Q/A Flashcards

1
Q

Why does throglossal fistula develop?

A

Due to incomplete cyst removal

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2
Q

In which condition is a prophylactic thyroidectomy indicated?

A

Medullary Carcinoma

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3
Q

Which condition is associated with sardonic grin?

A

Tetanus

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4
Q

Which nerves supply mucosa of larynx?

A

Internal laryngeal and recurrent laryngeal

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5
Q

Which vertebrae does the larynx extend to and from?

A

C3-C6

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6
Q

Which part of the mandibular is the temporomandibular ligament attached to?

A

Lateral aspect of the tmj

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7
Q

Which substance is not given in bleeding cases in hemophiliac patients?

A

Platelet factor

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8
Q

Half-life of TGF-ß

A

3-5 mins

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9
Q

Haptoglobin Levels in hemolytic anemia are?

A

Decreased

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10
Q

What is the only oncogenic retrovirus?

A

HTLV1

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11
Q

Which nerves are involved in swallowing?

A

Trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, vagus

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12
Q

Which hormone best used to evaluate ovulation during menstrual cycle?

A

Progesterone

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13
Q

Drug of choice for prophylaxis during deep vein thrombosis?

A

Low molecular weight heparin

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14
Q

Drug of choice for patients suffering from nephrotic syndrome or glomerulonephritis

A

Corticosteroids such as prednisolone

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15
Q

Which group of anesthetic cannot be given to patients suffering from poor liver function?

A

Amides

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16
Q

How big is inorganic component percentage of bone?

A

65%

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17
Q

Which is the only larynx muscle to be situated outside of the larynx?

A

Cricothyroid

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18
Q

Which muscle is responsible for tensing and lengthening of vocal chords?

A

Cricothyroid

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19
Q

Which type of antagonism is present between acetylcholine and atropine?

A

Competitive

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20
Q

A patient who shows yellow sclera, dark colored urine and clay colored stool after a blood transfusion is an example of which kind of jaundice?

A

Obstructive jaundice

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21
Q

Which enzyme of gluconeogenesis is rich in mitochondria?

A

Pyruvate carboxylase

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22
Q

Propionyl Co A is formed by beta oxidation of

A

Odd chain fatty acid

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23
Q

Behavior of auriculotemporal nerve on the sweat glands and parotid glands

A

Sweat glands: sympathetic
Parotid: parasympathetic

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24
Q

Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood back to placenta

A

Umbilical artery

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25
Q

Which nerve causes gag reflex

A

9th

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26
Q

Which vitamin is especially given to improve nervous system function?

A

B6

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27
Q

Which type does the denar articulator belong to?

A

4

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28
Q

How many episodes of apnoea per hour to be recognized as severe?

A

> 30/hour

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29
Q

Effect of high calcium and magnesium in tap water on alginate setting time

A

Acceleration of setting time

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30
Q

When is the best time of dentition to modify growth?

A

Late mixed dentition

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31
Q

Which acute infection is represented by the symptoms of pseudomembrane on tonsils and gland enlargement?

A

Diptheria

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32
Q

Space between implant and teeth

A

1.5 mm

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33
Q

Space between adjacent implants

A

3 mm

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34
Q

Loss off color in self cure resins is due to what?

A

Oxidation of amines

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35
Q

Which bioceramic is resorbable?

A

Calcium phosphate

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36
Q

Verruca vulgaris is caused by which microorganism?

A

HPV

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37
Q

Half life of methyl methacrylate in blood

A

24 mins

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38
Q

Half life of methyl methacrylate in blood

A

24 mins

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39
Q

To be well visualized by scintigraphy, tumor size must be larger than

A

5 mm

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40
Q

Treatment of intruded tooth

A

< 3mm allow tooth to reerupt
>7mm surgical repositioning + splinting 4-8 weeks + endo

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41
Q

Indication for open, mesh and bead constructions

A

Open: multiple teeth
Mesh: multiple teeth, but open preferred
Bead: short, tooth supported constructions

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42
Q

What type of TMJ issue is managed by Leclerc procedure?

A

Dislocation

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43
Q

Ideal crown height space for fixed implant prosthesis

A

8-12 mm

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44
Q

In gypsum bonded investments, pickling is done using

A

50% HCl

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45
Q

When was ICDAS established?

A

2002

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46
Q

Which bodies are usually found along infected extracted tooth?

A

Russell bodies

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47
Q

A tumor occurring mostly in females between the maxillary lateral incisor and canine

A

Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

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48
Q

How long before procedure should custom tray fabricated with PMMA be made?

A

8 hours

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49
Q

Respiratory distress after thyroidectomy is due to which nerve damage?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

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50
Q

In which part of an implant are microthreads placed?

A

Collar

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51
Q

At which factor 8 concentration can surgery be performed on a hemophilic patient?

A

50-100%

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52
Q

Growth of teeth except for last molar are complete by which age?

A

17

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53
Q

When does enamel completion take place in primary cuspid?

A

9 months after birth

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54
Q

Water content in enamel by volume

A

6-7%

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55
Q

Which cephalosporin is not active against pseudomonas?

A

Cefaclor

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56
Q

Which cephalosporin is active against pseudomonas?

A

Cefoperazone

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57
Q

What does cyclosporine inhibit?

A

Interleukin-6

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58
Q

Which nucleus controls salivation of parotid gland?

A

Inferior salivatory nucleus

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59
Q

Safest site for intramuscular injection in children

A

Vastus lateralis

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60
Q

Candida infection in HIV patient resistent to fluconazole is given

A

Amphotericin B

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61
Q

Skin wound strength after 3 weeks compared to normal

A

20%

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62
Q

Vomiting center is found in which part of the brain

A

Medulla

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63
Q

Most accurate non invasive test for gastric cancer

A

Urea breath test

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64
Q

At what age intrauterine does TMJ development occur

A

10 weeks

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65
Q

Gonial angle at birth

A

145

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66
Q

% of free monomer in heat cured acrylic resin is

A

0.2-0.5%

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67
Q

Angle of gingival bevel in class 2 preparation

A

35 degrees

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68
Q

How many champy’s osteosynthesis lines exist behind and in front of the mental foramen?

A

2 ahead, 1 behind

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69
Q

Time required for Progression of incipient to cavitated caries on smooth surface?

A

18 months

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70
Q

Checkpoint for stability of fixation of ZMC fracture

A

Zygomaticomaxillary buttress

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71
Q

Time between curing and finishing of composite restoration

A

15 minutes

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72
Q

Which vitamin deficiency is present amongst alcoholics?

A

B1

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73
Q

Which anticoagulant is taken when blood sample is taken for glucose analysis?

A

Fluoride

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74
Q

Kilian’s Dehiscence is present in which structure?

A

Laryngopharynx

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75
Q

What does unilateral paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve lead to?

A

Hoarseness of voice

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76
Q

Enamel hypocalcification and tooth hypomaturation is seen in which condition?

A

Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome

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77
Q

Role of Palladium in addition sillicone?

A

Increase surface details in gypsum

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78
Q

Distance between maxillary major connector and gingival margin

A

6 mm

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79
Q

What does a full set mouth radiograph consist of?

A

17 periapicals and 4 Bitewings

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80
Q

Brushing technique in orthodontic patients

A

Charters’ method

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81
Q

What kind of suture for wounds with different depths and irregular margins?

A

Vertical mattress

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82
Q

Minimum length of abutment for screw retained prosthesis and for cement retained prosthesis

A

Screw: 4 mm
Cement: 5 mm

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83
Q

Chance of recurrence of multicystic ameloblastoma after enucleation

A

<50%

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84
Q

What kind of material is osseoquest?

A

Resorbable & synthethic

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85
Q

For which density of bone is bone tapping necessary before implant placement?

A

D1

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86
Q

Which organ produces albumin?

A

Liver

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87
Q

How deep is the initial pilot drill for implant placement?

A

2 mm

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88
Q

Representation of orthodontic arch form mathematically is done by which curve?

A

Catenary

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89
Q

Fluoride quantity in breast milk

A

5-10

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90
Q

Width of connective tissue around implant

A

1-2 mm

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91
Q

Hand torque required for placing implant

A

20-30 N/cm^2

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92
Q

Where is the schatzki ring situated?

A

Lower oesophagus

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93
Q

In which condition would one find gottron papules?

A

Dermatomyositis

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94
Q

Which RNA type floats freely in cytoplasm?

A

rRNA

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95
Q

Oral foci of Miller’s are histologically seen in which condition?

A

Dental Caries

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96
Q

Which hormones undergo changes in menopause?

A

Gonadotropins increase
Estrogen decrease

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97
Q

Branches of external carotid artery

A

Superior thyroid
Ascending pharyngeal
Lingual
Facial
Occipital
Maxillary
Posterior Auricular
Superficial temporal

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98
Q

Ameloblastoma histologically resembles which other condition?

A

BCC

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99
Q

Which microorganism shows positive catalase test?

A

Staph

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100
Q

What is Willis’ guide?

A

Distance b/w eye and mouth corner = Distance b/w nasal spine and mandible border

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101
Q

What is Niswonger’s method?

A

Vertical dimension at rest (Dimension at occlusion + Freeway space)

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102
Q

Antidote for poisoning caused by anticholinergs, such as insectide

A

Atropine

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103
Q

Which impression technique is used in archs with flabby tissue?

A

Polyvinylsiloxane in window technique

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104
Q

Where is the foramen/canal of scarpa found?

A

Maxilla

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105
Q

According to WHO, what % of sugar should be restricted to in an adult diet?

A

5-10%

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106
Q

When do taste buds appear during pregnancy?

A

10th week IU

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107
Q

When does complementary feeding in infants begin?

A

At 6 months

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108
Q

Which histological tooth tissue shows high levels of albumin?

A

Stellate reticulum

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109
Q

First evidence of calcification of permanent teeth IU

A

14th week

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110
Q

How long after root completion in primary tooth does the root start to resorb?

A

3 years (Anteriors = immediate)

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111
Q

Calcified dentinal tubule wall has an inner lining termed as

A

Lamina limitans

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112
Q

Thin delicate membrane covering the entire crown of newly erupted tooth is

A

Nasmyth’s membrane

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113
Q

Which type of capillaries is responsible for the transfer of metabolites in pulp?

A

Fenestrated capillaries

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114
Q

Which enzyme is seen in stratum intermedium?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

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115
Q

Where is aminopeptidase found during tooth development?

A

Stratum intermedium

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116
Q

How are the Tomes process in the outer enamel shaped?

A

Straight

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117
Q

In which kind of teeth are dead tracts usually seen in?

A

Old permanent teeth

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118
Q

Types of collagen fibres in pulp

A

I and IV

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119
Q

Principal function of pulp

A

Formative

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120
Q

Type of cementum when cementum overlaps enamel

A

Acellular afibrillar

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121
Q

Which kind of teeth show thick layer of cementum

A

Non-functional teeth

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122
Q

Lines of demarcation in bone remodelling is called

A

Reversal line

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123
Q

Which component of saliva shows antibacterial properties?

A

Lactoferrin

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124
Q

Which type of collagen is present in dentin?

A

I

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125
Q

Main crystalline component of calculus

A

Hydroxyappatite

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126
Q

Which periodontal fibers take up maximum masticatory forces?

A

Oblique fibers

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127
Q

How long after periodontal surgery does hemidesmose attachment start to occur?

A

1 week

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128
Q

Difference b/w clinical and radiographic alveolar crest is

A

0 - 1.6 mm

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129
Q

To which complex does A. actinomycetemcomitans belong to?

A

Green

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130
Q

Function of odland bodies?

A

Permeability barrier

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131
Q

What is an implant analogue used for?

A

Replicate implant in cast

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132
Q

Min. distance to be maintained b/w implant and mental foramen is

A

5 mm

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133
Q

Min. distance to be maintained b/w implant and inferior alv. nerve

A

2 mm

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134
Q

Minimum vertical and horizontal bone width required for implant placement

A

10 mm vertical, 6 mm horizontal

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135
Q

Which 2 bacteria are associated with ANUG?

A

Prevotella and Spirochetes

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136
Q

At which stage of gingivits are PMNs present?

A

Stage 1

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137
Q

What is cyclic neutropenia associated with in the mouth?

A

Periodontitis and bone loss

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138
Q

Inhibition of calculus formation can be done by which component of toothpaste?

A

Pyrophosphate

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139
Q

After how long does a CHX chip degrade?

A

7-10 days

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140
Q

What is merin classification used for?

A

Patient recall

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141
Q

Which AB is active against all strains of A. actinomycetemcomitanis?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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142
Q

Which kind of graft is obtained using the trapdoor technique?

A

Connective tissue graft

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143
Q

What do the markings on the WHO probe indicate?

A

3.5, 5.5, 8.5, 11.5

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144
Q

Which does of doxycycline is sub-antimicrobial? What is the recommended dose?

A

20 mg
Recommended: 200 mg 1st day, afterwards 100 mg.

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145
Q

Which type of suture and filament is preferred after periodontal surgery?

A

Vertical mattres with monofilament

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146
Q

Which bone density best matches Ti implant in E module?

A

D2

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147
Q

Most common trichomonas species in the mouth?

A

Tenax

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148
Q

Which other oral condition is desquamative gingivitis related to?

A

Lichen planus

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149
Q

Which condition shows hypocalcified dentin, pulp horns reaching the CEJ and absence of lamina dura?

A

Vitamin D resistant rickets

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150
Q

Which condition shows target-like RBCs?

A

Thalassemia

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151
Q

Which microorganism is most likely to form on heart valve implants?

A

Strep. Viridans

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152
Q

Dose for Amoxicilin for children based on weight

A

50 mg/kg

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153
Q

Which organism is most commonly associated with urinary tract infection in health care facilities?

A

Klebsiella

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154
Q

Which virus causes herpangina?

A

Coxsackie virus

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155
Q

Which 2 microorganisms are most likely to lead to food poisoning from street food incl. diarrhoea and bloody stool?

A

E. coli and Shigella

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156
Q

Which microorganism causes gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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157
Q

Which immune cells does HIV attack?

A

CD4 helper cells

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158
Q

Most common benign tumor in oral cavity?

A

Fibroma

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159
Q

Secondary syphillis occurs after how long?

A

6 weeks

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160
Q

Which condition refers to rootless teeth?

A

Dentin dysplasia

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161
Q

Treatment of choice for kawasaki disease

A

Immunoglobulin and Aspirin

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162
Q

Which vitamin deficiency will cause abnormal keratinization of the skin?

A

Vitamin A

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163
Q

Where are tuberculous ulcers most commonly situated?

A

Tongue

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164
Q

Which disease shows abnormal remodelling of bone?

A

Paget’s disease

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165
Q

Which oral lesions show intra-epidermal split?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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166
Q

Reaction to cosmetic fillers in the oral cavity manifest as

A

Nodules

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167
Q

DD of osteogenesis imperfecta and amelogenesis imperfecta and dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

Osteogenesis: Greying of teeth, obliteration of pulp chamber, enamel chipped
Amelogenesis: generalized thinning of enamel and yellow teeth
Dentinogenesis: Rootless teeth, pulp chamber enlarged/obliterated

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168
Q

Which cells increase in number in salivary glands with age?

A

Oncocytes

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169
Q

Which viral infection would cause a young boy to lose sense of hearing?

A

Rubella

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170
Q

What is greenspan lesion

A

Hairy Leukoplakia

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171
Q

Which condition shows hair-on-end appearance in skull ct?

A

Thalassemia

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172
Q

Drug used to treat crohn’s disease

A

Sulfasalazine

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173
Q

Radiographic appearance of hypophosphatasia

A

Shell teeth

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174
Q

Max exposure for non-occupationally exposed individuals should not exceed

A

100 micrograys/week

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175
Q

Purpose of intensifying screen in x-rays

A

Reduce the dose of radiation

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176
Q

How long before radiotherapy do teeth need to be extracted?

A

2 weeks

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177
Q

What to do with patients who take long term steroids before extraction?

A

More steroids

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178
Q

Max dose of lignocaine w/o epinephrine and with

A

w/o: 4.4mg/kg
w: 7 mg/kg

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179
Q

Most common site of manidbular fracture

A

Condyle

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180
Q

Most commonly used scalpel blade in oral cavity

A

15

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181
Q

Angulation of needle when suturing

A

90 degrees

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182
Q

Clarke’s technique

A

Labial vestibuloplasty

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183
Q

Which muscle causes medial dislocation of condyle when fractured?

A

Lateral pterygoid

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184
Q

Most common mandibular surgery for correcting mandibular retrognathy

A

Inverted L Osteotomy

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185
Q

Purpose of nitrogen in anaesthetic cartridge?

A

Preservation of vasoconstrictor

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186
Q

Which condition shows ground glass appearance in x-ray? Therapy?

A

Fibrous dysplasia
Surgical cosmetic recontouring

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187
Q

First step for management of unresponsive patient on the chair

A

Ammonia inhalation

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188
Q

Guerin’s sign in which fracture?

A

Le Fort I

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189
Q

Best and short duration LA for children

A

Procaine

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190
Q

Which LA causes vasoconstriction?

A

Ropicavaine

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191
Q

Where does metastasis in oro-maxillofacial region mostly occur to?

A

Mandible

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192
Q

Which vasoconstrictor is specifically contraindicated in pregnant women? Why?

A

Felypressin
Oxytoic action

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193
Q

Which muscle can cause spreading of maxillary tooth infection to the infraorbital region?

A

Levator anguli oris

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194
Q

Gow gates and Akinosi Technique regions

A

Gow: Condyle
Akinosi: Pterygomandibular space

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195
Q

Most commonly injured branch of facial nerve during treatment of subcondylar fracture

A

Buccal nerve

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196
Q

Confirmation of csf leakage with which component

A

Beta transferrin

197
Q

When can chyle leak occur?

A

Neck dissection

198
Q

Most common complication of maxillary wisdom tooth extraction

A

Tuberosity fracture

199
Q

Role of MgO in alginate

A

Increase strength

200
Q

Which type of porosity is seen in case of rapid solidification of molten alloy?

A

Microporosity

201
Q

What is stiffness?

A

Ability to resist deformation

202
Q

Young’s modulus

A

Stress/Strain below elastic limit

203
Q

What is stress?

A

Internal resistance of body to external load

204
Q

Which impression material is most difficult to remove w/o fracturing tooth on stone model?

A

Polyether

205
Q

In which material is brush heap structure found?

A

Alginate

206
Q

Most common accelerator in gypsum
Which alternative?

A

2% potassium sulfate
Sodium chloride

207
Q

Which chemical inhibits polymerization of PMMA during storage?

A

Hydroquinone

208
Q

What causes fins and spines in castings?

A

Rapid heating

209
Q

What causes incomplete casting?

A

Narrow sprue

210
Q

Which wax is used in RPD prep?

A

Casting wax

211
Q

Which amalgam phase has lowest strength?

A

Gamma 2

212
Q

Which amalgam phase is most corrosive?

A

Gamma 2

213
Q

Main constituent of bioactive glass

A

Silica

214
Q

Which ceramic is referred to as smart ceramic

A

Zirconia

215
Q

How to improve casting details in polysulfide impression?

A

Mixing surfactant to impression material

216
Q

Which phase change causes transformation tougening of zirconia?

A

Tetragonal to monoclinic

217
Q

Content of 18:8 stainless steel

A

18 Cr, 8 Ni

218
Q

Max mixing time of GIC

A

45 secs

219
Q

Role of metal oxide in porcelain

A

Colour + Increased strength

220
Q

When is wedge wedging technique indicated?

A

Concavity in proximal surface of tooth

221
Q

Which cavity class shows highest c-factor?

A

Class V

222
Q

Why longer etching time in children?

A

Aprismatic and wavy enamel

223
Q

Gingival bevel in class II prep

A

35 degrees

224
Q

What are burs dipped in during autoclaving?

A

2% sodium nitrite

225
Q

Particle size in alumina air abrasion for non-invasive prep

A

50 micrometers

226
Q

Major drawback of metal denture base for CPD

A

Relining is difficult

227
Q

How is masseteric notch recorded during impression?

A

Patient closes against opening movement

228
Q

Which muscle isn’t present in the retromolar pad?

A

Masseter

229
Q

What angle should the head be to the floor to record max depression of soft palate?

A

30 degrees

230
Q

Minimum amount of tooth encirclement for proper clasp action

A

180 degrees

231
Q

Why are max. posterior teeth placed buccal to alveolar ridge in CD?

A

To prevent ridge resorption

232
Q

Extension of lingual flange of mandibular denture?

A

Beyond mylohyoid ridge and towards the tongue

233
Q

Sequence of correction of occlusal interference

A

Balance, Working, Protrusive

234
Q

Principal problem in combining CP and natural dentition

A

Difficulty in achieving balanced occlusion

235
Q

When does chattering of speech occur in case of CP?

A

Increased VD

236
Q

How long to avoid radiotherapy after extraction?

A

15-20 days

237
Q

Min age to prescribe tetracycline

A

8 years

238
Q

Transfer of DNA through bacteriophage is known as..

A

Transduction

239
Q

Where is pacemaker situated?

A

Right Atrium

240
Q

How much movement in inital phase of tooth movement?

A

0.4 - 0.9 mm

241
Q

Isthmus classification (Kim)

A

I: Two faintly connected canals
II: Two connected canals
III: Complete Isthmus
IV: Complete/Incomplete of 3+ canals
V: No connection b/w canals

242
Q

What happens if MTA is mixed for more than 4 minutes?

A

Dehydration of mass occurs

243
Q

Root classification (Weine)

A

I: 1 canal
II: 2 canals merging into 1
III: 2 separate canals
IV: 1 canal dividing into 2

244
Q

Why is endodontic sealer cytotoxic?

A

Eugenol

245
Q

Which teeth canal orifices do not follow the law of symmetry?

A

Max molars

246
Q

Which microorganism is involved in endodontic flare up?

A

Fusobacterium

247
Q

How long after reimplantation of avulsed tooth should RCT be performed?

A

14 days

248
Q

Setting time of Biodentine

A

9-12 minutes

249
Q

Why higher chance of perforation on maxillary 1st premolar?

A

Concavity at CEJ mesial

250
Q

Initial irrigant in case of apical abscess

A

Normal saline

251
Q

Duration of CHX intracanal dressing

A

4 weeks

252
Q

Until what age is a child considered neonate?

A

4 weeks

253
Q

Orthodontic wire with highest and lowest E-Module

A

Lowest: Ni-Ti
Highest: Co-Cr-Ni

254
Q

Types of orthodontic wires preferred during initial, intermediate and end-stage of treatment

A

Initial: Ni-Ti
Intermediate: Beta Titanium
End: Stainless steel

255
Q

What type of inheritance is described if a mother passes a disease to all her children?

A

Mitochondrial

256
Q

Most accurate method of measuring gfr

A

Inulin clearance

257
Q

Where is rima glottis situated?

A

B/w the vocal folds

258
Q

W arch is used in treatment of

A

Posterior cross bite

259
Q

Katz classification is based on which teeth

A

Premolars

260
Q

How deep is distal shoe space maintainer placed on erupting tooth?

A

1 mm below mesial contour

261
Q

Length of remaining apical seal when placing post

A

5 mm

262
Q

Type of bacteria found in pulpitis

A

Facultative anaerobes

263
Q

Shape of canal when using Reamer

A

Round

264
Q

Principle nerve fibers at the apex

A

Umyelinated C fibers and myelinated A fibers

265
Q

What acid is used in microabrasion?

A

HCl

266
Q

Why do porosities appear in acrylic denture?

A

Lack of sufficient pressure applied to flask

267
Q

Where are Malassez cells situated?

A

PDL

268
Q

Management of ANUG

A

Metronidazole + Hydrogen Peroxide Mouthwash

269
Q

Differentiating feature of aggressive periodontitis

A

Little or no local factors present

270
Q

Difference b/w general and localized aggressive periodontitis

A

General: Weak antibody response

271
Q

Most common developmental cyst

A

Nasopalatine cyst

272
Q

Which nevi is clinically benign but histologically malignant?

A

Spitz nevi

273
Q

Most common bone tumor in children

A

Osteosarcoma

274
Q

Which cyst develops from rest of Serres?

A

OKC

275
Q

Which tumours lead to widening of PDL ligament?

A

Chondrosarcoma
Osteosarcoma
(Scleroderma)

276
Q

Which cyst is hollow and without epithelial lining in mandible?

A

Traumatic bone cyst/Hemorrhagic bone cyst

277
Q

How long does it take for gingivitis to occur in uncontrolled plaque environment?

A

7-21 days

278
Q

Which cells are predominant in stage I-III of gingivitis?

A

I: Neutrophils
II: Lymphocytes
III: Plasma cells

279
Q

Radiographic appearance of Garre’s osteomyelitis

A

Onion skin appearance

280
Q

Most common site of Garre’s Osteomyelitis

A

Mandibular molar

281
Q

Which bone disease leads to abnormal remodelling of bone causing fractures, blindness and deafness?

A

Paget’s disease

282
Q

Which bone disease involves lack of bone resorption leading to increased bone mass?

A

Osteopetrosis

283
Q

Which oral lesion shows saw-tooth appearance histologically?

A

Lichen planus

284
Q

Which oral lesion contains tzanck cells?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

285
Q

Extreme widening of PDL ligaments is a symptom of which skin disease?

A

Scleroderma

286
Q

Safe INR value for extractions

A

3.5

287
Q

Which LA is unaffected by pH?

A

Benzocaine

288
Q

pKa of Lidocaine

A

7.8

289
Q

Uses of Prostaglandin E1

A

Impotence
Abortion
Ulcers

290
Q

Use of PGI2

A

Pulmonary hypertension

291
Q

Impression material of choice for patients with OSMF

A

A-Sillicone

292
Q

Which muscle limits lingual flange in posterior region in CDs?

A

Palatoglossus

293
Q

Angle between rest seat and long axis of abutment

A

Less than 90 degrees

294
Q

Depth of demineralization in enamel and dentin

A

Enamel: 10-20 micrometers
Dentin: 7.5 micrometers

295
Q

Predominant microorganism in ANUG

A

Spirochetes

296
Q

Which papillae are affected in geographic tongue?

A

Filliform

297
Q

% of hypochlorite in Carisolv

A

0,5%

298
Q

Holes on lingual aspect of deciduous teeth

A

Gubernacular canals

299
Q

Penicillin induced hypersensitivity is which type?

A

Type B

300
Q

Connector height for ceramic fixed partial dentures

A

4 mm

301
Q

Which bacterial enzyme is located in gingival fluid?

A

Phospholipase

302
Q

What is the tin-mercury phase called?

A

Gamma 2

303
Q

What is the silver-mercury phase called?

A

Gamma 1

304
Q

Average duration of function of primary teeth

A

6 years

305
Q

% of lifetime primary teeth are used to chew

A

6%

306
Q

Efficacy v Potency of a drug

A

Efficacy: Maximum response a drug can produce
Potency: Dose required to produce response

307
Q

Chemical mediator for pyrexia and inflammation

A

Prostaglandins

308
Q

Mural thrombi are seen on which structure?

A

Heart chamber

309
Q

What is thrombasthenia?

A

Platelet aggregation disorder

310
Q

How much epi is given during anaphylactic shock?

A

0.5-1 mg

311
Q

Disinfection of alginate should not exceed how long?

A

10 minutes

312
Q

PT time

A

11-15 s

313
Q

Type of ZOE cements and uses

A

Type 1: Temporary cementation
Type 2: Long term cementing
Type 3: Temporary filling
Type 4: Intermediate filling

314
Q

Half life of fluoride in toothpaste

A

30 mins

315
Q

Earliest tumour to appear after birth

A

Cystic hygroma

316
Q

When does root completion of primary tooth finish?

A

1 - 1.5 years post eruption

317
Q

Which factor is the initiator of the extrinsic coagulation system?

A

VII

318
Q

Resting membrane potential of a nerve is due to?

A

K+

319
Q

Lid retraction feature is seen in which condition?

A

Thyrotoxicosis

320
Q

Commonest cause of cerebrovascular accident

A

Infarct

321
Q

Where is Rind sign seen?

A

FD

322
Q

Antibacterial substance in saliva which prevents the attachment of A. viscosus

A

Myeloperoxidase

323
Q

What is inhalational bronchodilator with long duration of action?

A

Tiotropium bromide

324
Q

Which premolar shows C-shaped canal?

A

Mandibular 1st premolars

325
Q

Cariostatic amount of fluoride in water

A

1 ppm

326
Q

Which amino acids are seen in collagen?

A

Glycine and proline

327
Q

Which condition shows Lines of Zahn?

A

Coralline thrombus

328
Q

Copper-containing enzyme in collagen synthesis

A

Lysyl oxidase

329
Q

Which ulcer has rolled out everted edge?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

330
Q

Which ulcer has punched out edge?

A

Syphillis

331
Q

Calorific value of fat

A

9

332
Q

Fluoride concentration to reduce radiation caries

A

1%

333
Q

Which muscle opens the inlet of the larynx?

A

Thryoepiglottic muscle

334
Q

How does rickets occur?

A

Increased phosphate excretion in urine

335
Q

Most susceptible part of gingiva to gingival breakdown

A

Interdental col

336
Q

Which stage of the cell cycle is affected by ionization?

A

G2-M

337
Q

pH of sabouraud agar for staining

A

5.6

338
Q

Which conditioning agent should be avoided with MTA?

A

EDTA

339
Q

At which angle does the condyle start to rotate and glide?

A

13 degrees

340
Q

Organic content of dentin

A

35%

341
Q

Which cementum is found at the cervical portion of the tooth?

A

Acellular afibrillar

342
Q

Earliest marker of renal damage in diabetes mellitus

A

Microalbuminuria

343
Q

Types of haemorrhages

A

Primary: At time of surgery
Secondary: 7-10 days post-surgery
Reactionary: 6-12 hours post-surgery

344
Q

Egg shaped pontic is indicated for replacement of which teeth?

A

Mandibular posteriors

345
Q

Fluoride safe dose

A

8-16 mg/kg body weight

346
Q

Calcitriol helps maintain calcium level in blood in association with what?

A

Parathyroid hormone

347
Q

Suture with high plasticity and least adhesion to tissues

A

Prolene

348
Q

Effect of histamine of large and small blood vessels

A

Large: Constrict
Small: Dilate

349
Q

Which histamine receptors cause relaxation and constriction of bronchial smooth muscles?

A

H1: Constriction
H2: Relaxation

350
Q

Indicated treatment after mechanical exposure of pulp in deciduous teeth

A

DPC

351
Q

What type of space maintainer is nance space maintainer?

A

Passive, non-functional

352
Q

Measurement of periodontal pocket depth after treatment is a type of what end point?

A

Surrogate end point

353
Q

Ramjford index

A

6, 1-4, 6, 1-4

354
Q

When does verill’s sign appear?

A

After diazepam sedation

355
Q

First radiographic sign of osteomyelitis

A

Blurring of trabeculae

356
Q

Which drugs can be safely excreted if patient has renal disease?

A

Cef (Safe) in
Rifampicin
Erythromycin
Nafcillin
Ampicillin
Lincosamides
Disease - Doxycyclin

357
Q

Elephant foot is seen in what kind of fracture?

A

Mal-union

358
Q

Endodontic flare-ups in between appointments are due to which microorganism?

A

P. gingivalis

359
Q

Nerve supply of soft palate muscles

A

Tensor veli palatini: V
The rest: X

360
Q

Protein secreted by odontoblasts

A

Collagen

361
Q

Most common and slowly growing thyroid cancer

A

Papillary

362
Q

What is theophylline used for?

A

cAMP inhibition to induce bronchodilation in asthma treatment

363
Q

In which radiograph are zygoma fractures best seen?

A

Waters view

364
Q

In which condition do we see Ranne complex? What is it?

A

TB
Necrotic material calcifying

365
Q

Which clotting factor is common to both intrinsic and extrinsic pathway?

A

V

366
Q

Impression material with least setting time

A

A-sillicone

367
Q

pH of set MTA

A

12.5

368
Q

Cranial nerve related to apex of petrous bone

A

VI

369
Q

Severe destruction of DNA can be tested by which test?

A

PCR

370
Q

Range of numbers in CT scan

A

-1000 to +1000

371
Q

Infrahyoid muscles are supplied by which nerve?

A

Ansa cervicalis

372
Q

In which organ do we NOT see pale infarct?

A

Lungs

373
Q

Which condition causes secondary hyperthyroidism?

A

Pituitary disease

374
Q

Most common cause of UTI

A

E. coli

375
Q

Why is lidocaine used more commonly?

A

Lesser incidence of allergic reactions

376
Q

Most common cause of midsystolic murmur

A

Aortic stenosis

377
Q

Buffalo hump is seen in

A

Excess corticosteroids

378
Q

Which antitubercular drug is bacteriostatic?

A

Ethambutol

379
Q

What condition shows alarm clock headache?

A

Sphenopalatine neuralgia

380
Q

First radiographic sign of osteomyelitis

A

Blurring of trabeculae

381
Q

What is HERS made of?

A

Inner and outer enamel epithelium

382
Q

Penicillase resistant penicillins

A

Cloxacillin, Methicillin

383
Q

Grand mal epilepsy is treated with

A

Phenytoin

384
Q

Fungus affecting reticuloendothelial system

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

385
Q

Most common cause of peptic ulcers in adult patients

A

H. pylori infections

386
Q

Where does rule of 10 apply?

A

Pheochromocytoma

387
Q

Where is alternative hemiplegia seen in?

A

Weber syndrome

388
Q

Superomedial wall of suboccipital triangle

A

Rectus capitis muscle

389
Q

What does nephrotic syndrome cause?

A

Hyperkalemia

390
Q

Which valve is most affected by rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral

391
Q

Main constituent of tissue conditioner

A

PEMA

392
Q

Which antitubercular drug causes peripheral neuritis?

A

Isoniazid

393
Q

What is RAS inhibited by?

A

GTPase activating protein

394
Q

Schilling test is done to test for which deficiency?

A

Vitamin B12

395
Q

Broad spectrum antiepileptic

A

Sodium valproate

396
Q

Frontal headache is caused by which drug?

A

Indomethacin

397
Q

Main disadvantage of opioid analgesics

A

Urinary retention

398
Q

Where is uthoff’s sign seen?

A

Multiple sclerosis

399
Q

Perioral freckles with increased chance of breast and intestinal cancer is a feature of

A

Peutz jeughers syndrome

400
Q

Poor prognosis of furcation involvement

A

Maxillary 1st premolar

401
Q

Which type of movement is Bennett movement?

A

Lateral

402
Q

Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol

A

Protein synthesis inhibition

403
Q

What is CAMP test used to identify?

A

Group B Streptococci

404
Q

Triad of poikiloderma, acral atrophy and photosensitivity indicates

A

Kindler syndrome

405
Q

Test used to assess treatment of syphillis

A

VDRL

406
Q

Most common nevus in oral cavity

A

Intramucosal

406
Q

Acrodynia occurs due to

A

Mercury poisoning

407
Q

Unilateral cleft lip appears because of lack of fusion of which processes?

A

Median nasal and maxillary process

408
Q

Which cell produces surfactant?

A

Type 2 pneumocyte

409
Q

Which structure influences the distobuccal border of the maxillary denture?

A

Coronoid process

410
Q

Which cranial nerve is not situated in the medulla oblongata?

A

Facial

411
Q

Drug of choice for rheumatoid arthritis

A

Methotrexate

412
Q

Muscle inserted into buccal frenum of maxilla

A

Levator anguli oris

413
Q

What forms heparin?

A

Mast cells

414
Q

In which type of investment is green shrinkage seen?

A

Ethyl silicate

415
Q

What are tomes’ process derived from?

A

Ameloblasts

416
Q

Which nerves innervate the muscles of the tongue?

A

Palatoglossus: X
Everything else: XII

417
Q

2 syndromes with beaten skull radiographic appearance

A

Apert syndrome
Crouzon syndrome

418
Q

Filler content in macrofilled composites

A

70-80%

419
Q

Enamel bevel angle and width in class IIIs and IVs

A

45 deg
0.5 - 1.5 mm

420
Q

Which teeth do not follow law of symmetry?

A

Maxillary molars

421
Q

In which condition is serum lipase increased?

A

Acute pancreatitis

422
Q

Organ of Corti is a part of?

A

Scala media

423
Q

Most common feature of Hurler’s Syndrome

A

Corneal clouding

424
Q

Evidence of immunofluorescence and IgG against hemisdesmosomes is indicative of what?

A

Bullous pemphigoid

425
Q

Altered neural crest cells are implicated in what syndrome?

A

Treacher-Collins

426
Q

Most common mycobacterium in HIV

A

Mycobacterium avium

427
Q

Which vitamin is deficient in vegans? What does it cause?

A

Vitamin B12
Megaloblastic anemia

428
Q

Staph aureus helps in which type of agglutination?

A

Co-agglutination

429
Q

Speech assessment for CLP patients at what age?

A

18 months

430
Q

How long should a petit facemask be worn?

A

14-16 hours/days

431
Q

When is progesterone level at its peak during cycle?

A

Between ovulation and menstrual phase

432
Q

Bone density of anterior maxilla

A

D3

433
Q

Which drugs shouldn’t a person taking allupurinol be given?

A

Probenecid

434
Q

Which element is added to stainless steel to increase its stability?

A

Titanium

435
Q

Which skin lesion is predominant in a patient with ulcerative colitis?

A

Psoriasis

436
Q

Specific test used to identify staph aureus

A

Latex slide

437
Q

What does acute kidney failure cause?

A

Hyperkalemia

438
Q

Impression material for flabby ridges

A

Irreversible hydrocolloid

439
Q

Function of rosin in ZOE

A

Accelerator

440
Q

Most common cause of screw retained implant prosthesis

A

Screw loosening

441
Q

Preventive treatment for leukoplakia

A

Topical retinoic acid

442
Q

Drug of choice in gonnorhea

A

Ceftriaxone

443
Q

Name of fibers in mantle dentin and type of collagen it contains

A

Van Korff fibers
Type 3

444
Q

Most commonly involved valve in drug abusers in case of IE

A

Tricuspid

445
Q

Where is Rashkow plexus situated?

A

Cell free zone (Weil)

446
Q

In which tuberculosis is Ghon’s complex found?

A

Primary

447
Q

Which forceps for mobilization of maxilla? Sharp/Blunt ends where?

A

Rowe’s forceps
Sharp -> Mouth

448
Q

What is coffin corner?

A

Retromolar trigon

449
Q

Which monoclonal antibody is used in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Infliximab

450
Q

Renal tubular function is best assessed by

A

Plasma electrolytes

451
Q

Depth of caries which is seen radiographically

A

500 microns

452
Q

What is double processing method used for?

A

Curing of complete dentures

453
Q

Where is reverse architecture commonly seen?

A

TFO

454
Q

Opioid with anticholinergic action

A

Pethidine

455
Q

What type of anemia does G6PD deficiency lead to?

A

Hemolytic anemia

456
Q

Herring bone pattern is seen in

A

Fibrosarcoma

457
Q

Which bone is involved in osteomyelitis

A

Medullary bone

458
Q

A combination of weakness/fatigue, thrombocytopenia, bone marrow failure and oral bleeding disorders is indicative of which anemia?

A

Aplastic anemia

459
Q

Correct dosage schedule for periostat for chronic periodontitis patients

A

2x daily for 3 months

460
Q

True yeast

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

461
Q

Which receptors are attacked in myasthenia gravis?

A

Nicotinic receptors

462
Q

Angle former is a modification of which instrument?

A

Excavator

463
Q

Penicillamine is an antidote for what?

A

Copper

464
Q

Intranasal osteotomy is done through which structure?

A

Inferior meatus

465
Q

Which biopsy procedure provides quickest diagnosis?

A

Frozen section

466
Q

Dentin that is freshly laid over the pulp is called

A

Predentin

467
Q

Presence of bifurcation in single rooted tooth is most common in

A

Mandibular first premolar

468
Q

Diuretic which exhibitis ototoxicity?

A

Furosemide

469
Q

Which elevator is used in stobie extraction?

A

Straight

470
Q

Which muscle is not attached to modiolus?

A

Zygomaticus minor

471
Q

Where do ameloblasts originate from?

A

Ectoderm

472
Q

Kuttner’s tumor involves which gland?

A

Submandibular

473
Q

What does mini esthetics in orthodontics refer to?

A

Inciso-gingival display

474
Q

Skin over angle to mandible is supplied by

A

Greater auricular nerve

475
Q

Hyaline ring is seen in which pathology?

A

AOT

476
Q

Cause of thalassemia

A

Deletion of beta chains

477
Q

Excretory duct tumor

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

478
Q

Where is bone marrow aspiration biopsy taken from?

A

Posterior iliac crest

479
Q

Areas of light and dark appear as dark in radiographs because of

A

High contrast

480
Q

Difference between pulpal and periodontal abscess

A

Vitality

481
Q

Gingival bevel in amalgam class II

A

15-20 degrees

482
Q

Excess water in alginate causes

A

Rough cast

483
Q

Cervicofacial infections are mostly caused by

A

Actinomyces israelii

484
Q

Disadvantage of overcontouring class Vs

A

Increased plaque retention

485
Q

Which procedure accelerates orthodontic treatment?

A

Corticotomy

486
Q

Which gingiva is keratinised?

A

Marginal + Attached

487
Q

Implant biological width

A

4 - 4.5 mm