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PYQ Flashcards

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1
Q

Thalassemia ki dhoroner disease?

A

Autosomal recessive disease
( hereditary haemolytic anemia)

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2
Q

Thalassemia er kon system er disease?

A

Hematology

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3
Q

Thalassemia er common somossa ki ki?

A

PLF PRP
Progressive Pallor, requiring early transfusion
Lethargy and effort intolerance
Failure to thrive and growth retardation
Problems in movement and abdominal discomfort because of massive splenomegaly , hepatomegaly
Recurrent infection
Psychological depression
Features of Complications- respiratory distress due to anemic heart failure , gum bleeding, epistaxis due to hypersplenism , pathological fracture, islets of langerhans - diabetes mellitus, liver - cld

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4
Q

Thalassemia er inv ki?

A
  • Complete blood count
  • Hemoglobin electrophoresis
  • Iron studies
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5
Q

Thalassemia er rx ki?

A
  • Blood transfusions
  • Iron chelation therapy
  • Folic acid supplements
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6
Q

AF ECG ki?

A

Atrial fibrillation

Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and often rapid heart rate that can increase the risk of strokes, heart failure, and other heart-related complications.

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7
Q

CKD er cause ki ki?

A

[DIG HSC RU]
Diabetes mellitus
Interstitial Disease
Glomerular Disease
Hypertension
Systemic inflammatory disease ( SLE, Vasculitis)
Congenital and inherited ( polycystic kidney disease, Alport syndrome )
Renal artery stenosis
Unknown

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8
Q

Anemia CKD te keno hoy?

A

Decreased erythropoietin production

Chronic kidney disease leads to reduced production of erythropoietin, which is essential for red blood cell production.

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9
Q

Common infectious disease er nam bolo?

A
  • Tuberculosis
  • HIV
  • Hepatitis
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10
Q

Sputum AFB ar Gene Expert er majhe difference ki?

A
  • Sputum AFB: Microscopic examination for acid-fast bacilli
  • Gene Expert: Molecular test for rapid detection of TB
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11
Q

Tinea theke ki ki disease pawa jaye?

A
  • Tinea corporis
  • Tinea capitis
  • Tinea pedis
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12
Q

Newer antifungal drug er udaharan ki?

A
  • Voriconazole
  • Posaconazole
  • Isavuconazole
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13
Q

HIV er arek nam ki?

A

Antiretroviral virus (ARV)

HIV is often treated with antiretroviral therapy (ART).

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14
Q

Anxiety disorder er criteria ki ki?

A
  • Excessive worry
  • Difficulty controlling worry
  • Physical symptoms (e.g., restlessness, fatigue)
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15
Q

Common parasitic skin disease er nam bolo?

A
  • Scabies
  • Lice infestation
  • Cutaneous leishmaniasis
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16
Q

PKDL ar leprosy er lesion er majhe difference ki?

A
  • PKDL: Macular or nodular lesions
  • Leprosy: Hypopigmented patches with loss of sensation
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17
Q

X-ray te pleural effusion er d/d ki ki?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Malignancy
  • Tuberculosis
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18
Q

Enteric fever er complications ki ki?

A
  • Intestinal perforation
  • Gastrointestinal bleeding
  • Septicemia
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19
Q

Cholera saline er composition ki?

A
  • Sodium chloride
  • Potassium chloride
  • Glucose
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20
Q

Bone marrow needle er indication ki?

A
  • Hematological disorders
  • Unexplained anemia
  • Leukemia diagnosis
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21
Q

ITP er bone marrow finding ki?

A

Increased megakaryocytes

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by low platelet counts and increased megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.

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22
Q

Megakaryocyte ar megakaryopoiesis er majhe difference ki?

A
  • Megakaryocyte: Large bone marrow cell that produces platelets
  • Megakaryopoiesis: The process of megakaryocyte development
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23
Q

Vitamin A er dose ki?

A

100,000 IU for children under 5

Vitamin A supplementation is crucial in preventing blindness and reducing mortality in children.

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24
Q

Growth stunting er karon ki ki?

A
  • Immunodeficiency
  • Chronic infections
  • Nutritional deficiencies
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25
Thalassemia patient er d/d ki ki?
* Iron deficiency anemia * Sickle cell disease * Anemia of chronic disease
26
Bronchial carcinoma er common symptoms ki ki?
* Persistent cough * Hemoptysis * Weight loss
27
Jaundice er types ki ki?
* Pre-hepatic * Hepatic * Post-hepatic
28
Jaundice er normal value ki?
Total bilirubin level < 1.2 mg/dL ## Footnote Jaundice is typically defined by elevated bilirubin levels.
29
Heat syncope ki?
Fainting due to heat exposure ## Footnote Heat syncope occurs when the body overheats, leading to a drop in blood pressure and fainting.
30
Gout er symptoms ki ki?
* Sudden joint pain * Swelling * Redness
31
Chronic osteomyelitis er complications ki ki?
* Bone necrosis * Sepsis * Pathologic fractures
32
Hydrocele keno hoy?
Accumulation of fluid in the scrotal sac ## Footnote Hydrocele is often caused by inflammation or injury to the scrotum.
33
Breast lump er assessment er triple assessment ki?
* Clinical examination * Imaging (e.g., ultrasound) * Biopsy
34
Electrocautery chara scalp injury er bleeding kemon control korba?
Direct pressure and suturing ## Footnote Direct pressure is the first-line method for controlling bleeding.
35
Keloid er definition ki?
Raised scar due to excessive collagen formation ## Footnote Keloids extend beyond the original injury site and can be itchy or painful.
36
Schizophrenia er symptoms ki ki?
* Hallucinations * Delusions * Disorganized thinking
37
Endocrine disease er nam bolo?
* Diabetes mellitus * Hyperthyroidism * Addison's disease
38
Dengue er bedside test ki?
NS1 antigen test ## Footnote The NS1 antigen test is used for early diagnosis of dengue fever.
39
Neonatal jaundice er common causes ki ki?
* Physiological jaundice * Breastfeeding jaundice * Hemolytic disease
40
Rickets er X-ray findings ki?
* Metaphyseal widening * Osteopenia * Fractures
41
Vitamin D er source ki ki?
* Sunlight * Fatty fish * Fortified foods
42
Jaundice dekhao, cause, type, normal level koto?
Jaundice causes include: * Prehepatic * Hepatic * Posthepatic ## Footnote Normal levels for bilirubin are typically less than 1.2 mg/dL.
43
Pleural effusion er cause ki?
Causes of pleural effusion include: * Congestive heart failure * Pneumonia * Malignancy * Pulmonary embolism
44
Edema dekhao, cause bolo.
Causes of edema include: * Heart failure * Kidney disease * Liver disease * Venous insufficiency
45
Nephotic syndrome er diagnosis kivabe korba?
Diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome includes: * Urinalysis * Serum albumin * Serum creatinine * 24-hour urine protein
46
CCF er findings ki paaba?
Findings in congestive cardiac failure (CCF) include: * Dyspnea * Orthopnea * Edema * Jugular venous distension
47
Rickets er x-ray ki dekhao?
X-ray findings in rickets include: * Fraying of metaphyses * Cupping of metaphyses * Widening of growth plates
48
Scurvy er clinical feature ki?
Clinical features of scurvy include: * Swollen gums * Bruising * Fatigue * Joint pain
49
Down syndrome er feature ki?
Features of Down syndrome include: * Hypotonia * Distinctive facial features * Short stature * Developmental delays
50
Bone marrow aspiration needle er kaj ki?
Bone marrow aspiration needle is used for: * Obtaining bone marrow samples * Diagnosing hematological disorders
51
Genital ulcer er cause ki?
Causes of genital ulcers include: * Syphilis * Herpes simplex virus * Chancroid * Behçet's disease
52
Acute ST elevated MI er ECG findings ki?
ECG findings in acute ST elevated myocardial infarction include: * ST segment elevation * Pathological Q waves * T wave inversion
53
Urethral discharge er cause ki?
Causes of urethral discharge include: * Gonorrhea * Chlamydia * Urethritis * Prostatitis
54
Dementia er definition ki?
Dementia is defined as: * A decline in cognitive function that interferes with daily life
55
Thalassemia te growth retardation keno hoi?
Growth retardation in thalassemia is due to: * Chronic hemolysis * Iron overload * Nutritional deficiencies
56
Congenital hypothyroidism er investigation ki korba?
Investigations for congenital hypothyroidism include: * TSH levels * Free T4 levels * Newborn screening
57
Hematemesis er management ki?
Management of hematemesis includes: * Fluid resuscitation * Blood transfusion * Endoscopy for source control
58
Heat syncope ki, keno hoi?
Heat syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness due to: * Dehydration * Vasodilation in high temperatures
59
Anemia er cause ki ki?
Causes of anemia include: * Iron deficiency * Vitamin B12 deficiency * Chronic disease * Hemolytic anemia
60
Dengue er danger signs ki ki?
Danger signs of dengue include: * Severe abdominal pain * Persistent vomiting * Rapid breathing * Bleeding gums
61
Childhood psychiatric disease er naam bolo.
Common childhood psychiatric diseases include: * Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) * Autism Spectrum Disorder * Anxiety Disorders
62
Down syndrome er somossa ki?
Problems associated with Down syndrome include: * Cardiac defects * Thyroid disorders * Hearing loss
63
Heat related disease ki ki?
Heat related diseases include: * Heat exhaustion * Heat stroke * Heat cramps
64
Scurvy er treatment ki?
Treatment for scurvy includes: * Vitamin C supplementation * Dietary modifications
65
Pregnancy with hypertension e ki ki drug dibo?
Drugs for pregnancy with hypertension include: * Methyldopa * Labetalol * Nifedipine
66
Kono disease e hallucination thake?
Diseases that may present with hallucinations include: * Schizophrenia * Delirium * Severe depression
67
Neonatal jaundice er cause ki?
Causes of neonatal jaundice include: * Physiological jaundice * Hemolytic disease * Breastfeeding jaundice
68
What is the complication associated with measles?
Encephalitis, pneumonia, and otitis media. ## Footnote Measles can lead to serious complications, especially in young children and individuals with weakened immune systems.
69
What is the definition of a goiter?
An enlargement of the thyroid gland. ## Footnote Goiters can occur in both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism.
70
What are common skin diseases in children?
Scabies, eczema, and impetigo. ## Footnote These conditions often require different treatment approaches.
71
What is the treatment for scabies?
Permethrin cream and oral ivermectin. ## Footnote Treatment should be applied to all affected areas and household contacts.
72
What is the difference between chancre and herpes?
Chancre is a painless ulcer associated with syphilis, while herpes presents as painful vesicles. ## Footnote Both require different diagnostic and treatment approaches.
73
What is the primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI)?
Thrombolytics or primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). ## Footnote Timely treatment is crucial to restore blood flow to the heart.
74
What are the causes of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. ## Footnote Identifying the cause is essential for appropriate management.
75
What is the definition of heat stroke?
A severe condition resulting from prolonged exposure to high temperatures, leading to hyperthermia. ## Footnote It requires immediate medical intervention.
76
What findings are indicative of hepatomegaly?
Enlarged liver upon palpation, possible jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes. ## Footnote Hepatomegaly can result from various liver diseases.
77
What is the classification of jaundice?
Prehepatic, hepatic, and posthepatic. ## Footnote Each type has different underlying causes and implications.
78
What is the causative organism of pneumonia in children?
Streptococcus pneumoniae and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). ## Footnote Vaccination can help prevent certain types of pneumonia.
79
What is the definition of delirium?
An acute, fluctuating change in mental status and cognition. ## Footnote It can be caused by various medical conditions, medications, or substance withdrawal.
80
Fill in the blank: The most common cause of chronic liver disease (CLD) is _______.
Chronic viral hepatitis. ## Footnote Other causes include alcohol abuse and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
81
What is the definition of status epilepticus?
A prolonged seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or recurrent seizures without recovery in between. ## Footnote It is a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment.
82
What is the treatment for nephrotic syndrome?
Corticosteroids and diuretics. ## Footnote Management may also include addressing underlying causes.
83
What are the features of hepatic encephalopathy?
Confusion, altered level of consciousness, and asterixis. ## Footnote It occurs due to liver failure and toxin accumulation.
84
What is the primary investigation for gonorrhea?
Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs). ## Footnote Culture can also be performed but is less sensitive.
85
What are the differences between gonococcal and non-gonococcal urethritis?
Gonococcal is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, while non-gonococcal can be due to Chlamydia trachomatis or other organisms. ## Footnote Treatment regimens differ based on the causative agent.
86
What are the common causes of recurrent falls in older adults?
Muscle weakness, vision problems, and medications. ## Footnote Identifying these factors can help reduce fall risk.
87
What is the definition of dementia?
A progressive cognitive decline affecting daily functioning. ## Footnote Alzheimer's disease is the most common type of dementia.
88
What is the indication for exchange transfusion in newborns?
Severe hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) or significant hyperbilirubinemia. ## Footnote This procedure helps to reduce bilirubin levels quickly.
89
What is the most common genetic disorder in pediatrics?
Cystic fibrosis. ## Footnote Early diagnosis and management can improve quality of life.
90
What is the definition of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A progressive lung disease characterized by airflow limitation. ## Footnote It includes conditions like emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
91
What is the treatment for an acute exacerbation of COPD?
Bronchodilators and corticosteroids. ## Footnote Antibiotics may be indicated if there is a bacterial infection.
92
What is the definition of anaphylaxis?
A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. ## Footnote It requires immediate treatment with epinephrine.
93
What is the role of the AMBU bag?
To provide positive pressure ventilation in patients who are not breathing adequately. ## Footnote It is commonly used in emergencies.
94
What is the definition of acute viral hepatitis?
An inflammation of the liver caused by viral infection, presenting with jaundice and elevated liver enzymes. ## Footnote It can be caused by hepatitis A, B, C, D, or E viruses.
95
What are the common symptoms of pneumonia?
Cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. ## Footnote Symptoms may vary based on the age of the patient and the causative organism.
96
What is the definition of TIA (transient ischemic attack)?
A temporary period of symptoms similar to those of a stroke. ## Footnote TIAs are often a warning sign for future strokes.
97
What is the main cause of pleural effusion?
Congestive heart failure, pneumonia, and malignancy. ## Footnote The underlying cause must be identified for appropriate treatment.
98
Fill in the blank: The most common endocrine disorder is _______.
Diabetes Mellitus. ## Footnote This condition has significant public health implications.
99
What is the definition of diarrhea?
Diarrhea is defined as the condition of having three or more loose or liquid bowel movements per day.
100
What are the types of dehydration?
* Mild dehydration * Moderate dehydration * Severe dehydration
101
What is the treatment for severe dehydration?
Severe dehydration treatment typically includes intravenous fluids to restore hydration.
102
What is the main cause of edema in lower limbs?
The main cause of edema in lower limbs can be related to heart failure, kidney issues, or venous insufficiency.
103
Describe the lesions of psoriasis.
Psoriasis lesions are characterized by red patches covered with thick, silvery scales.
104
What is the treatment for psoriasis?
* Topical treatments * Phototherapy * Systemic medications
105
What are the complications of psoriasis?
* Psoriatic arthritis * Increased risk of cardiovascular disease * Depression
106
What changes can occur in the nails due to psoriasis?
Nail changes in psoriasis may include pitting, discoloration, and separation from the nail bed.
107
What is thalassemia?
Thalassemia is a hereditary blood disorder characterized by decreased hemoglobin production.
108
What is the definition of status epilepticus?
Status epilepticus is defined as a continuous seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or recurrent seizures without recovery between them.
109
What is the treatment for status epilepticus?
* Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam) * Antiepileptic drugs (e.g., phenytoin)
110
What are the common causes of pleural effusion?
* Congestive heart failure * Pneumonia * Malignancy
111
What are the common endocrine diseases?
* Diabetes Mellitus * Hypothyroidism * Hyperthyroidism
112
What is the most common acute complication of diabetes mellitus?
Hypoglycemia is often considered more dangerous than diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
113
What is the agent that causes scabies?
Scabies is caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei.
114
What are the common treatments for scabies?
* Permethrin cream * Ivermectin
115
What are the types of rickets?
* Nutritional rickets * Renal rickets * Hypophosphatemic rickets
116
What is the definition of purpura?
Purpura is defined as purple spots or patches on the skin caused by bleeding underneath.
117
What is ITP and its treatment?
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a bleeding disorder; treatment may include corticosteroids or immunoglobulins.
118
What are the key features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
* Muscle weakness * Progression in early childhood * X-linked inheritance
119
What is the assessment for severe dehydration?
Assessment for severe dehydration includes checking for signs like dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and lethargy.
120
What are the features of jaundice?
Features of jaundice include yellowing of the skin and eyes, dark urine, and pale stools.
121
What is the definition of hepatic encephalopathy?
Hepatic encephalopathy is a decline in brain function due to severe liver disease.
122
What are the features of acute viral hepatitis?
* Fatigue * Jaundice * Elevated liver enzymes
123
What is the definition of congenital hypothyroidism?
Congenital hypothyroidism is a condition present at birth where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone.
124
What are the common findings in patients with hemophilia?
* Prolonged bleeding * Easy bruising * Joint pain from bleeding
125
What factors are involved in hemophilia A and B?
* Factor VIII deficiency in hemophilia A * Factor IX deficiency in hemophilia B
126
What is the treatment for acute inferior myocardial infarction?
* Aspirin * Antiplatelet agents * Thrombolytics
127
What are the complications of myocardial infarction?
* Arrhythmias * Heart failure * Cardiogenic shock
128
What are the signs of a stroke?
* Sudden numbness or weakness * Confusion * Difficulty speaking
129
What is the role of the bone marrow aspiration needle?
Bone marrow aspiration is used to obtain a sample for diagnosis of blood disorders.
130
What is the significance of glycosylated hemoglobin?
Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) is used to assess long-term glucose control in diabetes.
131
What are common treatments for anxiety disorders?
* Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) * SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)
132
What are the key features of schizophrenia?
* Hallucinations * Delusions * Disorganized thinking
133
What is the primary cause of neonatal jaundice?
Increased bilirubin levels in the blood. ## Footnote Common causes include Rh incompatibility, ABO incompatibility, and physiological jaundice.
134
What is Rh incompatibility?
A condition where the mother has Rh-negative blood and the baby has Rh-positive blood, leading to hemolysis. ## Footnote It often occurs in a second pregnancy if the first baby was Rh-positive.
135
Why does Rh incompatibility not occur in the first baby?
The mother has not yet been sensitized to Rh-positive blood. ## Footnote Sensitization typically occurs during delivery or after a miscarriage.
136
How can you diagnose tuberculosis (TB) in children?
Through clinical evaluation, chest X-ray, and Tuberculin skin test or interferon-gamma release assays. ## Footnote Diagnosis may also include sputum tests if the child is old enough to produce it.
137
What is the procedure for making Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS)?
Mix 1 liter of clean water with 6 teaspoons of sugar and half a teaspoon of salt. ## Footnote ORS is used to prevent dehydration from diarrhea.
138
In diarrhea, which fluids should be avoided?
Sugary drinks, fruit juices, and caffeinated beverages. ## Footnote These can worsen dehydration and should not be used as rehydration solutions.
139
What are the ECG findings in Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI)?
May show ST segment depression and/or T-wave inversions. ## Footnote These findings indicate myocardial ischemia.
140
Define acromegaly.
A hormonal disorder that results from excess growth hormone, leading to enlarged bones and tissues. ## Footnote It is often caused by a pituitary adenoma.
141
What is Cushing's syndrome?
A condition caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol. ## Footnote Symptoms include weight gain, hypertension, and changes in skin appearance.
142
What are some common endocrine diseases?
* Diabetes Mellitus * Thyroid disorders * Adrenal disorders * Pituitary disorders * Hyperparathyroidism ## Footnote Each of these conditions has specific diagnostic criteria and management strategies.
143
What is the difference between hallucination, illusion, and delusion?
* Hallucination: Perception without an external stimulus * Illusion: Misinterpretation of a real external stimulus * Delusion: Strong belief in something false despite evidence ## Footnote Understanding these terms is crucial in psychiatric evaluations.
144
What are some heat-related diseases?
* Heat cramps * Heat exhaustion * Heat stroke ## Footnote These conditions can arise from prolonged exposure to high temperatures.
145
What investigations are necessary for unilateral pleural effusion?
* Chest X-ray * Ultrasound * CT scan * Thoracentesis ## Footnote These tests help determine the cause and nature of the effusion.
146
What is the difference between gonorrhea and non-gonococcal urethritis?
Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, while non-gonococcal urethritis can be caused by various other pathogens. ## Footnote Diagnosis and treatment differ based on the causative agent.
147
What are the common causes of hallucinations?
* Substance abuse * Neurological disorders * Severe mental illness * Sleep deprivation ## Footnote Identifying the underlying cause is essential for treatment.
148
What is the procedure for a lumbar puncture?
Position the patient in a lateral recumbent position, identify the puncture site, and insert the needle into the subarachnoid space. ## Footnote This procedure is used to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis.
149
What are the findings in pyogenic meningitis?
* Elevated white blood cell count * Increased protein levels * Decreased glucose levels ## Footnote CSF analysis is crucial for diagnosis.
150
What are some complications of measles?
* Pneumonia * Encephalitis * Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis ## Footnote Measles can lead to serious health issues, especially in malnourished children.
151
What is the definition of polyarthritis?
Inflammation of five or more joints. ## Footnote It can be a feature of various rheumatologic conditions.
152
What is the most common cause of peripheral neuropathy?
Diabetes Mellitus. ## Footnote Other causes include alcohol abuse, infections, and inherited disorders.
153
What are the key features of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
* Hyperglycemia * Ketosis * Metabolic acidosis ## Footnote DKA is a serious complication of diabetes that requires immediate treatment.
154
What is the significance of HbA1c?
It reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. ## Footnote HbA1c is used to diagnose and monitor diabetes.
155
What is the treatment for hypertension in pregnancy?
Methyldopa, labetalol, or nifedipine are commonly used. ## Footnote Certain antihypertensive medications are contraindicated in pregnancy.
156
What is the primary investigation for suspected thyroid disease?
TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) level. ## Footnote This initial test helps determine thyroid function.
157
What are the common causes of splenomegaly?
* Infections * Hematologic diseases * Liver diseases * Malignancies ## Footnote Each cause may present with different clinical features.
158
What is the clinical significance of a thyroid bruit?
It may indicate increased blood flow due to hyperthyroidism or thyroid neoplasm. ## Footnote A thyroid bruit is a sign of increased vascularity.
159
What are the clinical findings in nephrotic syndrome?
* Proteinuria * Hypoalbuminemia * Edema * Hyperlipidemia ## Footnote Diagnosis is often confirmed through urinalysis and blood tests.
160
What are the most common infectious causes of lymphadenopathy?
* Viral infections (e.g., Epstein-Barr virus) * Bacterial infections (e.g., streptococcal) * Tuberculosis ## Footnote Lymphadenopathy can indicate systemic infection.
161
What is the difference between acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) and nephrotic syndrome?
AGN presents with hematuria and hypertension, while nephrotic syndrome presents with significant proteinuria and edema. ## Footnote Differentiating these conditions is crucial for management.
162
What are the common types of diabetes mellitus?
* Type 1 Diabetes * Type 2 Diabetes * Gestational Diabetes ## Footnote Each type has distinct pathophysiology and treatment protocols.
163
What is the management for acute asthma exacerbation?
Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) and systemic corticosteroids. ## Footnote Severe cases may require hospitalization and additional treatments.
164
What are the clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
* Malar rash * Joint pain * Fatigue * Hematologic abnormalities ## Footnote SLE can affect multiple organ systems.
165
What is the role of the anti-phospholipid antibody test?
It helps diagnose antiphospholipid syndrome, which can lead to recurrent miscarriages and thrombosis. ## Footnote This test is often used in patients with SLE.
166
What is the cause of cardiomegaly?
Various cardiovascular conditions, including hypertension and valvular heart disease. ## Footnote Cardiomegaly can be observed in conditions like myocardial infarction and heart failure.
167
Name some causes of dementia.
* Alzheimer's disease * Vascular dementia * Lewy body dementia * Frontotemporal dementia ## Footnote Dementia can result from a variety of neurological conditions.
168
What is a common name for a geriatric disease?
Dementia ## Footnote Other examples include Parkinson's disease and osteoporosis.
169
Name some autosomal dominant diseases.
* Huntington's disease * Marfan syndrome * Neurofibromatosis * Familial hypercholesterolemia ## Footnote These diseases often have a 50% chance of being passed to offspring.
170
What can cause peripheral neuropathy?
* Diabetes mellitus * Alcohol abuse * Vitamin deficiencies * Autoimmune diseases ## Footnote Peripheral neuropathy can also arise from infections and toxins.
171
Name some diseases presented with purpura.
* Thrombocytopenic purpura * Henoch-Schönlein purpura * Vasculitis * Infectious diseases like meningococcemia ## Footnote Purpura can arise from various hematological or infectious causes.
172
What is the effect of rubella in pregnancy?
It can cause congenital rubella syndrome, leading to birth defects. ## Footnote These defects can include heart defects and developmental delays.
173
What is the recommended dose of the measles vaccine?
Typically, the first dose is given at 12-15 months and a second dose at 4-6 years. ## Footnote The specific dosage can vary by country and guidelines.
174
What is a common cause of sudden abdominal distension in a diarrhea patient?
Bowel obstruction ## Footnote This can occur due to severe dehydration or electrolyte imbalance.
175
What does an ECG show in anterior myocardial infarction?
ST elevation in the anterior leads (V1-V4). ## Footnote This finding is critical for diagnosing an acute myocardial infarction.
176
How can you determine if streptokinase is working in a patient?
By observing the resolution of ST elevation on ECG. ## Footnote Additionally, clinical improvement and reduced chest pain are indicators.
177
What are the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?
Blood glucose levels or HbA1c measurements. ## Footnote Fasting blood glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL or HbA1c ≥ 6.5% indicates diabetes.
178
What is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?
* Type 1: autoimmune destruction of beta cells * Type 2: insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency ## Footnote Type 1 usually occurs in younger individuals, while Type 2 is more common in adults.
179
What is the diagnosis for a woman presented with multiple small joint pain?
Rheumatoid arthritis ## Footnote Relevant investigations may include rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies.
180
What is the diagnosis for a 25-year-old woman with epistaxis, menorrhagia, and gum bleeding without thyroid abnormalities?
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) ## Footnote This condition is characterized by low platelet counts.
181
Classify fungal diseases.
* Superficial fungal infections * Subcutaneous fungal infections * Systemic fungal infections ## Footnote Classification is based on the depth of tissue involvement.
182
Name some systemic fungal diseases.
* Histoplasmosis * Coccidioidomycosis * Blastomycosis ## Footnote These infections can affect multiple organ systems.
183
What is a newer antifungal drug?
Isavuconazole ## Footnote This drug is used to treat invasive fungal infections.
184
What are some diseases that present with maculopapular rash?
* Measles * Rubella * Roseola ## Footnote These are viral infections that often present with characteristic rashes.
185
What is a common cause of severe hair loss, excluding alopecia?
Telogen effluvium ## Footnote Other causes may include stress, nutritional deficiencies, and hormonal changes.
186
What is the management for enteric fever?
Antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin or azithromycin. ## Footnote Fluid and electrolyte management is also important.
187
What are some relevant investigations for diabetes mellitus?
* Fasting blood glucose * HbA1c * Oral glucose tolerance test ## Footnote These tests help assess glucose metabolism.
188
What is the treatment for nephrotic syndrome?
Corticosteroids, diuretics, and dietary modifications. ## Footnote Immunosuppressive therapy may be required in some cases.
189
What are the clinical features of thalassemia?
* Anemia * Splenomegaly * Bone deformities ## Footnote Thalassemia can lead to significant morbidity if untreated.
190
What is a common complication of hypertension?
Heart failure ## Footnote Other complications include stroke and renal failure.
191
What is the definition of stroke?
A sudden loss of brain function due to a disturbance in the blood supply to the brain. ## Footnote This can be due to ischemia or hemorrhage.
192
What are the causes of peripheral neuropathy?
* Diabetes * Alcoholism * Vitamin deficiencies * Infections ## Footnote Peripheral neuropathy can also arise from toxins and autoimmune diseases.
193
What are the features of depression?
Symptoms include persistent sadness, loss of interest, fatigue, changes in sleep and appetite, difficulty concentrating, and feelings of worthlessness.
194
What is a common cause of bloody diarrhea?
Infections, inflammatory bowel disease, or gastrointestinal bleeding.
195
What are the risk factors for stroke?
* Hypertension * Diabetes * Hyperlipidemia * Smoking * Sedentary lifestyle * Obesity
196
What is clubbing and what causes it?
Clubbing is the enlargement of the fingertips and is often caused by chronic hypoxia, lung diseases, or heart defects.
197
What is the difference between heat stroke and heat exhaustion?
Heat stroke is a medical emergency with a body temperature over 104°F, while heat exhaustion involves heavy sweating and a body temperature that may be elevated but not critically high.
198
What are the causes of obesity?
* Genetics * Sedentary lifestyle * Poor diet * Metabolic factors * Psychological factors
199
What is the grading system for obesity?
* BMI < 18.5: Underweight * BMI 18.5-24.9: Normal weight * BMI 25-29.9: Overweight * BMI 30-34.9: Class 1 Obesity * BMI 35-39.9: Class 2 Obesity * BMI ≥ 40: Class 3 Obesity
200
Where is core temperature typically measured?
Core temperature is typically measured in the rectum, esophagus, or bladder.
201
What is the cause of syncope?
Syncope can be caused by vasovagal response, dehydration, arrhythmias, or cardiovascular issues.
202
What are the causes of periorbital swelling?
* Allergies * Infections * Trauma * Sinusitis * Nephrotic syndrome
203
How can measles be prevented?
Measles can be prevented through vaccination with the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine.
204
What are the causes of pleural effusion?
* Heart failure * Pneumonia * Malignancy * Pulmonary embolism * Tuberculosis
205
What are the symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder?
Symptoms include anhedonia, fatigue, changes in appetite, sleep disturbances, and suicidal thoughts.
206
What is the classification of antihypertensive drugs?
* Diuretics * ACE inhibitors * Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) * Calcium channel blockers * Beta-blockers
207
What are the WHO criteria for Diabetes Mellitus?
* Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL * 2-hour plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL during an OGTT * A1C ≥ 6.5% * Random plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL in a patient with classic symptoms
208
What are the complications of DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis)?
* Dehydration * Electrolyte imbalances * Cerebral edema * Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) * Arrhythmias
209
What types of lymphoma exist?
* Hodgkin lymphoma * Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
210
What is an oncogenic emergency?
* Tumor lysis syndrome * Spinal cord compression * Superior vena cava syndrome * Hypercalcemia
211
Name a virus that can cause carcinoma.
* Human Papillomavirus (HPV) * Hepatitis B virus (HBV) * Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
212
What vaccines are typically given to adults?
* Influenza * Tetanus-Diphtheria * Pertussis * Shingles * Pneumococcal
213
Why is the influenza vaccine given yearly?
The influenza virus mutates frequently, necessitating annual vaccination to provide effective protection.
214
How is the rabies vaccine administered?
The rabies vaccine is administered post-exposure in a series of doses.
215
Why is the HBV vaccine not given to certain patients?
The HBV vaccine is not given to patients who are already infected with the virus.
216
What is the clinical significance of clubbing in patients?
Clubbing can indicate chronic respiratory diseases, heart disease, or gastrointestinal disorders.
217
What are the cardinal features of psoriasis?
Cardinal features include erythematous plaques, silvery scales, and pruritus.
218
What are the complications of psoriasis?
* Psoriatic arthritis * Increased cardiovascular risk * Depression
219
What is exfoliative dermatitis?
Exfoliative dermatitis is a condition characterized by widespread inflammation and exfoliation of the skin.
220
What is HAART?
HAART stands for Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy, used in the treatment of HIV.
221
What are the ECG findings in Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?
Findings typically include a narrow QRS complex and rapid heart rate.
222
What are the ECG findings in Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)?
Findings typically include a wide QRS complex and can be life-threatening.
223
What is the treatment for DKA?
* Fluid replacement * Insulin therapy * Electrolyte management
224
What are the common symptoms of COPD with cor pulmonale?
Symptoms include dyspnea, fatigue, and peripheral edema.
225
What is the significance of palpation of the abdomen?
Palpation helps assess for tenderness, organomegaly, and masses.
226
What are the causes of spastic paraplegia?
* Multiple sclerosis * Cerebral palsy * Spinal cord injury
227
What findings indicate fibrosis on auscultation of the chest?
Findings may include crackles or decreased breath sounds.
228
What is the main mechanism of dependent edema?
Dependent edema typically results from venous insufficiency or heart failure.
229
What are some common causes of chronic diarrhea?
* Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) * Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) * Infectious causes
230
What is the clinical significance of a widened QRS complex on ECG?
A widened QRS complex may indicate ventricular conduction abnormalities or hyperkalemia.
231
What is the treatment for snake bites?
Treatment includes immobilization, antivenom administration, and supportive care.
232
What is the management for a patient with acute anterior extensive MI?
* Immediate reperfusion therapy * Antiplatelet agents * Beta-blockers
233
What are the features of nephrotic syndrome?
* Proteinuria * Hypoalbuminemia * Edema * Hyperlipidemia
234
What is the role of bone marrow aspiration?
Bone marrow aspiration is used to assess hematologic disorders and obtain samples for analysis.
235
What are the signs of liver cirrhosis?
* Jaundice * Ascites * Hepatomegaly * Encephalopathy
236
What is the significance of a flapping tremor?
A flapping tremor may indicate hepatic encephalopathy.
237
What are the common presentations of autoimmune blistering diseases?
* Blisters on skin and mucous membranes * Nikolsky sign positivity * Itching or pain
238
What are the clinical features of acute leukemia?
Features include fatigue, fever, bruising, and frequent infections.
239
What is the clinical significance of an umbilicus motor and sensory loss?
Loss may indicate spinal cord lesions or peripheral nerve damage.
240
What are the common treatments for pneumonia?
* Antibiotics * Supportive care * Oxygen therapy if needed
241
What is the management of hypercalcemia?
* Hydration * Bisphosphonates * Calcitonin
242
What is the most common cause of hydrothorax?
* Heart failure
243
What are the clinical features of cardiac tamponade?
* Dyspnea * Hypotension * Jugular venous distension
244
What is the significance of a high AFP level?
A high alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level may indicate liver cancer or germ cell tumors.
245
What is the treatment for tuberculosis?
* RIPE therapy (Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol)
246

Medicine (2 decks)

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