Pulmonary neoplasms and neoplastic-like conditions Flashcards
(135 cards)
1
Q
an opacity completely stable in size for than 2 years is considered
A
benign
2
Q
in patient under the age of 35, particularly a nonsmoker without a history of malignancy, an SPN is invariably a
A
granuloma, hamartoma or an inflammatory lesion
3
Q
SPNs in a patient over 35 years of age should never be followed radiographically without tissue confirmation unless benign patterns are seen such as
A
calcification or the presence of intralesional fat or there has been radiographically documented lack of growth over a minimum of 2 years
4
Q
An SPN that arises more than 2 years after the diagnosis of an extrathoracic malignancy and proves to be malignant is almost always a
A
primary lung tumor rather than a metastasis
5
Q
exceptions to the rule in which SPNs of more than 2 years after an extrathoracic malignancy diagnosis has been made is almost alwats a primary lung tumor except for what extrathoracic malignancies
A
breast and melanoma
6
Q
lung cancer presenting as a solid SPN has a doubling time of approximately
A
180 days
7
Q
some benign lesions that may exhibit a growth rate similar to that of malignant lesions
A
hamartomas and histoplasmosis
8
Q
malignant SPNs that may have a doubling time of greater than 2 years
A
well-differentiated adenocarcinoma and carcinoid tumors
9
Q
Altho size does not reliably discriminate benign from malignant SPNs, the larger the lesion, the greater the likelihood its
A
Malignant
10
Q
Masses exceeding __ cm in diameter are usually malignant
A
4 cm
11
Q
3 Malignancies that may have a perfectly smooth margin
A
- Carcinoid tumor,
- adenocarcinoma,
- solitary metastasis
12
Q
4 Benign lesions that have a spiculated border include
A
- Lipoid pneumonia,
- organizing pneumonia,
- tuberculomas,
- mass lesions of progressive massive fibrosis in complicated silicosis
13
Q
Presence of small “satellite” nodules around the periphery of a dominant nodule is strongly suggestive of
A
Benign disease such as granulomatous infection
14
Q
Presence of a halo of ggo encircling an SPN in an immunocompromised, neutropenic patient should suggest diagnosis of
A
Invasive fungal disease
invasive pulmonary aspergillosis.
15
Q
An area of pleural thickening with a “comet” tail of bronchi and vessels entering the hilar aspect of mass and associated lobar volume loss is characteristic of
A
Rounded atelectasis
16
Q
Probably the single most important factor in characterizing the lesion as benign or indeterminate
A
Density
17
Q
Complete or central calcification within an SPN is specific for a
A
Healed granuloma from tuberculosis or histoplasmosis
18
Q
Concentric or laminated calcification indicates a
A
Granuloma
19
Q
a bronchogenic carcinoma that arises in an area of previous granulomatous infection may engulf a preexisting calcified granuloma as it enlarges. In thi situation, the calcification will be
A
eccentric
20
Q
Identification of fat within an SPN is diagnostic of a
A
pulmonary hamartoma
21
Q
cystic lesions with wall thickening or nodularity that are malignant are usually
A
adenocarcinoma
22
Q
demonstration of an air bronchogram or bubbly lucencies within an SPN is highly suspicious for
A
adenocarcinoma
23
Q
all malignant lesions virtually demonstrates an increase in attenuation of greater than ___HU
A
15 HU after contrast administration
24
Q
if SPN is less than or = 4 mm in low-risk patients, what is the management
A
no follow up needed
25
if SPN is less than or = 4 mm in high-risk patients, what is the management
follow-up CT @ 12 months
26
if SPN is >4-6 mm in low-risk patients, what is the management?
follow-up CT @ 12 months
27
if SPN is >4-6 mm in high-risk patients, what is the management
follow up CT @ 6-12 months, then @ 18-24 months
28
if SPN is >6-8mm in low-risk patients, what is the management
follow up CT @ 6-12 months, then @ 18-24 months
29
if SPN is >6-8 mm in high-risk patients, what is the management?
follow up CT @ 3-6months
then CT @ 9-12 months,
then @ 24 months
30
The only exception to the published recommendations is for subsolid (i.e., ground-glass or mixed solid/ground-glass attenuation) nodules for which
a greater than 2-year follow-up is likely necessary given the indolent nature and more typical slow growth of subsolid malignancies.
31
a doubling time of SPN of less than 30 days or greater than 2 years represent a benign or malignant lesion?
benign
32
because most SPNs are peripherally situated in the lung, what is the procedure of choice for tissue sampling?
transthoracic needle biospy
33
peripheral lesions that are too small for successful TNB can be sampled with
video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
34
SPNs that are centrally situated with a large bronchus entering the lesion should undergo
transbronchoscopic biopsy
35
Majority of carcinoid tumors are located where, which present with wheezing, atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis
central endobronchial lesions
36
reflects a benign neoplasm composed of an abnormal arrangement of the mesenchymal and epithelial elements found in normal lung
pulmonary hamartoma
37
pulmonary hamartomas are usually seen at what age
4th to 5th decades of life
38
a confident diagnosis of hamartoma can be made when HRCT shows a nodule or mass demonstrating?
a smooth lobulated border and containing focal fat
39
calcification in hamartoma if present, demonstrates what pattern
popcorn like
40
1. low-grade B-cell lymphomas that present in adults in their 50s. the most common radiographic finding is an SPN or focal airspace opacity
2. connective tissue tumor that arises within the lung from the pericyte, a cell associated with the arteriolar and capillary endothelium. On chest radiographs, these lesions are seen as SPNs and are indistinguishable from
bronchogenic carcinoma.
1. non-hodgkin lymphoma
| 2. Hemangiopericytoma
41
1. classified as an adenoma and typically affects females and presents as a solitary, smoothly marginated juxtapleural nodule that enhances densely due to its vascular nature
2. Arising from the smooth muscle of the airways or pulmonary vessels. These are rare neoplasm that present as endobronchial or intrapulmonary lesions with equal frequency. Radiographically, the parenchymal lesions are sharply marginated, smooth or lobulated nodules or masses. The histologic distinction of benign from malignant
lesions is difficult. Similarly, fibromas and neurofibromas appearing as SPNs lack distinguishing radiographic features.
1. sclerosing pneumocytoma (hemangioma)
| 2. leiomyomas and leiomyosarcomas
42
1. characterized histologically by myofibroblasts which are spindle cells admixed with chronic inflammation--containing plasma cells. these lesions appear as smoothly marginated SPNs in children and young adults
2. benign neoplasm arising from neural elements in the central airways or parenchyma. The skin is the most common site for these tumors. These tumors may present as SPNs but are more commonly seen as endobronchial masses. half of lung lesions present with obstructive pneumonitis because of their endobronchial location.
1. inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor (plasma cell granuloma, inflammatory pseudotumor)
2. granular cell tumor (granular cell myoblastoma)
43
true or false, in lipoid pneumonia, spiculated appearance is not uncommon, as the oild may produce a chronic inflammatory reaction in the surrounding lung that leads to fibrosis
true
44
fluid-filled cystic lesions of the lung that can produce and SPN
bronchogenic cyst
45
90% of the bronchogenic cysts can be found in the
middle mediastinum
46
1. appears on CT as an intraparenchymal air-fluid level within a thin-walled localized air collection (usually in the upper lobe) with typical bullous changes in other portions of the lung
2. The inadvertent aspiration of mineral oils ingested by elderly patients to treat constipation may produce a localized pulmonary lesion. Patients with gastroesophageal reflux or disordered swallowing mechanisms are at particular risk. Radiographically, a focal area of airspace opacification or a solid mass may be seen in the lower lobes. A spiculated appearance to the edge of the mass is not uncommon, as the oil may produce a chronic inflammatory reaction in the surrounding lung that leads to fibrosis. While CT can demonstrate fat within the lesion, most patients with the mass-like form of this entity
require resection for definitive diagnosis (see Fig. 19.40).
1. Superinfection of a lung bulla may produce an SPN or mass.
2. Lipoid Pneumonia.
47
1. a recent history of lower respiratory tract infection in this mass-like lung lesion will be present
2. rare intrapulmonary lesions that arise more
commonly within the tracheobronchial tree to produce atelectasis. The demonstration of fat attenuation on CT is diagnostic.
1. focal organizing pneumonia
| 2. Lipomas
48
hematoma or traumatic lung cyst can present as
round opacities often containing air or an air/fluid level
49
99% of malignant epithelial neoplasms of lungs arise from the
bronchi
50
bronchogenic carcinoma are subdivided in the four main histologic subtypes
adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma
51
most common type of lung cancer, accounting for approximately 43% of all lung carcinomas. it has the weakest association with smoking and most common subtype of nonsmokers
adenocarcinoma
52
adenocarcinomas are usually found in
upper lobes, 1/4 of cases are in the central portions of lungs
53
arises from bronchiolar or alveolar epithelium and have an irregular or spiculated appearance where they invade adjacent lung producing an irregularly marginated pulmonary nodule or mass
adenocarcinoma
54
the presence of ground glass densities in adenocarcinoma presenting as an SPN represents
lepidic growth of tumor cells along the alveolar walls
55
solid (soft tissue component) in adenocarcinoma reflects
invasive tumor
56
second most common subtype of lung cancer, accounting for approximately 23% of all cases. this tumor arises centrally within a lobar or segmental bronchus
squamous cell carcinoma
57
these tumors are polypoid masses that grow into the bronchial lumen while simultaneously invading the bronchial wall
squamous cell carcinoma
58
common radiographic findings include a hilar mass with or without obstructive pneumonitis or atelectasis. central necrosis is common in large tumors; cavitation may be seen if communication has occurred between the central portion of mass and the bronchial lumen
squamous cell carcinoma
59
presence of keratin pearls and intercellular bridges are specific for what tumor
squamous cell carcinoma
60
treatment for adenocarcinoma
stage I-II surgery, stage III-IV XRT/chemo
61
treatment for squamous cell carcinoma
stage I-II surgery, stage III-IV- XRT/chemo
62
treatment of small cell carcinoma
chemotherapy
63
treatment for large cell carcinoma or carcinoid tumor
variable
64
type of neuroendocrine tumor of the lung, accounts for 13% of bronchogenic carcinomas and arises centrally within the main or lobar bronchi
small cell carcinoma
65
these tumors are most malignant neoplasms arising from bronchial neuroendocrine (kulchitsky) cells and are alternatively referred as kulchitsky cell cancers of KCC-3
small cell carcinoma
66
typical carcinoid tumors (small cell ca) that represent least malignant type
KCC-1
67
atypical carcinoid tumors (small cell ca) that represent intermediate in aggressiveness
KCC-2
68
exhibits a small endobronchial component invading the bronchial wall and peribronchial tissues early in the course of the disease. this produces a hilar or mediastinal mass with extrinsic bronchial compression and obstruction. Invasuin of the submucosal and peribronchial lymphatics leads to local lymph node enlargement and hematogeneous dissemination
small cell carcinoma
69
diagnosed when a non small cell lung cancer lacks the histologic characteristics of squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma. tumors tend to arise peripherally as a solitary mass and is often large at the time of presentation
large cell carcinoma
70
in addition to cigarette smoke, well-recognized risk factors for the development of lung cancer include (6)
- asbestos exposure,
- COPD,
- diffuse interstitial or localized lung fibrosis
- emphysema,
- radon exposure and
- previous Hodgkin lymphoma,
AbCDE-RP
71
carcinogens in cigarette smoke produce
cellular atypia and squamous metaplasia of bronchiolar epithelium, that may precede malignant transformation
72
two histologic subtypes with the strongest association with cigarette smoking in men
small cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma
73
subtype that is associated with cigarette smoking in women
all histologic subtypes
74
patients previously treated for mediastinal hodgkin disease with radiation, chemotherapy or a combination of two have an eightfold increase in lung cancer begining how many years after tx
10 years
75
exposure to inhaled radioactive material, particularly radon, is associated with development of small cell carcinoma of lung after how many years from exposure
20 years
76
diffuse interstitial fibrosis in patients with usual interstitial pneumonitis due to scleroderma, rheumatoid lung disease or idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis has been associated with an increased incidence of what type of bronchogenic ca
adenocarcinoma
The link between viral infection and bronchogenic carcinoma comes chiefly from the study of jaagsiekte, a disease of sheep that closely resembles BAC of the lung in humans.
77
most common radiographic finding in lung cancer
an SPN (size between 2mm and 3 cm) or lung mass (3 cm or larger), and a hilar mass with or without bronchial obstruction
78
marked mediastinal nodal enlargement producing a lobulated mediastinal contour is characteristic of
small cell carcinoma
79
most common finding if there is obstruction of bronchial lumen by the endobronchial component of a tumor
resorptive atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis of lung distal to the obstructing lesion
80
1. occasionally, lung mass-producing the lobar atelectasis creates a central convexity in the normally concave contour of the collapsed lobe, producing the
2. An abnormal increase in lobar or whole lung volume is recognized radiographically by a bulging interlobar fissure marginating the obstructed lobe or by mediastinal shift, respectively, and is termed
3. The lung with obstructive pneumonitis is not
infected but rather shows a chronic inflammatory infiltrate and alveolar filling with lipid-laden macrophages the latter finding accounts for the descriptive terms
1. S sign of Golden
2. “drowned lung.”
3. “golden” or “endogenous lipoid pneumonia.”
81
walls of cavitating neoplasms tend to be ____ than those of cavitary inflammatory lesions
thicker and more nodular
82
a peripheral neoplasm arising in that portion of the lung apex, indented superiorly by the subclavian artery
pancoast (superior sulcus) tumor
83
presents with arm pain and muscular atrophy attributable to brachial plexus involvement, Horner syndrome from involvement of sympathetic change and shoulder pain from chest wall invasion
pancoast tumor
84
most common cause of SVC syndrome
lung cancer
85
represents invasion of the lymphatic changgels of the lung by tumor
lymphangitic carcinomatosis
86
pathophysiology of lymphangitic carcinomatosis
invasion of lymphatics or neoplastic involvement of the hilar and mediastinal nodes, leads to retrograde (centrifugal) lymphatic flow with dilatation of lymphatic channels, interstitial deposits of tumor and fibrosis
87
appears as smooth or beaded thickening of the interlobular septa and bronchovascular interstitium
lymphangitic carcinomatosis
88
current theshold for lung cancer detection appears to be a lesion size of
> or equal to 8mm
89
Tumor invasion (lung cancer) of mediastinum with involvement of heart, great vessels, trachea, carina, esophagus, diaphragm, or recurrent laryngeal nerve precludes
Resection
90
True or false, localized invasion of the pericardium does not prevent resection
True
91
True or false: tumors that involve a main bronchus are resectable regardless of their distance from the carina
True
False? carina = T4 = Stage IIIa
• although tracheal or tracheal carinal involvement (T4 tumor) can be treated by carinal resection with end-to-side anastomosis of the remaining bronchus to the tracheal stump (“sleeve pneumonectomy”), most surgeons would consider this an unresectable tumor.
92
True or false: malignant pleural or pericardial thickening, nodularity or effusion is M1a disease and precludes curative resection
True
93
3 Features that strongly suggests pleural invasion
Pleural thickening >1cm,
lobulated pleural thickening or
circumferential pleural thickening
94
True or false: contralateral hilar/mediastinal or supraclavicular nodal disease is unresectable
True
```
mediastinoscopy
•pretracheal
•anterior subcarinal
•right tracheobronchial
endobronchial ultrasound
•pretracheal
•paratracheal
•subcarinal
•hilar
•interlobar nodes
endoscopic ultrasound
•subcarinal
•paraesophageal
•inferior pulmonary ligament
```
95
Lung Parenchymal involvement in what type of lymphoma is 2-3x more common
Hodgkin disease
96
Most cases of primary pulmonary non hodgkin lymphoma arise from type and represent what kind of lymphoma?
BALT and represent low grade B-cell lymphomas
97
BALT lymphomas are also termed as _____ and have been associated with autoimmune diseases, in particular Sjögren syndome and RA
Extranodal marginal zone lymphomas
98
Presents a T-cell rich primary pulmonary B cell lymphoma associated with epstein-barr virus
Lymphomatoid granulomatosis
Lymphoma = Lymphomatoid
99
Radiographic features of lymphomatoid granulomatosis
Multiple nodular opacities with a lower lobe predilection. Cavitation as a result of vascular invasion is common
granulomatosis → nodule → cavitation
100
3 related inflammatory conditions associated with autoimmune and immunologic diseases including Sjögren syndrome, RA, myasthenia gravis, and immunocompromised states including common variable immunodeficiency and HIV infection
- Follicular bronchiolitis,
- lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis and
- nodular lymphoid hyperplasia
101
Ct findings in follicular bronchiolitis, LIP and nodular lymphoid hyperplasia
Diffuse ground-glass opacity, poorly defined centrilobular nodules, interlobular septal thickening, and thin-walled cysts
102
Represents a spectrum of entities ranging from benign polyclonal lymphoid proliferation to aggressive non-Hodgkin's lymphoma that develops in a small percentage of transplant patients with lung transplant recipients most commonly affected
Post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
103
Infection with what virus is responsible for most cases of posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder
EBV
104
Parenchymal imvolvement in leukemia usually takes the form of
Interstitial infiltration by leukemic cells, with resultant peribronchial cuffing and reticulonodular opacities
105
An unusual pulmonary manifestation of leukemia is _____, which is seen in acute leukemia or those in blast crisis in whom the peripheral white blood cell count exceeds 100,000 to 200,000/cm3
Pulmonary leukocytosis
106
Ct findings in Kaposi sarcoma
Typical peribronchovascular location of the opacities and may demonstrate air bronchograms traversing mass-like areas of confluent disease
107
The mass-like opacities in kaposi sarcoma often parallel the long axis of bronchovascular structures and have been described as what shape?
Flame shaped
kAPOsi = APOy = flame shaped
108
Rare malignant lung tumor affecting children and young adults. These tumors tend to be extremely large at presentation
Pulmonary blastoma
109
Preneoplastic proliferation of neuroendocrine cells found in the mucosa of small airways. Affected patients are middle-aged women that present either with asymptomatic small lung nodules that simulate metastatic disease or with symptoms of cough, dyspnea and wheezing diagnosed as
Diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia
110
Ct findings in diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia
Mosaic lung attenuation and air trapping are typically seen on inspiratory and expiratory ct
111
90% of all primary tracheal masses are benign or malignant?
malignant
112
most common primary tracheal malignancy
squamous cell carcinoma
113
majority of squamous cell ca of trachea arise from what part
distal trachea within 3 to 4 cm of tracheal carina
114
2nd most common site of tracheal squamous cell ca
cervical trachea
115
malignant neoplasm that arises from the tracheal salivary glands and account for 40% of primary tracheal malignancies
adenoid cystic carcinoma
116
adenoid cystic carcinoma of trachea tends to involve what part
posterolateral wall of the distal 2/3 of trachea or main or lobar bronchi
117
tracheal masses exceeding 2cm are likely to be benign or malignant?
malignant
118
most common types of thyroid malignancy to invade the trachea
papillary and follicular
119
4 extrathoracic primary tumors that are most often associated with hematogeneous endotracheal metastases are carcinomas of
BKCM
breast,
kidney,
colon and
melanoma
120
5 most common benign tracheal tumors in adults
- chondroma,
- fibroma,
- squamous cell papilloma,
- hemangioma,
- granular cell tumor
121
sessile or pedunculated fibrous masses arising in the cervical trachea
fibromas
122
hemangiomas are seen in the cervical trachea almost exclusively in what age group
infants and young children
123
neoplasm that arises from the neural elements in the tracheal or bronchial wall. usually involve the cervical trachea or main bronchi but can arise in smaller bronchi
granular cell tumor
124
intratracheal thyroid tissue is likewise goitrous and most commonly found in what portion of the trachea
posterolateral wall of cervical trachea
125
presence of a small intraluminal and large extraluminal soft tissue component has given rise to the descriptive term "iceberg tumor"
Histologically, these tumors show sheets or trabeculae of uniform cells separated by a fibrovascular stroma.
carcinoid tumor
Radiologically, central bronchial carcinoids present with atelectasis or pneumonia secondary to large airway obstruction.
A hyperlucent lobe or lung of diminished volume may result from incomplete obstruction or collateral airflow with reflex hypoxic vasoconstriction. this finding is also rarely seen in bronchogenic carcinoma.
Carcinoids arising within the lung have a propensity to involve the right upper and middle lobes and appear as well-defined, smooth or lobulated nodules or masses.
126
benign neoplasm comprised of disorganized epithelial and mesenchymal elements normally found in the bronchus or lung
pulmonary hamartoma
127
presents as pedunculated lesions in the bronchus with fatty centers covered by fibrous tissue that contain little cartilage
endobronchial hamartomas
128
transpleural spread of tumor can be seen in cases of
invasive thymoma
129
most common mediastinal malignancies to invade the lung are (4)
- esophageal carcinoma,
- lymphoma,
- malignant germ cell tumors or
- nodal metastases (any malignancy metastasizing to mediastinal or hilar lymph nodes)
130
difference in radiologic appearance of pulmonary metastasis from primary bronchogenic carcinoma
mets- smooth in contour
| primary lung ca- lobulated or spiculated
131
nodular pulmonary metastases are usually smooth or lobulated lesions that are found in greater numbers in what portion of the lungs due to the greater pulmonary blood flow to these regions
peripheral portions of the lower lobes
132
the demonstration of calcification within multiple pulmonary nodules in the absence of a history of a primary bone-forming neoplasm such as osteogenic sarcoma or chondrosarcoma is diagnostic of
granulomatous disease
133
most common cause of unilateral lymphangitic carcinomatosis
bronchogenic carcinoma
134
4 MC extrathoracic malignancies to produce lymphangitic carcinomatosis are
BSPP
breast,
stomach,
pancreas, and
prostate
135
common causes of pulmonary arterial emboli due to their possible invasion of hepatic veins and renal veins, gaining access to the right heart and pulmonary vasculature
HCC and renal cell CA
