Pulmonology Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What type of lung disease is assessed by FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

Obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the diagnostic value of FEV1/FVC for obstructive lung disease?

A

< 0.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of lung disease has a concave scooping in the lung tracing in the latter half of expiration?

A

Obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is a bronchoprovocation challenge indicated?

A

Patient with initial normal spirometry testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the the three factors that cause variation in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Temperature
Acidosis (pH)
Phosphorus (2,3-DPG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment of methemoglobinemia?

A

100% O2

Methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of stridor in the newborn?

A

Laryngomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which nerve is affected in vocal cord paralysis?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What genetic syndrome would you be worried about with the finding of laryngeal webs?

A

DiGeorge syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What condition would you suspect in a newborn where trachea cannot be intubated even though larynx is visualized?

A

Tracheal agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which lobe is typically involved with lobar emphysema?

A

Left upper lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Scimitar Syndrome

A

Congenital Pulmonary Venolobar Syndrome

- Pulmonary venous blood from R lung returns to IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of shunt is Scimitar Syndrome?

A

L to R shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common cause of pulmonary arteriovenous malformations?

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)

OR Osler Weber Rendu syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two classifications of pulmonary sequestrations?

A

Intralobar and extralobar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Are intralobar pulmonary sequestrations typically in the upper or lower lobes of the lungs?

A

Lower lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Are extralobar pulmonary sequestrations on the R or L side typically?

A

L side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment of choice of pulmonary sequestrations?

A

Surgical removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the most common cysts in infancy?

A

Bronchogenic cysts

20
Q

Are bronchgenic cysts moreso on the right or left?

A

Right

Single, unilocular

21
Q

What is the management of bronchogenic cysts?

A

Surgical removal

22
Q

What is eventration?

A

Marked elevation of the diaphragm

23
Q

What is the main virus responsible for croup?

A

Parainfluenza

24
Q

How long does racemic epi last?

25
Virus most commonly causing bronchiolitis
RSV
26
Which patients require the RSV vaccine (Synagis)?
Children < 2 y/o with chronic lung disease or congenital heart disease or infants < 29 weeks gestation in 1st winter
27
T/F: Synagis should be discontinued if a patient receiving it acquires RSV
True
28
In what setting are blood cultures recommended for pneumonia?
Inpatient, for severe pneumonia
29
What are the values of pH, glucose, pleural fluid:serum glucose ratio & LDH that would be concerning for empyema?
pH < 7.30 glucose < 40 PF:SG ratio < 0.5 LDH > 1000
30
What are the most common complications from S. pyogenes pneumonia?
Abscesses and empyema
31
Which two bacteria should you be concerned about fora pneumonia with evidence of pneumatoceles on CXR?
S. pyogenes | S. aureus
32
What is the definitive diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
IgM antibody | Possible cold agglutinin titer
33
What is the treatment of histoplasmosis if persistent localized disease?
Itraconazole
34
What is the treatment of disseminated histoplasmosis?
Amphotericin B
35
Which fungus has a sputum sample showing a large, single, broad-based budding yeast?
Blastomycosis
36
What is the treatment of indolent blastomycosis? Disseminated?
Indolent- Itraconazole | Disseminated- Amphotericin B
37
What fungal infection should you expect in patient with asthma, with worsening symptoms and brown mucous plugs w/ peripheral eosinphilia?
ABPA
38
What is the treatment of ABPA?
Itraconazole | Steroids
39
Gram positive diplococci seen in sputum sample w/ large number of PMNs and few epithelial cells most likely indicates which organism?
Strep pneumo
40
What are the extrapulmonary manifestations of Mycoplasma pneumonia?
Hemolytic anemia, splenomegaly, erythema multiforme, arthritis, pharyngitis, confusion
41
What is the mechanism of action of Omalizumab?
Blocks IgE receptors
42
What viral illness particularly puts kids at risk for Bronchiolitis Obliterans
Adenovirus
43
How is bronchiolitis obliterans diagnosed?
Lung biopsy
44
What is the gold standard for diagnosis of bronchiectasis?
HRCT- high resolution CT
45
T/F: Prematurity is a risk factor for SIDS
True
46
Are boys or girls more commonly affected by SIDS?
Boys
47
What are the sodium and chloride concentrations in a CF patient’s sweat?
>60 meq/L