Pulmonology Flashcards

(141 cards)

1
Q

Interpreting DLCO: decreased DLCO and reduced lung volumes

A

pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Interpreting DLCO: decreased DLCO and normal LV

A

pulm vasc disease and anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Interpreting DLCO: decreased DLCO and airflow obstruction

A

COPD, bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Interpreting DLCO: increased or normal DLCO and airflow obstruction

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Interpreting DLCO: increased DLCO

A

pulmonary hemmorrhage, polycythemia, or left to right shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Interpreting DLCO: normal dlco and decreased LV

A

obesity or extrapulmonary cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Airway reversibility with improvement of bronchodilator signs

A

A ≥12% increase in either FEV1 or FVC and an increase ≥200 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reversible airway disease with improvement of bronchodilator signs

A

A ≥12% increase in either FEV1 or FVC and an increase ≥200 mL from baseline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Restrictive airway disease ratio of FEV1 and FVC

A

Equal reductions in FEV1

and FVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

consider any cough that is nocturnal, seasonal, or related to a workplace
or activity as…

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bronchoprovocation testing is indicated for

A

patients with a suggestive clinical history for asthma but normal spirometry.
Bronchoprovocation testing with exercise is indicated to diagnose exercise-induced asthma in patients who have dyspnea following exercise but normal spirometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

does normal spirometry rule out asthma

does normal bronchoprovocation test rule out asthma

A

no

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

alternative ddx for wheezing

A

HF, COPD, vocal cord dysfunction, and upper airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

xray in chronic eosinophilic pneumonia

A

“photographic-negative” pulmonary edema (peripheral pulmonary edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

clinical findings in chronic eosinophilic pna

A

striking peripheral blood eosinophilia, fever, and weight loss in a long-term smoker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

dx chronic eosinophilic pna

A

by bronchoscopy with biopsy or bronchoalveolar lavage showing a high eosinophil count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

clinical findings of Allergic bronchopulmonary

aspergillosis

A

Asthma manifests with eosinophilia, markedly high serum IgE levels, and intermittent pulmonary infiltrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

dx of Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

positive skin test for Aspergillus and IgG and IgE antibodies to Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

xray of Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

radiographic opacities in the upper lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

overlooked until advaced Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis for

A

fixed obstruction and bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

clinical findings of Eosinophilic granulomatosis

with polyangiitis

A

Upper airway and sinus disease precedes difficult-to-treat asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

red flag sign of Eosinophilic granulomatosis

with polyangiitis

A

flares associated with use of

leukotriene inhibitors and glucocorticoid tapers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

dx of Eosinophilic granulomatosis

with polyangiitis

A

Serum p-ANCA may be elevated

Hallmark diagnostic finding is eosinophilic tissue infiltrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

difficult to control asthma you should get what further testing

A

echo and cxr. Obtaining flow-volume loops and direct visualization of the larynx during an acute episode may be helpful in diagnosing tracheal obstruction
and vocal cord dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
asthma is an extrapharyngeal manifestation of
gerd
26
symptom frequency asthma intermittent
<2 per week or <2 per month
27
symptom frequency asthma: mild persistent
Symptoms >2 per week but <1 per day or | nocturnal sx >2 per month
28
symptom frequency asthma: moderate persistent
Need for daily use of short-acting β-agonist ≥1 per week | nocturnal: Acute exacerbations ≥2 per week
29
symptom frequency asthma: severe persistent
Continual symptoms that limit physical activity nocturnal: Frequent
30
Step 1: Intermittent asthma tx
Select a short-acting β-agonist as needed
31
Step 2: Mild persistent ASTHMA TX
Add a low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid
32
Step 3: Moderate persistent asthma tx
Add one of the following: 1. Low to medium doses of an inhaled glucocorticoid and a LABA (preferred) 2. Medium doses of an inhaled glucocorticoid 3. Low to medium doses of an inhaled glucocorticoid and a single long-term controller medication (leukotriene modifier or theophylline)
33
step 4: : Severe persistent asthma tx
Add high doses of an inhaled glucocorticoid plus a LABA or LAMA and possibly oral glucocorticoids
34
Omalizumab indications
- moderate to severe asthma - inadequate control of symptoms with inhaled glucocorticoids • evidence of allergies to perennial aeroallergen • IgE levels between 30 and 700 kU/L
35
Anti–interleukin-5 monoclonal antibodies (mepolizumab, reslizumab) indications
r patients with an absolute eosinophil count >150 cells/µL and severe asthma not controlled with standard therapy.
36
risk of theophylline and macrolide or fluoroquinolone
toxicity
37
risk of using laba isolated for asthma
increase mortality risk
38
diagnosis with patient with suspected asthma but improves immediately with intubation
vocal cord dx
39
COPD includes the following diseases
emphysema, chronic bronchitis, obliterative bronchiolitis, and asthmatic bronchitis
40
what to test in pts with COPD <45 years who have a strong family history of COPD or without identifiable COPD risk factors
alpha antitrypsin dx
41
Bronchiectasis is usually associated with
inciting event (childhood pna, tb,
42
bronchiectasis symptoms
Large-volume sputum production with purulent exacerbations; hemoptysis
43
bronchiectaisis xray finding
tram lines diagnose with HRCT
44
adult CF characteristics
Obstructive pulmonary disease is most common presentation in adult patients; other symptoms may include recurrent respiratory infections, infertility Positive sweat chloride test result
45
Adult bronchiolitis characteristics
Found in current or former smokers; may be idiopathic or associated with other diseases such as RA Poorly responsive to bronchodilators; responds to smoking cessation and glucocorticoids
46
Bronchiolitis obliterans characteristics
Presents with dyspnea without improvement following bronchodilators, normal or hyperinflated lungs on chest x-ray; associated with injury to small airways; consider in patients after lung or stem cell transplantation
47
bacterial infections most common in CF pts>
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Burkholderia cepacia
48
• In patients with CF and acute abdominal pain consider
intussusception
49
supression of chronic pulm infections in cf
aerosolized tobramycin
50
tx for persistent secretions in cf
aerosolized recombinant human DNase (dornase alfa) or hypertonic saline
51
DPLD HRCT finding hilar lymphadenopathy
sarcoidosis
52
DPLD HRCT finding pleural effusion
connected tissue related disease
53
DPLD HRCT finding pleural placques
asbestosis
54
drugs causing dpld
: amiodarone, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin, chemotherapeutic
55
smoking relate dpld
X-ray shows ground-glass opacities and thickened interstitium
56
radiation dpld duration of onset
May occur 6 weeks to months after radiation therapy
57
hypersensitivity pneumonitis HRCT
ground-glass opacities on high resolution CT scan
58
IPF xray
honeycombing, bibasilar infiltrates with fibrosis
59
cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
x-ray shows focal areas of consolidation that may migrate from one location to another
60
Pulmonary alveolar | proteinosis
Diagnosed via bronchoalveolar lavage, which shows abundant protein in the airspaces; chest CT shows “crazy paving” pattern
61
pna/HF vs dpld Patients with dyspnea for days or weeks
PNA or HF
62
alternatiive dx: dyspnea and pulmonary crackles but no other findings of HF
dpld
63
characteristic findings of IPF
Characteristic findings | are the gradual onset of a nonproductive cough and dyspnea over approximately 3 months in older adults
64
PE in IPF
normal temperature • bibasilar crackles (“dry,” end-inspiratory, and “Velcro-like” in quality) • late-phase cor pulmonale • clubbing (25% of patients)
65
IPF xray, CT scan and PFTs
Chest x-ray shows peripheral reticular opacities and honeycomb changes at the lung bases. HRCT scan reveals subpleural cystic changes and traction bronchiectasis.
66
Shoud you intubate or ventilate patient's with resp failure in IPF
No
67
lofgren syndrome
fever, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, EN, and often ankle arthritis
68
uveoparotid fever
featuring anterior uveitis, parotid gland enlargement, facial palsy, and fever)
69
hypercalcemia in sarcoid cause
extrarenal production of calcitriol by granuloma cells a
70
occupation with exposure to berrylium
light bulb or semiconductor factories)
71
patients with silicosis, fever, and cough should be tested for
tb
72
occupations at risk for asbestosis
construction industry, the automotive servicing industry, and the shipbuilding and repair industry.
73
the latent period for asbestosis is
10-15 years
74
what should also be excluded when finding pleural effusion in nephronic syndrome
PE and renal artery thrombosis
75
who should be screened for PH
1. SSc 2.liver transplantation candidates with portal hypertension 3, first-degree relatives of patients with familial PAH 4. patients with congenital heart disease with systemic-to-pulmonary shunts.
76
PH cut off
resting mean pulmonary arterial pressure of ≥25 mm Hg
77
PH 1-5
1. small pulmonary arterioles resulting in high pulmonary vascular resistance (PAH) 2. left sided CHF 3. Respiratory illness 4. CTEPH 5. unknown causes
78
drugs associated with PH
fenfluramine, amphetamines, and cocaine
79
4 types of testing for PH
* echocardiography as the initial study; a systolic pulmonary artery pressure >40 mm Hg is suggestive of PH * bubble contrast echocardiography or TEE is indicated to evaluate for intracardiac shunts (e.g., ASD) * right heart catheterization to confirm the diagnosis and quantify the degree of PH * left heart catheterization and coronary angiography exclude LV dysfunction as a cause of PH
80
testing for cteph
1. pulmonary arterial pressure ≥25 mm Hg in the absence of left-sided HF 2. compatible imaging evidence of chronic thromboembolism by V/Q scanning
81
most common cause of PH
left-sided heart disease and hypoxic respiratory disorders
82
Tx for group 1 PH
CCB for those with vasodilator resp on rh cath | Lung or heart-lung transplantation should be considered for patients in whom drug treatment is unsuccessful.
83
CTEPH tx
Life-long anticoagulant therapy is indicated in all patients with CTEPH. Pulmonary thromboendarterectomy is the only definitive therapy for CTEPH
84
3 most common causes of hemoptsysis
Bronchitis, bronchogenic carcinoma, and bronchiectasis
85
SOLID lung nodule: No (low-risk patient) <6 mm 6-8 mm >8 mm
1. No follow-up 2. CT at 6-12 months, then consider CT at 18-24 months 3. Consider CT at 3 months, PET/CT, or tissue sampling
86
SOLID lung nodule: High risk <6 mm 6-8 mm >8 mm
1. Optional CT at 12 months 2. CT at 6-12 months, then CT at 18-24 months 3. Consider CT at 3 months, PET/CT, or tissue sampling
87
Pure Ground Glass Lung nodule <6 mm ≥6 mm
1. No follow-up | 2. CT at 6-12 months to confirm persistence, then CT every 2 years until 5 years
88
Subsolid lung nodule <6 mm ≥6 mm
1. No follow-up 2. CT at 3-6 months to confirm persistence. If unchanged and solid component remains <6 mm, annual CT should be performed for 5 years
89
common medialstinal masses 1. anterior 2. middle 3. posterior
1. thymus, teratoma, lymphoma and thyroid 2. lymph nodes and cysts 3. neurogenic (schwannomma)
90
what AHI is positive on sleep study for osa
AHI of >5/h during a sleep study
91
High-altitude periodic breathing (HAPB) pathophys and signs
``` Hypoxia-induced hyperventilation lowers Pco2 toward the apneic threshold, decreasing respiratory rate, which raises Pco2 and results in recurrent hyperventilation ``` Repetitive arousals from sleep, often with paroxysms of dyspnea
92
Acute mountain sickness (AMS) pathophys and signs
Hypoxia and hypocarbia-induced alterations in cerebral blood flow Headache, fatigue, nausea, and vomiting, in addition to disturbed sleep related to HAPB
93
High-altitude cerebral edema (HACE) pathophys and signs
Brain edema at altitudes typically above 10,000-13,000 feet Confusion, irritability, ataxia, coma, and death
94
High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) pathophys and signs
PH and pulmonary edema Cough, dyspnea at rest, pink frothy sputum, hemoptysis, and pulmonary crackles
95
prevention and tx of altitude illness
Prevention- ascend slowly - Acetazolamide accelerates the acclimatization. Acetazolamide, dexamethasone, and supplemental oxygen are used to treat AMS. Definitive treatment for HACE is immediate descent from altitude; dexamethasone, supplemental oxygen, and hyperbaric therapy may also be used. The HAPE treatment of choice is supplemental oxygen and rest.
96
PFTs in neuromuscular disorders
pulmonary function tests show restriction on spirometry and lung volume measurement but normal diffusing capacity
97
mild moderare severe ards cut off
Mild ARDS Arterial Po2/Fio2 ratio of 201-300 mm Hg, measured with PEEP ≥5 cm H2O Moderate ARDS Arterial Po2/Fio2 ratio of 101-200 mm Hg, measured with PEEP ≥5 cm H2O Severe ARDS Arterial Po2/Fio2 ratio of ≤100 mm Hg, measured with PEEP ≥5 cm H2o
98
Diffuse alveolar | hemorrhage characteristics
Acute kidney injury with microscopic or gross hematuria or other evidence of vasculitis present Associated with stem cell transplantation Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid
99
acute eosinophilic pneumonia
Cough, fever, pleuritic chest pain, and myalgia; may be precipitated by initiation of smoking >15% eosinophils in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid
100
Hypersensitivity | pneumonitis characteristics
slower onset than ards mimicks ards exposure farmers, birds, hot tubs
101
Cryptogenic organizing | pneumonia
May be precipitated by viral syndrome Slower onset than ARDS (>2 weeks) with progressive course; however, may present in an advanced stage, mimicking ARDS
102
when starting nppv how do you know if tx is working
Improvements in blood gas values and clinical condition should occur within 2 hours of starting NPPV. If not, intubation should be considered to avoid undue delay and prevent respiratory arrest
103
how to tell auto peep on ventalator
flow tracing on the ventilator shows continuous expiratory flow until the start of inspiratory flow
104
causes and findings in auto peep
COPD or acute asthma, ARDS (increased flow resistance), and a high minute ventilation (>12-15 L/min). Characteristic findings are wheezing and marked expiratory prolongation, drop in BP, and patient restlessnes
105
how to improve auto peep
* treat airway obstruction (e.g., bronchodilators in COPD or asthma) * decrease the respiratory rate or tidal volume * increase the inspiratory flow rate (shorten inspiratory time) * prolong the expiratory time * allow permissive hypercapnia * sedate and/or paralyze the patient
106
how to improve respiratory | acidosis on vent
↓ Arterial Pco2 Increasing respiratory rate Increasing tidal volume: in volume control mode, directly choose the tidal volume; in pressure control mode, increase the inspiratory support pressure to increase tidal volume
107
Improve respiratory | alkalosis on vent
↑ Arterial Pco2 Decreasing respiratory rate Decreasing tidal volume
108
Improve tissue | oxygenation on vent
↑ O2 saturation, arterial Po2 Increasing Fio2 Increasing PEEP
109
when can you extubate
When a patient can maintain an arterial O2 saturation >90% breathing Fio2 ≤0.5, PEEP <5 cm H2O, and pH >7.30, it is reasonable to consider extubation . Paired daily spontaneous awakening trials (withdrawal of sedatives) with daily spontaneous breathing trials result in a reduction in mechanical ventilation time, ICU and hospital length of stay, and 1-year mortality rates.
110
Cardiogenic shock
Low cardiac output, elevated PCWP, and high SVR
111
Hypovolemic shock
Low cardiac output, low PCWP, and high SVR
112
Obstructive shock
Low cardiac output, variable PCWP, and high SVR
113
Anaphylactic shock
High cardiac output, normal PCWP, and low SVR
114
Septic shock
High cardiac output (early) that can become depressed (late) and low SVR
115
Malignant hyperthermia suggestive history, signs and treatment
Exposure to volatile anesthetic (halothane isoflurane, succinylcholine, or decamethonium) Masseter muscle rigidity; ↑ arterial Pco2 Stop the inciting drug Dantrolene
116
neuroleptic malignant syndrome suggestive history, signs and tx
Haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone or withdrawal from L-dopa; onset over days to weeks Altered mentation, severe rigidity, ↑ HR, ↑ BP, no clonus, ↓ reflexes Stop the inciting drug Dantrolene Bromocriptine
117
serotonin syndrome
Onset within 24 h of initiation or increasing dose Agitation, rigidity, clonus, ↑ reflexes Stop the inciting drug Benzodiazepines Cyproheptadine
118
what sbp should you aim for in severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, or pheochromocytoma htn crisis in first hour
140
119
what sbp should you aim for in aortic dissection in the first hour
120
120
dosing of epi in anaphalaxis vs anaphalactic shock
• IM or subcutaneous epinephrine (0.3-0.5 mg of 1:1000) is first-line treatment for classic anaphylaxis. IV epinephrine (1:10,000) is reserved for anaphylactic shock or refractory symptoms
121
how can you tell apart bradykinin angioedema from mast cell or allergic cause
bradykinin angioedema doesnt normally cause uticaria
122
lab studies to differentiate Hereditary angioedema Acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency ACE inhibitor effect Medication history
Low C1 inhibitor and C4 levels (fam hx) Low C1q levels (in addition to low C4 and C1 inhibitor levels) (lymphoma,sle, mgus) Low C1 inhibitor and C4 levels (med hx)
123
tx for mast cell mediated angioedema
Select epinephrine, antihistamines, and glucocorticoids for acute episodes of mast cell–mediated (allergic) angioedema with airway compromise or hypotension. Patients should carry an epinephrine autoinjector
124
tx for c1 deficiency angioedema
bradykinin mediated angioedema (hereditary or acquired angioedema); use FFP in an emergency. For long-term management of hereditary angioedema, select danazol and stanozolol to elevate hepatic synthesis of C1 esterase inhibitor protein.
125
along with co exposure during fires what else can patient be at risk for
cyanide poisoning coexposure
126
what normal lab finding would exclude cyonide exposure
a normal ldh
127
tx for cyanide tox
hydroxocobalamin
128
Toxic tx for the following 1. Acetaminophen 2. Benzodiazepines 3. β-Adrenergic blockers 4. Calcium channel blockers 5. Digoxin 6. Heparin 7. Narcotics 9. Salicylates 10. Tricyclic antidepressants-
1. N-acetylcysteine 2. Observation; flumazenil 3. Glucagon, calcium chloride, pacing 4. Atropine, calcium, glucagon, pacing 5. Digoxin-immune fab 6. Protamine sulfate 7. Naloxone 8. Urine alkalinization, hemodialysis 9. Blood alkalinization, α-agonist
129
level to diagnose sever acute carbon monoxide poisoning
A carboxyhemoglobin level >25% in any patient is diagnostic of severe acute carbon monoxide poisoning.
130
tx for co poisoning
Normobaric oxygen therapy is the treatment of choice. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is indicated for patients with severe carbon monoxide poisoning
131
Sympathomimetic tox symptoms
Tachycardia Hypertension Diaphoresis Agitation Seizures Mydriasis
132
examples of sympathomimetic
Cocaine Amphetamines Ephedrine Caffeine
133
tx for sympathomimetic tox
Benzodiazepines for agitation Avoid β-blockers for hypertension Haloperidol may worsen hyperthermia
134
Cholinergic tox signs
“SLUDGE” Confusion Bronchorrhea Bradycardia Miosis
135
cholinergic examples
Organophosphates (insecticides, sarin) | Carbamates Physostigmine Edrophonium Nicotine
136
cholinergic tox tx
Organophosphates poisoning requires external decontamination Atropine May require ventilatory support Add pralidoxime for CNS toxicity Benzodiazepines for convulsions
137
Anticholinergic tox signs
Hyperthermia Dry skin and mucous membranes Agitation, delirium Tachycardia, tachypnea Hypertension Mydriasis
138
anticholinergic examples
Antihistamines Tricyclic antidepressants Antiparkinson agents Atropine Scopolamine
139
anticholinergic tx
Physostigmine for those with peripheral and CNS symptoms | Benzodiazepines for agitation May require ventilatory support
140
Opioid tox signs Naloxone
Miosis Respiratory depression Lethargy, confusion Hypothermia Bradycardia Hypotension
141
tx for opiates
naloxone