three layers of the heart (leads to ST-elevation).

376
Q

Public Health

How is the pathophysiology of heart disease different in women than in men?

How does this difference manifest on angiography (X-ray of the blood vessels)?

A

Men are characterized by macrovascular atherosclerotic plaque buildup (Fat buildup in clumps in the bigger arteries)

Women are characterized by inflammatory processes which lead to microvascular dysfunction and widespread, even occlusion of the smaller arteries

On angiography, this difference often manifests as women’s arteries being clearer than men’s (even though there may be similar amounts of plaque buildup overall)

377
Q

Public Health

What are some mechanisms of heart disease diagnosis?

A

Electrocardiogram (ECG), coronary angiography, stress test, cardiac enzymes present in blood (high-sensitivity C-Reactive protein (hsCRP) specifically in women)

378
Q

Public Health

What is a common cardiac enzyme often found in the blood during an AMI?

A

Troponin I

379
Q

Public Health

Name the three layers of an artery or vein.

A

Tunica intima (Endothelium)

Tunica media (Smooth muscle)

Tunica externa (Connective tissue)

380
Q

Public Health

What is the main risk factor for atherosclerosis?

A

Hypertension

381
Q

Public Health

Describe the general steps of atherosclerosis.

A
  1. The endothelium is damaged
  2. Cholesterol is deposited in the ruptured space
  3. Macrophages enter the site, die, and become fat-laden foamy macrophages
  4. The vessel lumen continues to narrow, pressure increases, and the risk of full occlusion or vessel rupture increase
382
Q

Public Health

Define dementia.

A

An umbrella term for the effects of diseases resulting in a syndrome of effects including some mix of the following symptoms and behavioral changes:

memory loss, aphasia, agnosia, apraxia, executive function decline.

Also, agitation, mood swings, aggression, depression, sundowning, perseveration, hallucination, apathy, confusion, wandering, etc.

383
Q

Public Health

Define aphasia.

A

Inability to speak

(a-phrase-ia)

384
Q

Public Health

Define agnosia.

A

Inability to recognize faces and symbols

(a-nose-ia)

385
Q

Public Health

Define apraxia.

A

Loss of fine motor skills and ability to perform practical motor tasks (e.g. buttoning shirt, tying shoes, brushing teeth)

(a-practical-ia)

386
Q

Public Health

What is sundowning?

A

The worsening of dementia symptoms as night falls

387
Q

Public Health

What is the most common cause of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease (60 - 80% of dementia cases)

388
Q

Public Health

Where does Alzheimer’s Disease fall in the top 10 leading causes of death in the U.S.?

A

6

389
Q

Public Health

What are some common risk factors for Alzheimer’s Disease development?

A

Age

Gender (women make up 2/3 of cases)

Family history

Social isolation

Low educational attainment

Metabolic syndrome

390
Q

Public Health

How is Alzheimer’s Disease diagnosed (In a definitive manner)?

A

Only by death after autopsy

All other diagnoses made by exclusion

391
Q

Public Health

What is the usual age of onset for Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

65 and older

(Although it is important to remember that AD is NOT a part of the normal aging process)

392
Q

Public Health

What is the age of onset for early-onset Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Younger than 65 years of age

393
Q

Public Health

What is the main function of the parietal lobe?

A

Sensory interpretation and organization

394
Q

Public Health

What are the main lobes of the cerebrum?

A

Frontal

Parietal

Temporal

Occipital

395
Q

Public Health

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

A

Executive function, planning, reasoning, planned motor functions

396
Q

Public Health

What are the main functions of the temporal lobe?

A

Memory organization, auditory function

397
Q

Public Health

What is the main function of the occipital lobe?

A

Visual processing

398
Q

Public Health

What is the gene associated with Alzheimer’s Disease (although only a small percentage, ~10% of cases, are associated with it)?

Is there a protective isoform of this gene?

A

APOE-E4 (Apolipoprotein-E4)

Yes, APOE-E2

399
Q

Public Health

What genes are associated with early-onset Alzheimer’s Disease? In families in which early-onset AD is prevalent, what is the hereditary nature of the disease?

A

APP (Amyloid protein precursor)

PSEN1 (Presenilin-1)

PSEN2 (Presenilin-2)

Autosomal dominant (50% chance for offspring)

400
Q

Public Health

What are the two main pathophysiological aspects of Alzheimer’s Disease? Which is intracellular (inside the cell)? Which is extracellular (outside the cell)?

A

Beta-amyloid plaques (extracellular)

Tau-protein tangles (intracellular) - also known as neurofibrillary tangles

401
Q

Public Health

How do we stop or cure Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

There is no definitive treatment available yet

402
Q

Public Health

Although no definitive treatment exists, what are current recommendations around preventing or slowing Alzheimer’s Disease development?

A

Reduce metabolic syndrome factors

Learn as much as you can (Cognitive reserve hypothesis)

403
Q

Public Health

Describe the cognitive reserve hypothesis.

A

The more social interaction, education, and other activities that stimulate the brain, the more protected an individual is against the effects of Alzheimer’s Disease.

AKA more brain usage = more neural connections = more of a buffer against neuronal damage or loss

404
Q

Public Health

Are there any clinical tests that can help in the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s Disease and other forms of dementia?

A

Yes, the mini-cognitive test (mini-cog) and the mini-mental-state exam (MMSE)

405
Q

Public Health

Describe mild, moderate, and severe Alzheimer’s Disease.

A

Mild - Person still functions independently; mild cognitive decline; may be noticed by family and friends

Moderate - Longest stage; level of care required; sociobehavioral changes; increased cognitive impairment

Severe - Loss of ability to respond to environment; personality changes; comprehensive care-giving required; loss of awareness and physical abilities

406
Q

Public Health

What are the common first signs of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Mild cognitive impairment and loss of short-term memory

(This leads to difficulty in separating AD from the normal cognitive decline associated with the aging process)

407
Q

Public Health

What is the average length of life for an individual after diagnosis with Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

4-8 years (although this number can stretch out to up to 20 years)

408
Q

Public Health

What is a common cause of death in individuals with Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Pneumonia or other respiratory issues associated with loss of proper swallowing ability

409
Q

Public Health

What is the second most common type of dementia?

A

Lewy body dementia

Note: In our review, I said vascular dementia was 2nd. There is some debate around this topic, and for the purposes of our class, Lewy body dementia is 2nd MC. However, vascular dementia is commonly cited as 2nd MC and Lewy body as 3rd MC.

410
Q

Public Health

What is the main dysfunction associated with Lewy body dementia?

A

Abnormal protein deposits (alpha-synuclein) in the brain, somewhat similar to AD

These deposits lead to a deficiency of dopamine and can cause some Parkinsonian symptoms

411
Q

Public Health

What is the main dysfunction of vascular/multi-infarct dementia?

A

Vascular damage or defects lead to loss of sufficient blood flow to the brain and subsequent brain damage

(Basically, stroke or other vascular insults damage the brain)

412
Q

Public Health

Describe Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease.

A

An infectious disease caused by prions (misfolded proteins) that accumulate in the brain and cause neuronal degeneration

413
Q

Public Health

Describe Multiple Sclerosis.

A

An autoimmune attack on the myelin sheath that leads to scanning speech, incontinence, decreased motor ability, fatigue, nystagmus, etc.

(Remember, Multiple Sclerosis affects the Myelin Sheath)

414
Q

Public Health

Describe Parkinson’s disease.

A

Not characterized by dementia until the disease has severely progressed

Loss of dopamine-producing region of the brain (substantia nigra pars compacta in basal ganglia)

Characterized by rigidity, tremor, akinesia, shuffling walk

415
Q

Public Health

Describe Huntington’s Disease.

A

A hereditary, autosomal dominant genetic mutation with an onset between 20 and 50 years of age

Characterized by loss of motor inhibition, dementia, and depression

416
Q

Public Health

Describe the MIND diet.

A

A combination of the DASH (antihypertensive) and Mediterranean diets; it is thought to decrease inflammatory and metabolic processes and thus improve cognitive function

417
Q

Public Health

What is the most common killer among cancers?

A

Lung cancer

418
Q

Public Health

What is the most common cancer in women?

A

Breast cancer

419
Q

Public Health

What is the most common cancer in men?

A

Prostate cancer

420
Q

Public Health

Do most women diagnosed with breast cancer have a previous family history?

A

No, 85% have no family history of the disease

421
Q

Public Health

What percentage of breast lumps are non-cancerous?

A

80%

422
Q

Public Health

What are some of the possible signs and symptoms of breast cancer besides finding a lump?

A
  • nipple or another part of breast pulling inwards
  • dimpling or puckering
  • sudden discharge from a nipple
  • itchy, scaly sore or rash on the nipple
  • localized pain that doesn’t go away
  • thickening, redness or darkening of the skin on the breast or underarm area
  • “peau d’orange” orange peel effect
  • unusual swelling and warmth, or a change in breast size or shape.
423
Q

Public Health

True/False. Self-breast exams are the gold standard for breast cancer detection.

A

False. They are not even recommended.

424
Q

Public Health

What percentage of women have dense breasts?

What causes a breast to be considered dense?

In what age group is the breast typically denser?

A

~40%

A larger presence of fibroglandular tissue (lactiferous lobules and ducts); as opposed to adipose tissue

Younger women (as their breasts are preparing for lactation)

425
Q

Public Health

What is the best breast cancer detection tool we have?

A

Mammography (x-ray of the breast)

426
Q

Public Health

Is it more difficult to detect breast cancer via mammography in a dense or non-dense breast?

Is breast density related to breast size?

A

Dense breast tissue ‘shields’ the tumor from detection.

No, there is no relation.

427
Q

Public Health

What are some risk factors for breast cancer?

(Gender? Age? Genetics? Estrogen exposure?)

A

Gender - much more common in females

Age - more common as age increases

Genetics - BRCA1 and BRCA2 (BReast CAncer genes) genes

Any increase in estrogen exposure - Nulliparous, no breastfeeding, early menarche, late menopause (Estrogen stimulates breast growth)

428
Q

Public Health

A woman finds a lump in her breast. What are some possible causes of this lump?

A

A cyst - fluid-filled space

Fat necrosis - usually due to trauma

A benign tumor - fibroadenoma

A malignant tumor (cancer) - adenocarcinomas (much more common) and fibrosarcomas

429
Q

Public Health

Where is breast cancer more commonly found in the breast (by quadrant)?

Where in the anatomical structures of the breast is it more common (the milk lobes, the ducts, the supporting tissues)?

A

Upper outer quadrant (armpit area)

The ducts

430
Q

Public Health

Which race is most commonly diagnosed with breast cancer?

Which race most commonly dies of breast cancer?

A

Caucasian women

African-American women

431
Q

Public Health

When is breast cancer awareness month?

A

October

432
Q

Public Health

The BRCA 1 gene is associated with which types of cancer?

A

Breast, ovarian, and uterine cancers

433
Q

Public Health

The BRCA 2 gene is associated with which type of cancer?

A

Mainly breast cancer

434
Q

Public Health

What does it mean for a breast cancer to be triple-negative?

Is this a more or less dangerous form of cancer?

A

The breast cancer cells have no receptors for estrogen (E), progesterone (P), or human epidermal growth factor (HER-2)

This type of cancer is not responsive to hormone therapy and thus more dangerous

435
Q

Public Health

How much earlier can mammogram detect breast cancer than self- or clinical breast examination?

A

2 years

436
Q

Public Health

Which lymph nodes drain the breast?

A

The axillary lymph nodes

437
Q

Public Health

What is the name of the first lymph node to drain the fluid surrounding a tumor?

A

The Sentinel node

438
Q

Public Health

What are the ACS guidelines for mammography?

A

Annual screening for women from 45-54 years of age

Biennial screening for women ≥ 55 years of age

439
Q

Public Health

What are the USPSTF recommendations for mammography?

A

Biennial screening after 50 years of age

440
Q

Public Health

When should a woman begin breast cancer screening earlier than the average recommended guidelines?

A

When she has a higher risk

  • Personal or family history
  • Genetic susceptibility
  • History of chest radiation (e.g. past TB patients)
441
Q

Public Health

Describe fibrocystic disease in the breast.

What age group does it typically present in?

A

Most frequent breast lesion.

Painful, multiple bilateral masses that worsen in pain and increase in size during premenstrual cycle

Most common in women aged 30-50

442
Q

Public Health

How can breast cancer be treated?

A

Depends on the extent of the disease growth.

Lymph node dissection

Lumpectomy

Mastectomy

  • Simple
  • Partial
  • Total
  • Radical Halsted
  • Modified-radical
443
Q

Public Health

What are the three main forms of thinking that have negative emotive effects?

A

Human rating
Demands
Catastrophizing

444
Q

Public Health

What are two fundamental principles of rational emotive behavioral therapy?

A
  1. Work to persuade people to change thinking that upsets them
  2. All emotion, thought, behavior, and perception are intricately connected
445
Q

Public Health

Of deaths due to non-communicable disease in individuals under the age of 70, 82% are in low-, middle-, or high-income countries?

A

82% are in low- and middle-income countries

446
Q

Public Health

What are the four major upstream risk factors associated with nearly all chronic disease?

A

Diet
Physical activity
Alcohol use
Tobacco use

447
Q

Public Health

What is the leading cause of cancer death in the U.S.?

A

Lung cancer

448
Q

Public Health

What is the most common cancer among men?

A

Prostate cancer

449
Q

Public Health

What is the most common cancer among women?

A

Breast cancer

450
Q

Public Health

What is the most common dyad of disease in the U.S.?

A

Hypertension and arthritis

451
Q

Public Health

What is the most common triad of disease in the U.S.?

A

Hypertension, arthritis, and diabetes mellitus

How to Doctor: Public health (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions